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Biopsychology explores the intricate relationship between biological processes and psychological phenomena, focusing on how the brain, nervous system, hormones, and genetics influence behavior, emotion, and cognition. The course examines the structure and function of neural pathways, the impact of neurotransmitters, sensory and motor systems, and the biological bases of learning, memory, motivation, and mental health disorders. Students gain insight into current research methods and experimental findings that reveal how biological mechanisms underpin our thoughts, feelings, and actions.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 8th Edition by John P.J. Pinel
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18 Chapters
2675 Verified Questions
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Q1) According to the textbook, the science of biopsychology as it is practiced today emerged as a discipline in about
A) 1549.
B) 1649.
C) 1749.
D) 1849.
E) 1949.
Answer: E
Q2) Psychobiology, behavioral biology, and behavioral neuroscience are all approximate synonyms for A) cognitive behavior.
B) behavioral psychology.
C) biopsychology.
D) neurophysiology.
E) neuroscience.
Answer: C
Q3) The general method that scientists use to study unobservable objects and events is called __________.
Answer: scientific inference
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Q1) Similarities between __________ structures result from convergent evolution.
Answer: analogous
Q2) In the Minnesota study, the heritability estimate for IQ was 70%.This means that IQ is
A) 70% genetic.
B) about 30% environmental.
C) about 70% genetic.
D) both B and C
E) none of the above
Answer: E
Q3) The sensorimotor phase of birdsong development
A) occurs just before the sensory phase.
B) begins as soon a bird is hatched.
C) does not exist.
D) occurs only in females.
E) begins with subsong.
Answer: E
Q4) The nucleotide base __________ is found in DNA but not in RNA.
Answer: thymine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CSF circulates through the A) central canal.
B) lateral ventricles.
C) subarachnoid space.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: D
Q2) The three-layered cortical structure of the medial temporal lobe is the __________.
Answer: hippocampus
Q3) If a midsagittal cut were made through the human brain, all of the uncut axons running from the eyes to the brain would be
A) on the right side.
B) ipsilateral.
C) contralateral.
D) decussating.
E) bilateral.
Answer: B
Q4) The putamen and __________ compose the striatum.
Answer: caudate

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Q1) Which of the following is a passive process that acts to distribute ions evenly in neural tissue?
A) random motion, which tends to move ions down their concentration gradients
B) electrostatic pressure, which forces ions down their electrostatic gradients
C) sodium-potassium pumps, which distribute Na+ and K+ ions equally
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q2) Which of the following are synthesized from tyrosine?
A) monoamines
B) indolamines
C) catecholamines
D) amino acids
E) both A and B
Q3) With respect to size, neuropeptides are the __________ neurotransmitters.
Q4) __________ are sometimes called electrical synapses.
Q5) The finding that antischizophrenic drugs often produce the symptoms of __________ implicated dopamine in the development of schizophrenia.
Q6) The presence of two neurotransmitters in the same neuron is referred to as
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Q1) A behavioral paradigm normally includes a method for A) producing the behavioral phenomenon under investigation.
B) measuring the behavioral phenomenon under investigation.
C) recording brain activity.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q2) Brain damage may produce selective language deficits associated with the sounds, grammar, or meaning of language.In other words, they may disrupt
A) syntax, phonology, or semantics, respectively.
B) phonology, semantics, or syntax, respectively.
C) phonology, syntax, or semantics, respectively.
D) semantics, syntax, or phonology, respectively.
E) semantics, phonology, or syntax, respectively.
Q3) In human patients, EEG activity is commonly recorded directly from A) muscle.
B) the hippocampus.
C) the scalp.
D) the neocortex.
E) the heart.
Q4) A commonly used test of short-term memory is the __________ subtest of the WAIS.
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Q1) The main function of color constancy is to ensure that
A) lights of the same wavelength appear to be the same color.
B) lights of different wavelengths appear to be different colors.
C) lights of the same wavelength appear to be the same color, regardless of their intensity.
D) an object appears to be the same color despite changes in the wavelengths of light that it is reflecting.
E) complementary colors always look complementary.
Q2) High-acuity vision is mediated by
A) the photopic system.
B) the scotopic system.
C) the optic disks.
D) rhodopsin.
E) both C and D
Q3) Rattlesnakes can see in
A) what for humans would be complete darkness.
B) what for snakes is complete darkness.
C) infrared light.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
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Q1) Severe chronic pain in the absence of a recognizable pain stimulus is
A) psychophysiological.
B) analgesic.
C) neuropathic.
D) pheromonal.
E) psychophysical.
Q2) Because we can discriminate among thousands of different odors and each receptor responds to many odors, coding in the olfactory system has been assumed to operate according to
A) opponent principles.
B) component principles.
C) pheromonal principles.
D) excitatory principles.
E) inhibitory principles.
Q3) Pacinian corpuscles, Merkel's disks, and Ruffini endings are
A) blood cells.
B) auditory receptors.
C) receptors in the skin.
D) taste receptors.
E) nuclei in the somatosensory system.
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Q1) Discuss the organization and functions of primary motor cortex.Compare the traditional view with the modern view, emphasizing the relevant evidence.
Q2) The supplementary motor area and the premotor cortex are in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) parietal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) limbic lobe.
Q3) Signals from the left primary motor cortex descend through the spinal cord white matter in one of
A) three major tracts.
B) four major tracts.
C) five major tracts.
D) six major tracts.
E) eight major tracts.
Q4) The area of association cortex that is thought to integrate the spatial information that is required to initiate an accurate movement is the __________ cortex.
Q5) __________ is the ability to recognize objects by touch.
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Q1) Less is known about synapse formation than axon growth because synapse formation requires
A) fasciculation.
B) coordinated activity in at least two cells.
C) growth cones.
D) guidance molecules.
E) regeneration.
Q2) Autism usually becomes apparent
A) before the age of 6 months.
B) before the age of 3 years.
C) after the age of 5 years.
D) after the age of 7 years.
E) after the age of 10 years.
Q3) Adult stem cells that become hippocampal neurons are created near the A) hippocampus.
B) olfactory bulbs.
C) ventricles.
D) ependymal layer.
E) central canal.
Q4) The growth of new neurons in adults is called adult __________.
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Q1) The ultimate result of long-term kindling is a condition in which convulsions occur spontaneously.This ultimate kindled state has been used as a model of A) epilepsy.
B) MS.
C) epileptogenesis.
D) brain damage.
E) psychopathology.
Q2) Degeneration of neurons in the visual cortex after damage to the retina is an example of __________ degeneration.
A) anterograde
B) retrograde
C) anterograde transneuronal
D) retrograde transneuronal
E) regenerative
Q3) __________ is a degenerative brain disorder that attacks CNS myelin.
Q4) Petit mal and grand mal are the major categories of __________ seizures.
Q5) Huntington's disease is caused by a single __________ gene.
Q6) The general syndrome of insanity and dementia associated with syphilis is called
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Q1) The rhinal cortex comprises two different regions: the entorhinal cortex and the ___________ cortex.
Q2) It is difficult to differentiate between anterograde and retrograde amnesia in Korsakoff patients because
A) the damage associated with Korsakoff's syndrome is diffuse.
B) the damage associated with Korsakoff's syndrome is not diffuse.
C) Korsakoff's syndrome has a gradual onset.
D) the anterograde deficits are so much milder than the retrograde deficits.
E) the retrograde deficits are so much milder than the anterograde deficits.
Q3) The main source of the brain's acetylcholine is the
A) frontal cortex.
B) hippocampus.
C) basal forebrain.
D) mammillary bodies.
E) substantia nigra.
Q4) The human medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus, the __________, and the rhinal temporal cortex.
Q5) Most __________ cells are located in hippocampus, whereas grid cells are located in the entorhinal cortex.
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Q1) The anticipated pleasurable effect of eating a particular food is that food's A) nutritive density.
B) nutritive value.
C) reinforcement.
D) reinforcement value.
E) positive-incentive value.
Q2) Hunger and eating can be induced in satiated mammals by decreasing blood glucose levels with large injections of insulin.However, such large decreases
A) rarely, if ever, occur in healthy humans or other mammals with ready access to food.
B) occur naturally about four times per day in humans.
C) occur naturally about three times per day in most mammals.
D) occur naturally just before mealtime in North Americans, who are used to eating three meals per day.
E) occur six times per day in humans--on the average.
Q3) Individuals who display cycles of fasting, bingeing, and purging are said to suffer from __________ nervosa.
Q4) Large, bilateral lesions of the __________ hypothalamus produce hyperphagia and obesity.
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Q1) Metaphorically speaking, which gland is the conductor of the endocrine orchestra?
A) thyroid
B) anterior pituitary
C) posterior pituitary
D) pineal
E) adrenal
Q2) Sweat glands
A) are exocrine glands.
B) release hormones into the circulatory system.
C) are endocrine glands.
D) are ductless glands.
E) release hormones directly into the blood.
Q3) Although there are few controlled studies of anabolic steroid use, it seems clear that anabolic steroids can
A) increase muscularity.
B) improve athletic performance.
C) increase sexual motivation.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
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Q1) As we fall asleep,
A) alpha activity begins.
B) EMG activity suddenly increases.
C) alpha activity ceases.
D) REMs begin to occur.
E) REMs suddenly stop.
Q2) Free-running periods are
A) the pauses between free-running cycles.
B) lengthened by zeitgebers.
C) shortened by zeitgebers.
D) usually longer than 24 hours.
E) usually shorter than 24 hours.
Q3) In the entire week after being totally deprived of sleep for 11 days, Randy Gardner slept a total of about __________ hours more than usual.
A) 6
B) 18
C) 22
D) 34
E) 54
Q4) The major internal circadian clock is located in the __________ nuclei.
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Q1) In the middle ages, marijuana was commonly used by Europeans to
A) keep the sailors happy on long voyages.
B) suppress sexual urges during long voyages.
C) treat scurvy.
D) make rope.
E) feed pigs.
Q2) "Song of Praise" to cocaine was written by
A) The Grateful Dead.
B) Bob Marley.
C) Paul Simon.
D) The Rolling Stones.
E) Sigmund Freud.
Q3) Taking one drug can often produce tolerance to other drugs; such tolerance is called
A) generalized tolerance.
B) cross tolerance.
C) contingent tolerance.
D) functional tolerance.
E) transferred tolerance.
Q4) The best animal model of human drug addiction is the drug __________ paradigm.
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Q1) The case of W.L., the man who experienced aphasia for sign language, demonstrates that left hemisphere damage can disrupt __________ gestures without disrupting __________ gestures.
A) linguistic; pantomime
B) linguistic; language
C) pantomime; linguistic
D) linguistic; sign language
E) pantomime; sign language
Q2) Wernicke's area is
A) in the right parietal lobe.
B) in the right frontal lobe.
C) just posterior to the left primary auditory cortex.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Q3) Describe three methods for studying lateralization of function.Compare them.
Q4) Briefly describe the Wernicke-Geschwind model, and evaluate its ability to predict research findings.Reach a conclusion based on the evidence.
Q5) PET and __________ MRI are currently the main imaging techniques used by cognitive neuroscientists to study language.
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Q1) The adult neurogenesis of hippocampal cells is reduced by A) enriched environments.
B) stress.
C) antibodies.
D) pyramidal cells.
E) maternal grooming.
Q2) Pellis and his colleagues found that giving cats an antianxiety drug tended to increase the efficiency of their A) mouse killing.
B) play.
C) defensive attack.
D) risk assessment.
E) social aggression.
Q3) The __________ system received its name because it rings the thalamus.
Q4) The discovery that stress increases susceptibility to infection led to the creation of a new field of research, __________.
Q5) Unlike false smiles, Duchenne smiles always involve the __________ muscles.
Q6) Discuss the study of facial expression, focusing on the description of three lines of research..
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Q1) Reserpine is not currently used in the treatment of schizophrenia because it A) is ineffective.
B) is an antihistamine.
C) can produce a dangerous decrease in blood pressure.
D) is an anxiolytic.
E) violates the dopamine theory of schizophrenia.
Q2) In 1957, this drug became the first drug to be marketed as an antidepressant: A) iproniazid.
B) imipramine.
C) reserpine.
D) clozapine.
E) lithium.
Q3) In general, conventional neuroleptics tend to be more effective against A) negative schizophrenic symptoms.
B) positive schizophrenic symptoms.
C) anhedonia.
D) unipolar schizophrenic disorders.
E) bipolar schizophrenic symptoms.
Q4) Depression for which there is no apparent cause is called __________ depression.
Q5) Motor and verbal __________ are the primary symptoms of Tourette syndrome.
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