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Biotechnology Exam Materials - 1016 Verified Questions

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Biotechnology Exam Materials

Course Introduction

Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the application of biological systems, organisms, and molecular techniques to develop products and processes benefiting society. Students will study fundamental principles of genetics, molecular biology, and cell culture, while gaining an understanding of how these concepts are utilized in areas such as pharmaceuticals, agriculture, environmental management, and industrial production. The course also addresses ethical, legal, and social issues associated with biotechnology innovations, preparing students to critically analyze the impact and potential of emerging biotechnological advancements.

Recommended Textbook

Human Genetics 11th Edition by Ricki Lewis Dr

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16 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Anthropology

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Q1) ________ is the subdiscipline of osteology that is concerned with disease and trauma in earlier populations.

A) Forensic anthropology

B) Primatology

C) Anthropometry

D) Paleoanthropology

E) Paleopathology

Answer: E

Q2) Archaeologists

A) primarily recover valuable artifacts

B) are not interested in human behavior

C) study earlier human groups using artifacts and structures as their evidence

D) never work with physical anthropology

E) only examine complex civilizations

Answer: C

Q3) The 3.7 million year old footprints of two hominids were discovered in a riverbed in Texas.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Heredity and Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mendelian traits are described as discrete, or discontinuous because

A) Their phenotypic expressions overlap

B) Their phenotypic expressions do not fall into clearly defined categories

C) Their genotypic expression overlap

D) Their genotypic expressions do not fall into clearly defined categories

E) Their phenotypic expressions do not overlap

Answer: E

Q2) What is gene flow defined as?

A) production of new alleles

B) production of new genetic material

C) chance loss of alleles in a population

D) exchange of genes between populations

E) differential reproductive success of individuals

Answer: D

Q3) A manifestation of sickle-cell anemia is the abnormal hemoglobin S reduces the ability of red blood cells to transport oxygen throughout the body.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: The Development of Evolutionary Theory

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Q1) Charles Darwin refrained from immediately publishing his theory of natural selection because he was aware of its controversial nature.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The discovery of evolutionary principles first took place in western Europe, made possible by

A) advances in scientific thinking that began in the 18th century

B) understanding by Christians that there was a recent origin of life on earth

C) the cohesive theory formulated by Arabs, Indians, and Chinese that species were continuously changing

D) advances in scientific thinking that date back to the 16th century.

E) the central importance placed on evolution by physical anthropologists.

Answer: D

Q3) Charles Darwin acknowledged the importance of sexual reproduction when formulating his theory of natural selection.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Modern Human Variation and Adaptation

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Q1) Explain the historical views on human variation.

Q2) Anders Retzius was the first European scientist to classify humans into races. A)True

B)False

Q3) Hypoxia

A) is the reduced availability of oxygen

B) occurs at higher altitudes because the atmosphere contains less oxygen than at sea level

C) exerts no stress on humans

D) is a problem for people living at sea level

E) is not a concern for humans

Q4) When a disease is continuously present in a population it is said to be

A) pandemic

B) chronic

C) epidemic

D) lethal

E) endemic

Q5) Explain what HIV is and the hypothesis of its origin. Describe why it is seen as the best example of evolution and adaptation in a pathogen.

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Q6) Discuss developmental acclimatization to high altitude.

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Chapter 5: Macroevolution: Processes of Vertebrate and Mammalian Evolution

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Q1) Define "species" and the biological species concept. Why is the latter the one preferred by most biologists?

Q2) Structural similarities shared by species that are acquired by descent from a common ancestor are

A) analogies

B) homologies

C) acquired

D) uncommon

E) uninformative of evolutionary relationships

Q3) During the Paleozoic era, reptiles were the dominant land vertebrates.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Structural similarities shared by a wide array of distantly related species that are inherited from a remote ancestor, such as the number of bones in the forelimb, are termed

A) specialized

B) ancestral (primitive)

C) adaptive radiations

D) analogies

E) derived (modified)

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Chapter 6: An Overview of the Primates

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Q1) Currently, there are approximately _______ species of non-human primates.

A) 230

B) 23

C) 30

D) 2300

E) 2

Q2) In the classification of the primates, the lemurs, lorises, and tarsiers would be placed in the suborder Strepsirhini.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following are Strepsirhini?

A) New World monkeys

B) lorises

C) Old World monkeys

D) humans

E) chimpanzees

Q4) Compare chimpanzee and bonobo anatomy and social behavior.

Q5) Discuss the form of locomotion called braciation. Among which primates is it most commonly fund? Why are some called "semibrachiators?" Where are the latter found?

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Chapter 7: Primate Behavior

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Q1) Altruism is a behavior that

A) benefits another while involving some risk to the performer

B) benefits the performer while involving risk to another individual

C) benefits both the performer and another individual while involving risk to both

D) is not common among primates

E) creates potential risk to dependent offspring

Q2) Contrast autonomic responses and behaviors with intentional behaviors that serve as communication.

Q3) In many primate species, ________ have/has a central role in reinforcing social relationships.

A) play

B) coalition formation

C) dominance hierarchies

D) food-sharing

E) grooming

Q4) Kanzi the bonobo learned to produce sharp flakes by throwing rocks to the ground.

A)True

B)False

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Understanding the Past: Archaeological and Paleoanthropological Methods

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Q1) What is meant by biocultural evolution?

Q2) Potassium argon dating is typically used on hominin sites. A)True

B)False

Q3) Does the home based foraging pattern adequately describe the Oldowan sites?

Q4) Who are the Leakeys, and what is their claim to paloeanthropological fame?

Q5) The earliest artifact sites are from the Gona and Bouri areas, dating to

A) 7 mya

B) 2.6 mya

C) 500,000 years ago

D) 1.5 mya

E) 5 mya

Q6) Why is paleoanthropology considered to be a multi-disciplinary field of study?

Q7) List and define the goals of archaeology.

Q8) Define paleoanthropology and describe the nature and process of paleoanthropological research.

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Q9) Describe the process of archaeological research, the types of information that comprise the archaeological record, and the techniques available for reconstructing the past.

Q10) What is the importance of experimental archaeology? Provide an example.

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Chapter 9: Hominin Origins

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Sample Questions

Q1) All researchers agree that Sahelanthropus is a definite hominin.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The oldest possible hominin found to date has been given which genus name?

A) Australopithecus

B) Sahelanthropus

C) Zinjanthropus

D) Ardipithecus

E) Orrorin

Q3) For humans, culture integrates an entire adaptive strategy involving all of the following except

A) cognitive components

B) political components

C) economic components

D) social components

E) biological components

Q4) The A. afarensis hand, wrist, and foot bones are indistinguishable from those of modern humans.

A)True

B)False

Page 12

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Chapter 10: The First Dispersal of the Genus Homo: Homo

Erectus and Contemporaries

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Q1) The cranial remains from Dmanisi are characteristic of all of the following except A) are easily distinguishable from modern Homo sapiens

B) bear some similarities to early Homo specimens from East Africa

C) bear similarities to australopithecus specimens

D) have very small cranial capacities

E) are different from other hominins outside Africa

Q2) Given the newest dates for the Ngandong Homo erectus material on Java, it is possible that Homo erectus could have existed contemporaneously with Homo sapiens. A)True

B)False

Q3) Describe the attributes and important uses of the biface as part of the Acheulian tool kit.

Q4) Discuss the fossil finds at Dmanisi in terms of their morphology and in terms of the information they provide about the dispersal of hominids out of Africa.

Q5) List the differences between the cranium and brain size of Homo erectus and modern Homo sapiens.

Q6) List the characteristics of Homo erectus discoveries in Java and China.

Page 13

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Chapter 11: Premodern Humans

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Q1) Remains evidencing Middle Pleistocene culture indicate that premodern Homo sapiens

A) did not build temporary structures

B) did not exploit different food sources

C) had not learned to exploit marine resources

D) presumably hunted large animals, perhaps horses

E) lived in caves but not open air sites

Q2) The Neandertal site in Croatia that has produced hominin remains showing the full suite of classic Neandertal morphology is

A) La Chapelle-aux-Saints

B) Krapina

C) Shanidar

D) Arago Cave

E) Broken Hill

Q3) Describe the injuries and pathologies evident in the Shanidar I skeleton. What, if anything, does this tell us about Neandertal lifestyle and/or cultural behavior?

Q4) The Gran Dolina human remains are definitely Homo erectus.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: The Origin and Dispersal of Modern Humans

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Q1) _______ is a site in southern France dated to 28,000 years ago. Fossil material from this site became the archetype for Upper Paleolithic Europeans.

A) Skh l

B) La Chapelle-aux-Saints

C) Cro-Magnon

D) Qafzeh

E) Zhoukoudian

Q2) What does the discovery of Homo floresiensis tell us about the adaptive potential of humans?

Q3) There is evidence of chronological overlap in occupation of the Near East by Neandertals and modern humans.

A)True

B)False

Q4) It is hypothesized that some population of inhabitants from Indonesia was the first group to colonize Australia.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Summarize the main points of the various Replacement Models.

Q6) Review the evidence relative to the human occupation of Australia.

Page 15

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Chapter 13: Early Holocene Hunters and Gatherers

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Sample Questions

Q1) Who was the Kennewick man? Why are the remains important for understanding the settlement of the New World?

Q2) Which of the following describes the primary difference between the diet of people in Northern and Western Europe and those in the Near East?

A) Diet in the Near East included more wild plant foods.

B) The European diet included more plant foods.

C) Diet in the Near East included more animal foods.

D) Coastal resources were much more important in the Near East.

E) Coastal resources were not exploited by European groups.

Q3) Paleo-Indian subsistence is best defined as

A) variable based on local environmental conditions

B) based mostly on marine resources

C) a uniform pattern of specialized megafauna exploitation

D) primarily associated with gathering nut and seed crops

E) focused almost exclusively on mammoths and mastodons

Q4) The earliest skeletons from the New World show greater biological diversity than do modern Native Americans.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Food Production

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Q1) What challenges are present in tracing Africa's Neolithic past?

Q2) What was so "revolutionary" about the Neolithic? Discuss some of the fundamental differences between Middle Stone Age (Mesolithic or Epipaleolithic) and Neolithic lifeways.

Q3) Explain major ways in the development of farming in the New World.

Q4) Explain the importance of archaeobotanical studies to the scientific understanding of ancient human plant use.

Q5) New World domesticates include an important triad of crops that eventually came together in the milpa intercropping system. These domesticates include beans, squash and

A) white potatoes

B) pumpkins

C) quinoa

D) maize

E) sunflowers

Q6) Childe's Oasis model implies that humans were predestined to develop agriculture.

A)True

B)False

Q7) What archaeological evidence supports domestication and agriculture?

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Chapter 15: The First Civilizations

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Q1) The evidence of writing during the Shang dynasty in China was typically associated with

A) recording economic transactions

B) the process of divination or prophecy

C) religious texts

D) records of the succession of royal families

E) property records

Q2) The decline of Sumerian civilization may be linked to:

A) constant competition between city-states

B) agricultural use of fertilizers

C) the presence of a prolonged drought in Mesopotamia

D) lack of competition among internal agencies

E) military stagnation

Q3) Archaeologists agree that to date, the earliest true city yet discovered is:

A) Jericho

B) Uruk

C) Çatalhöyük

D) Jarmo

E) Mohenjo-Daro

Q4) What was the underlying unifying factor of the Chavin culture?

Page 18

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Chapter 16: Conclusion

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Q1) The vast majority of countries and their leaders

A) agree that global climate change is not a very serious and urgent problem.

B) agree that scientists have been mistaken in their interpretations of the severity of climate change.

C) agree that global climate change is a very serious and urgent problem.

D) disagree as to whether greenhouse gasses contribute to climate change.

E) disagree as to the future of the coal industry.

Q2) The term Anthropocene implies that

A) we were the major force of nature prior to 10,000 years ago.

B) our global impact has accelerated greatly during the past couple of centuries.

C) millions of years from now the record of human life will be eradicated.

D) no other species can be acclaimed to be responsible for the global effects that humans have already achieved.

E) there are more humans than bacteria.

Q3) Human activity in the last two centuries is not the most significant cause of this climate change.

A)True

B)False

Q4) List the threats to the Great Barrier Reef.

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