Biotechnology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary field that harnesses biological systems, organisms, and cellular components to develop innovative products and technologies for a wide range of applications in medicine, agriculture, industry, and the environment. This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of molecular and cellular biology, genetic engineering, and bioprocessing techniques. Topics covered include recombinant DNA technology, bioinformatics, biomanufacturing, genetic modification of plants and animals, and ethical considerations related to biotechnology. Through lectures and laboratory exercises, students gain practical experience and deepen their understanding of how biotechnology is shaping the future of science and society.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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1140 Verified Questions
1140 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each nucleotide in a strand of DNA is composed of a(n)____________________,a(n)____________________,and a(n)____________________.
Answer: sugar,base,phosphate group base,sugar,phosphate group sugar,phosphate group,base phosphate group,sugar,base base,phosphate group,sugar phosphate group,base,sugar
Q2) Genetics is defined as the scientific study of ____.
A) diseases
B) DNA
C) heredity
D) chromosome structure
E) cell structure
Answer: C
Q3) Genes are precisely copied during the process of DNA replication and never undergo any change.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rare genetic disorder called Gaucher disease may strike as many as one in 450 people of ____ descent.
A) Middle Eastern
B) Western European
C) African American
D) British
E) Eastern European
Answer: E
Q2) In both progeria and Werner syndrome,cells are switched from a growth to a maintenance mode,halting ____________________.
Answer: divisions cell divisions
Q3) Ribosomes are organelles that are involved in ____.
A) plasma membrane selectivity
B) cellular energy production
C) protein synthesis
D) transport of materials
E) DNA replication
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes from Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a P1 cross involving incomplete dominance,____.
A) the dominant phenotype is expressed in the F1
B) the recessive phenotype is expressed in the F1
C) Mendelian inheritance does not apply
D) the phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio in the F1 are identical
E) heterozygotes will express the parental phenotype
Answer: D
Q2) Explain the circumstances that led to a debate about whether all inheritance cases could be explained by Mendelian inheritance or whether there might be another,separate mechanism of inheritance that did not follow the laws of segregation and independent assortment.Summarize the outcome of that debate.
Answer: Geneticists turned up cases in which the F1 phenotypes were not identical to one of the parents.In some cases,the offspring had a phenotype intermediate to that of the parents or a phenotype in which the traits of both parents were expressed.Eventually,research showed that although phenotypes can be somewhat complex,these cases were not exceptions to Mendelian inheritance at the level of genotypes.Although phenotypes may not follow predicted ratios,genotypes do obey the principles of Mendelian inheritance.
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common forms of color blindness result in the inability to properly perceive the colors ____________________ and ____________________.
Q2) Lisa has a rare genetic defect that causes acute sun-sensitivity.Her mother has the defect,but her father does not.All of Lisa's siblings,two brothers and a sister,are also affected.All four siblings are married,but none of their spouses has the mutant gene.Draw a pedigree for this family.Identify and explain the most likely mode of transmission for this disorder.
Q3) If an autosomal ____________________ allele is very common in a population,there is a chance that it will enter the pedigree from outside the family.
Q4) OMIM is an acronym that stands for ____________.
Q5) One goal of pedigree analysis is to determine ____.
A) what diseases a family will display
B) if two people are related
C) gene loci
D) whether a gene has a dominant or recessive pattern of inheritance
E) what treatment a person should undergo
Q6) Individuals with Marfan syndrome experience an eyesight problem called ____________________.
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Chapter 5: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) IQ is calculated by dividing the individual's ____________________ age by his or her ____________________ age and multiplying the quotient by 100.
Q2) Complex traits are usually quantified by ____________________ rather than by ____________________.
Q3) Twin,adoption,and family studies show that obesity has a heritability that averages close to ____.
A) 0.1
B) 0.3
C) 0.5
D) 0.7
E) 0.9
Q4) Illustrate how the five basic human eye colors can be explained by a model using two genes (A and B),each of which has two alleles (A and a,B and b).
Q5) Summarize the results of performing genome-wide searches for genes that control obesity.
Q6) Refer to the figure above to explain the threshold model of complex traits.
Q7) ____________________ traits are controlled by two or more genes and significant environmental interactions
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics - Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polyploidy is characterized by ____.
A) the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis
B) a condition in which one chromosome is present in three copies
C) a condition in which one member of a chromosomal pair is missing
D) a chromosomal number that is not an exact multiple of the haploid set
E) a chromosomal number that is a multiple of the normal haploid chromosomal set
Q2) Explain why geneticists believe that almost all chromosomally abnormal embryos and fetuses are eliminated as pregnancy progresses.
Q3) Down syndrome can be caused by either trisomy 21 or a Robertsonian translocation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The letters G,Q,R,and C,used to describe the appearance of chromosomes,refer to the ____.
A) position of the bands
B) staining procedure used to reveal the bands
C) number of arms per chromosome
D) number of centromeres per chromosome
E) position of the centromeres
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Q5) There are ____________________ chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell.
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Q1) Teratogenic effects of alcohol only occur during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The formation of _____ depends on gene action,interactions within the embryo,interaction with other embryos that may be in the uterus,and interactions with the maternal environment.
Q3) The small region of an inactivated X chromosome that is not inactivated contains ____________________ homologous to those on the Y chromosome.
Q4) Any physical or chemical agent that brings about an increase in congenital malformations is called a(n)____.
A) teratogen
B) hormone
C) ARX factor
D) cytocin
E) trophoblast
Q5) How is the timing of gamete formation in females different than that in males?
Q6) Chromosomal sex of a fetus with the sex chromosomes XXY is almost always
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Chapter 8: The Structure - Replication - and Chromosomal
Organization of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic building block of DNA and RNA is a(n)____.
A) nitrogenous base
B) sugar-phosphate backbone
C) amino acid
D) nucleotide
E) ribose sugar
Q2) Sugars and phosphates are held together in a DNA molecule by a(n)____________________ bond.
Q3) DNA's two major functions are to ____________________ and to carry the ____________________ information for proteins and RNA molecules.
Q4) Nucleosomes are bead-like structures ____.
A) that form during interphase to assist with DNA uncoiling
B) that are a major class of proteins in chromatin
C) composed of histone wrapped with DNA
D) composed of linked homologous chromosomes
E) composed of pyrimidines and purines
Q5) Each chromosome contains a constricted region called a(n)____________________ where sister chromatids attach.
Q6) Outline the major arguments for and against the idea of patenting genes.
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each amino acid is encoded by only one mRNA codon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Elaborate on the idea that proteins are the workhorse molecules of the cell.
Q3) Cytoplasmic organelles composed of two subunits,one large and one small,which are the sites of polypeptide synthesis are called ____________________.
Q4) The secondary structure of a protein forms ____.
A) pleated sheets or coils
B) when pleated sheet regions fold back on themselves
C) from interactions between polypeptide chains
D) from covalent bonding between amino acids
E) a functional chromatin unit
Q5) Transcribed DNA sequences that are removed during mRNA processing are called
Q6) A proteome is the set of ____________________ present in a particular cell at a specific time under a particular set of conditions.
Q7) Explain why vegetarians and vegans might be deficient in some amino acids.
Q8) During processing in the nucleus,a(n)____________________ is added to the 3' end of mRNA molecules.
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lactose intolerance is caused by a(n)____.
A) nucleotide substitution that prevents lactose production
B) variant manifestation of galactosemia
C) accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate
D) inability to digest lactose
E) excess in lactose production
Q2) Hemoglobin is a(n)____________________-containing protein in red blood cells.
Q3) Paraoxon is a toxic compound that disrupts the transmission of signals in the ____________________ system and can cause headaches,blurred vision,tremors,unconsciousness,and death by ____________________ arrest.
Q4) Metabolism is the sum of all _____________________ by which cells convert and utilize energy
Q5) An autosomally recessive metabolic disorder in the phenylalanine pathway that was first investigated by Garrod at the beginning of the twentieth century is ____________________.
Q6) There is a direct link between a person's ____________________,the proteins a person makes,and that person's ____________________.
Q7) The use of ____________________ is banned or restricted in more than 23 countries due to its toxicity.
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Chapter 11: Genome Alterations - Mutation and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleotide substitutions are mutations that alter the ____________________,but not the ____________________,of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.
Q2) The epigenetic state of a cell is called its ____________________.
Q3) Summarize research conducted in order to identify how epigenetic changes might affect the risks of depression and suicide in certain individuals.Comment on the limitations of this study.
Q4) Describe how an epigenetic trait differs from a mutated trait.
Q5) Halogen-containing organic compounds persist in the environment for approximately five years.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Genetic imprinting is caused by ____.
A) insertion of a nucleotide into an exon
B) deletion of an amino acid from the mRNA strand
C) a frameshift mutation
D) epigenetic changes to DNA
E) a change in a termination codon
Q7) Many cases of epigenetic modification involve adding a methyl group to the DNA in promoters,a process called ____________________.
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RB1 tumor-suppressor gene ____.
A) controls the G2/M checkpoint
B) controls the G1/S checkpoint
C) is overactive in cases of retinoblastoma
D) is overactive in cases of breast cancer
E) is overactive in cases of leukemia
Q2) During metabolism,cancer-causing ____ are generated.
A) BRCA1 genes
B) methyl amines
C) reactive oxygen species (ROS)
D) BCR-ABL proteins
E) mutated tRNA fragments
Q3) A proto-oncogene ____.
A) always becomes cancerous
B) causes cancer
C) encodes tumor-suppressing proteins
D) repairs DNA
E) regulates cell division
Q4) One of the properties of cancer is its ability to spread,or ____________________,to other sites in the body.
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)is a ____ that can accommodate large DNA inserts and uses the eukaryote yeast as a host cell.
A) restriction enzyme produced from yeast chromosomes
B) labeled nucleic acid used to identify a clone within a genome and C) q arm of chromosome 15 within a cell that encodes for a restriction enzyme and D) cloning vector that has telomeres and a centromere
E) cloning vector that has 23 chromosomes
Q2) To clone an animal by embryo splitting,____.
A) there must be two host animals and two fertilized eggs
B) a fertilized egg is collected from a donor mother and implanted into a host animal
C) an egg is fertilized by in vivo fertilization and remains in the host animal to mature
D) an embryo must be in a blastocyst stage in the host animals while the splitting takes place
E) an unfertilized egg is collected from a donor mother and then fertilized in a dish by in vitro fertilization
Q3) Explain why identical twins are clones.
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the U.S.,the ____________________,a standardized set of thirteen STR alleles,is used to generate DNA profiles for legal cases.
Q2) Animal genes transferred into plant cells cannot be transcribed and translated into proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n)____________________ organism is one that carries a gene that has been transferred to it from another species.
Q4) Embryonic stem cells derived from blastocysts are pluripotent,and therefore useful in stem cell research because they ________.
A) are viable under a wide range of laboratory conditions
B) do not replicate and are therefore stable long-term
C) can form all cells, tissues, and organs of the human body
D) are specialized and therefore arrested in G0
E) function to replace damaged or diseased body parts in adults
Q5) Ancestry can be traced by maternal lineage using ____________________,and by paternal lineage using ____________________.
Q6) Summarize the concerns related to the use of transgenic crops.
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genomes of all the microbes present in or on the human body are collectively known as the proteome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some people are unable to properly metabolize the drug Purinethol,which is given to patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia; therefore,such patients must be first tested for the associated genetic variant to determine proper dosage of the drug. This scenario best illustrates the use of _____.
A) pharmacogenomics
B) map-based sequencing
C) positional cloning
D) annotation of DNA sequences
E) comparative genomics
Q3) Genetic similarities between humans and laboratory animal models facilitate research on the cause,diagnosis,and treatment of human genetic disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss how the Human Microbiome Project will impact our understanding of human disease.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology - Genetic Testingand Gene Therapy
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Q1) Low sperm ____________________ results in the inability of sperm to move through cervical mucus and reach the egg in the oviduct.
Q2) The technique of ____ is a form of genetic disorder therapy in which a patient's defective protein is artificially provided.
A) PGD
B) exon splicing
C) exon skipping
D) intron skipping
E) enzyme replacement therapy
Q3) _____ corrects the genetic defect in an individual with a genetic disorder by
A) Enzyme replacement therapy; delivery of a normal gene to affected cells in the body
B) PGD; removing affected cells from an early stage embryo
C) Gene therapy; PGD
D) Gene therapy; delivery of a normal gene to affected cells in the body
E) Chorionic villus sampling; constructing karyotypes from affected cells
Q4) ____________________ is the recommended ART procedure performed on women with blocked oviducts.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Genes and The Immune System
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Q1) The process by which an antigen binds to a specific antibody on a naïve B cell,thereby triggering mitosis and the build-up of a large population of antibody-secreting plasma cells (also known as effector B cells),is called
Q2) Discuss how a genetic variant may explain why HIV infection rates are highest in sub-Saharan Africa.
Q3) ____________________,such as ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease,develop when bacteria are able to breach the barrier between the digestive system and the body.
Q4) Do you agree with the strategy of xenotransplantation to alleviate the shortage of donated human organs? Why or why not?
Q5) ____________________ T cells secrete interleukins that activate other cells in both the cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immune responses.
Q6) A protein that interacts with an antibody is called a(n)____________________.
Q7) The membrane-attack complex is a group of proteins that supplements the inflammatory response.
A)True B)False
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Q8) How can so many antibody molecules be made in a relatively short period of time?
Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) For which of the following diseases would animal models likely yield the most information?
A) alcoholism
B) schizophrenia
C) bipolar disorder
D) Huntington disease
E) nicotine addition
Q2) The transgenic mouse models for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)and Huntington disease show symptoms similar to those seen in humans affected by these conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Females who are heterozygous for a violence-associated mutation in the X-linked MAOA gene will display abnormal behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Amyloid plaques are routinely found in the brains of individuals affected by _____________________,where they cause nerve cell degeneration and death.
Q5) Discuss the difficulties in studying the genetics of human behavior traits
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Q1) The taxonomic category that includes species of apes,humans,and their ancestors is known as ____.
A) hominids
B) hominins
C) hominoids
D) australopithecines
E) apes
Q2) One would think that deleterious genes would be eliminated by natural selection,yet we have two human genetic disorders with a high carrier frequency,sickle-cell anemia and cystic fibrosis.Why has this high frequency for these conditions remained in the population?
Q3) The relatively high percentage of individuals in West Africa who are heterozygous for the sickle cell trait is an example of _____.
A) natural selection
B) genetic drift
C) spontaneous mutational spread
D) heterozygote disadvantage
E) the founder effect
Q4) Outline the assumptions made in establishing the Hardy-Weinberg law.
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