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Biopsychology, also known as biological psychology, is the scientific study of the biological bases of behavior and mental processes. This course explores the structure and function of the nervous system, the physiological mechanisms underlying sensation, perception, motivation, emotion, learning, memory, and psychological disorders. Students will examine how brain activity and neurochemical processes influence behavior, as well as the effects of genetics, hormones, and the environment on psychological functioning. The course integrates foundational concepts from psychology, neuroscience, and biology to provide a comprehensive understanding of the mind-body connection.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J. Pinel
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Q1) The corpus callosum is a A) large medical dictionary.
B) source of hypothalamic hormones.
C) membership directory of the Society for Neuroscience.
D) part of the neocortex.
E) neural pathway that connects the left and right hemispheres.
Answer: E
Q2) The visual system bases its perception of motion on a comparison between movement of the image on the A) retina and the neural commands sent from the brain to the eye muscles.
B) cornea and its movement on the retina.
C) retina and contractions of the eye muscles.
D) retina and movement of the eyes.
E) two retinas.
Answer: A
Q3) A __________ -subjects design is an experimental design that involves testing a different group of subjects under each condition of the experiment.
Answer: between
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Q1) Fitness in the Darwinian sense refers to an organism's ability to A) survive and contribute large numbers of fertile offspring to the next generation. B) remain healthy.
C) win fights.
D) survive.
E) avoid predation.
Answer: A
Q2) The general intellectual climate of a culture is referred to as its A) canon.
B) guano.
C) Zeitgeist.
D) converging operations.
E) confounds.
Answer: C
Q3) Describe and discuss four often-misunderstood points about evolution. Be sure to explain both the misconception and the modern view.
Answer: 50% for explaining four common misconceptions about evolution
50% for explaining the modern view that has replaced each of the four misconceptions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many ventricles are there in the brain?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2
E) 12
Answer: C
Q2) The lobe at the back of the brain, which serves a visual function, is the
A) frontal lobe.
B) occipital lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) prefrontal lobe.
E) parietal lobe.
Answer: B
Q3) The putamen and __________ compose the striatum.
Answer: caudate
Q4) The __________ stain colors entirely black a few neurons in each brain slice.
Answer: Golgi
Q5) The opposite of dorsal is __________.
Answer: ventral

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Sample Questions
Q1) How far do most postsynaptic potentials travel before they die out.
A) to the axon hillock
B) to the terminal buttons
C) no more than a couple of millimeters
D) about 50 millimeters
E) both B and D
Q2) Monoamines are divided into two groups:
A) amino acids and peptides.
B) peptides and proteins.
C) catecholamines and indolamines.
D) peptides and polypeptides.
E) catecholamines and dopamine.
Q3) Na+ ions are encouraged to move into neurons by A) nonrandom assignment.
B) electrostatic pressure.
C) the sodium-potassium pump.
D) selective ion channels.
E) nonrandom movement.
Q4) By binding to nicotinic receptors, __________ produces paralysis and death, which is why it is used on poison darts.
6
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the sodium amytal test, an injection into the carotid artery contralateral to the dominant hemisphere for speech renders the patient completely mute for
A) 50 seconds.
B) 2 minutes.
C) 4 minutes.
D) 30 minutes.
E) none of the above
Q2) Intracellular unit recording provides a measure of the __________ potential over time.
Q3) Which of the following is a weakness of the gene knockout technique as a method of biopsychological research?
A) Most behavioral traits are influenced by many interacting genes.
B) Elimination of one gene often influences the expression of other genes.
C) The effects of some gene knockouts are likely to depend on experience.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) To facilitate immunochemistry, neurochemists have created stocks of __________ to most neuropeptides.
Q5) Many cancer patients receiving chemotherapy develop conditioned __________.
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Q1) Accommodation is controlled by the __________ muscles.
Q2) Rattlesnakes can see in
A) what for humans would be complete darkness.
B) what for snakes is complete darkness.
C) infrared light.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Q3) The Mach band demonstration is an excellent demonstration of contrast __________.
Q4) Pairs of colors that produce white or gray when combined are A) achromatic.
B) chromatic.
C) complementary.
D) opposite.
E) antagonistic.
Q5) Explain color constancy. What important points does it make about the mechanisms of color vision? Describe a theory of color vision that can explain color constancy, focusing on the evidence that led to the theory.
Q6) According to one theory, the __________ stream controls behavior in the absence of conscious awareness.
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Q1) Discuss current knowledge of auditory cortex, emphasizing both difficulties and successes.
Q2) The __________ cortex is considered to be the primary olfactory cortex
Q3) The cocktail-party phenomenon refers to your ability to "focus on" a specific conversation at a cocktail party while A) drunk out of your mind.
B) unconsciously monitoring other conversations.
C) being totally conscious of other conversations.
D) talking to someone else.
E) eating.
Q4) The inability to smell is called __________.
Q5) Areas of neocortex that receive most of their input from the thalamic relay nuclei of one sensory system are classified as
A) association cortex.
B) tertiary cortex.
C) motor cortex.
D) secondary sensory cortex.
E) primary sensory cortex.
Q6) The inability to recognize objects by touch is __________.
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Q1) Without the sensory feedback carried by the somatosensory nerves of the arms, human neurological patients, such as G. O., have difficulty
A) swatting a fly.
B) maintaining a constant appropriate level of manual muscle contraction.
C) adjusting the output of the muscles of their arms to compensate for unexpected external disturbances (e.g., somebody brushing against an arm).
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Q2) In the classic transection experiments of Lawrence and Kuypers, monkeys with all their dorsolateral motor pathways transected sat with their arms hanging limply by their sides. However, these same monkeys had no difficulty
A) picking up pieces of food and then releasing them.
B) using their arms for standing, walking, and climbing.
C) reaching for moving objects.
D) moving their fingers independently.
E) all of the above
Q3) Discuss three principles of sensorimotor function.
Q4) Discuss the two effects of damage to the posterior parietal cortex.
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Q1) Growth cones extend and retract finger-like cytoplasmic extensions as if they were feeling their way. These extensions are called
A) adhesion digits.
B) growth cone adhesion digits.
C) filopodia.
D) pseudopodia.
E) siphons.
Q2) Embryonic cells that have the potential for unlimited renewal and have the ability to develop into different kinds of mature cells if they are transplanted to different sites are often called
A) daughter cells.
B) embryonic stem cells.
C) zygotes.
D) multipolar cells.
E) ectodermal cells.
Q3) The growth of new neurons in adults is called adult __________.
Q4) Aggregation of neurons is thought to be mediated by __________ molecules.
Q5) Early experience and the resulting changes in neural activity fine-tune subsequent stages of normal __________ .
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most drugs used to treat Parkinson's disease are
A) serotonin agonists.
B) dopamine agonists.
C) GABA agonists.
D) glutamate agonists.
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a cerebrovascular disorder?
A) cerebral arteriosclerosis
B) cerebral embolism
C) cerebral thrombosis
D) all of the above
E) both B and
Q3) If one of your parents has Huntington's disease, the probability that you will develop it is __________ %.
Q4) Brain injuries produced by blows that do not penetrate the skull are called
A) closed-head injuries.
B) contrecoup injuries.
C) hematomas.
D) contusions.
E) lacerations.

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Q1) Currently, consolidation is thought to last
A) 10 seconds.
B) 2 minutes.
C) 10 minutes.
D) 2 days.
E) a very long time, if not indefinitely.
Q2) The specificity of LTP to particular synapses on the postsynaptic neuron is likely attributable to compartmentalizing effects of
A) serotonergic receptors.
B) glutamate.
C) dendritic spines.
D) axoaxonal synapses.
E) presynaptic inhibition.
Q3) H.M.'s main problem is that he cannot form new __________ long-term memories.
Q4) Many __________ cells are located in hippocampus, whereas many grid cells are located in the entorhinal cortex.
Q5) Approximately __________% of people experience infantile amnesia.
Q6) Medial temporal lobe epileptics often have good explicit long-term memories for __________ information.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin promotes the
A) use of glucose as a metabolic fuel.
B) conversion of glucose to fat.
C) conversion of glycogen to glucose.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
Q2) The anticipated pleasurable effect of eating a particular food is that food's
A) nutritive density.
B) nutritive value.
C) reinforcement.
D) reinforcement value.
E) positive-incentive value.
Q3) As fat accumulates in the body, energy is wasted through a mechanism called diet-induced __________.
Q4) People with __________ act as if they are starving.
A) LH lesions
B) dopamine agonists
C) Prader-Willi syndrome
D) amnesia
E) Down syndrome

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Q1) In some species, testosterone is thought to be converted to estradiol, which then masculinizes the brain. This is called the __________ hypothesis.
Q2) The famous case of David Reimer suggests that surgically modifying a person's sex A) in infancy should be curtailed.
B) after puberty should be curtailed. C) should be curtailed.
D) should be curtailed in males.
E) should be curtailed in females.
Q3) The word that refers specifically to the removal of the testes is A) orchidectomy. B) ovariectomy.
C) gonadectomy.
D) castration.
E) both A and C
Q4) The __________ area of the hypothalamus seems to control the motivation to engage in male copulatory behavior.
Q5) The pituitary dangles from a stalk connected to the __________.
Q6) The most prevalent __________ is estradiol.
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Q1) In view of the evidence, the widespread practice of taking melatonin to promote sleep is
A) dangerous and should be stopped.
B) definitely a waste of time.
C) likely to be of no more than minor benefit.
D) almost certain to have major sleep benefits in most people.
E) almost certain to have major sleep benefits in people suffering from insomnia.
Q2) Circadian cycles without zeitgebers are said to be
A) free-running periods.
B) free-running.
C) desynchronized.
D) diurnal.
E) entrained.
Q3) Orexin is synthesized by neurons in the
A) posterior hypothalamus.
B) thalamus.
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
D) anterior diencephalon.
E) reticular activating system.
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Q1) According to Ramsay and Woods, the unconditional stimulus in drug conditioning experiments is
A) the drug.
B) what the experimenter measures.
C) the disruption of neural functioning that is directly produced by the drug.
D) the compensatory reactions to the conditional stimulus.
E) the test environment.
Q2) "Song of Praise" was written by Freud about A) nicotine.
B) cigars.
C) his female companion.
D) cocaine.
E) heroin.
Q3) Many chronic addicts come to prefer the __________ route of drug administration.
A) oral
B) IM
C) SC
D) IV
E) IP
Q4) The best animal model of human drug addiction is the drug __________ paradigm.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence suggests that the naming of different categories of nouns (such as faces, animals, or tools) is each mediated by a different part of the
A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) limbic lobe.
Q2) The Z lens was developed by
A) Zaidel.
B) Zalman Amit.
C) Zurif.
D) Zimbardo.
E) Zola-Morgan.
Q3) Geschwind
A) proposed a nonlocalizationist approach to the neuropsychology of language.
B) attacked the strict localizationist approach.
C) revived the localizationist ideas of Broca, Dejerine, and Wernicke.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q4) The corpus callosum is the largest cerebral __________.
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Q1) According to the Cannon-Bard theory, the feeling of emotion by the cortex and the expression of emotion by the autonomic and somatic nervous systems are
A) causally related.
B) parallel processes.
C) dependent processes.
D) serial processes.
E) adaptive processes.
Q2) Lesions to which brain structure in rats disrupt auditory fear conditioning to complex sounds but not simple sounds?
A) auditory cortex
B) hypothalamus
C) periaqueductal gray
D) amygdala
E) medial geniculate nucleus
Q3) Charles Whitman, the Texas tower sniper, had a tumor in his __________.
Q4) Describe and discuss two important ideas that have emerged from research on the effects of stress on health. Explain the research that led to each idea and why it is important.
Q5) Unlike false smiles, Duchenne smiles always involve the __________ muscles.
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Q1) Some success has been reported in treating clinical depression with chronic low-level electrical stimulation of the___________ through implanted electrodes.
A) anterior cingulate gyrus of the prefrontal cortex
B) amygdala
C) posterior thalamus
D) hippocampus
E) striatum
Q2) In general, conventional neuroleptics tend to be more effective against
A) negative schizophrenic symptoms.
B) positive schizophrenic symptoms.
C) anhedonia.
D) unipolar schizophrenic disorders.
E) bipolar schizophrenic symptoms.
Q3) Librium and Valium are
A) chlordiazepoxide and diazepam, respectively.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) commonly prescribed for the treatment of schizophrenia.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q4) Depression for which there is no apparent cause is called __________ depression.
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