Biomedical Sciences
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underlying human health and disease. This course provides a comprehensive foundation in subjects such as human anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, genetics, immunology, and microbiology, with an emphasis on how these disciplines contribute to the understanding, diagnosis, and treatment of medical conditions. Students will engage with both theoretical concepts and practical laboratory techniques, gaining the knowledge and skills necessary for careers in healthcare, research, and the biomedical industry, as well as preparation for further study in medicine and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty
Ciesla
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3886 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic
Laboratory Practice
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77408
Sample Questions
Q1) A delta check is a historical reference on samples run in the laboratories.Once a sample fails a delta check, the most obvious corrective action is to:
A) Verify the identification of the patient sample
B) Reestablish the parameters of the delta check
C) Perform reflex testing
D) Perform a manual method
Answer: A
Q2) What is the most useful corrective action for the microscope when fine details cannot be visualized in immature cells?
A) Open up diaphragm for maximum light.
B) Wipe off lenses with lens cleaner.
C) Get a new slide.
D) Move to a lower power.
Answer: A
Q3) Label the parts of the microscope.
Answer: 1. Objectives2. Stage3. Eye piece4. Base5. Light source6. Iris diaphragm7. Course adjustment knob8. Fine adjustment knob9. Stage adjustment knobs10. Clips11. Substage condenser 11ea8f8c_a35f_cfdc_b491_39c0cc95f0f6_TB3286_00
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77407
Sample Questions
Q1) The CBC parameter that gives insight as to the amount of anisocytosis present in a specimen is:
A) RDW
B) MCHC
C) MCV
D) Hgb
Answer: A
Q2) Correlation checks between the red blood cell count, the hemoglobin, and the hematocrit are significant parts of QA (quality assurance) in the hematology lab.These correlations are known as:
A) Delta checks
B) The rules of three
C) Quality control
D) Analytical variables
Answer: B
Q3) Patients with moderate anemias (7 to 10 g/dL) may be asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77406
Sample Questions
Q1) The red cell inclusion derived from denatured hemoglobin are:
A) Howell-Jolly bodies
B) Pappenheimer bodies
C) Heinz bodies
D) Siderotic granules
Answer: C
Q2) The hemoglobin molecule consists of:
A) One heme molecule, one globin chain
B) One heme molecule, four globin chains
C) Two heme molecules, two globin chains
D) Four heme molecules, four globin chains
Answer: D
Q3) The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is the:
A) Pronormoblast
B) Orthochromic normoblast
C) Polychromatophilic normoblast
D) Basophilic normoblast
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77405
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical conditions is a definitive sign of intravascular lysis?
A) Bilirubinemia
B) Decreased RBC count
C) Hemoglobinuria
D) Elevated LDH
Q2) Epsilon and zeta chains are part of which of the following hemoglobins?
A) Hemoglobin Portland
B) Hemoglobin F
C) Hemoglobin A
D) Hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following factors will result in an immediate increase in oxygen delivery to the tissues?
A) Increased pH
B) Increased altitude
C) Increased 2,3-DPG
D) Increased carboxyhemoglobin
Q4) Abnormal hemoglobins have a lower affinity for oxygen.
A)True
B)False
6
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77404
Sample Questions
Q1) Failure to thrive, facial structure abnormalities, severe anemia, and splenomegaly are signs of which of the following disorders?
A) Thalassemia minor
B) Alpha thalassemia trait
C) Thalassemia major
D) Thalassemia intermedia
Q2) In adults, which of the following is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia?
A) Intestinal parasites
B) Malabsorptive disorders
C) Dietary content
D) Chronic blood loss
Q3) The alpha thalassemias result from:
A) Gene deletion
B) Defective alpha genes
C) Iron overload
D) Excessive production of alpha chains
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77403
Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence of ineffective erythropoiesis in the CBC of patients with megaloblastic anemia are:
A) Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
B) Anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
C) Anemia, thrombophilia, leukocytosis
D) anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
Q2) A bone marrow aspiration/examination is not necessary for patients with megaloblastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An appropriate M:E ratio in the case of megaloblastic anemia would be:
A) 1:3
B) 4:1
C) 5:1
D) 1:10
Q4) The cell pictured above may be seen in which of the following conditions?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Megaloblastic anemia
C) Thalassemia major
D) Hereditary hemochromatosis
Page 8
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77402
Sample Questions
Q1) Bite cells are formed from:
A) The spleen "pitting" out Heinz bodies
B) Third-degree burns
C) Spectrin deficiency
D) G6PD deficiency
Q2) The cell pictured at the tip of the pointer is known as a (an):
A) Sickle cell
B) Acanthocyte
C) Bite cell
D) Stomatocyte
Q3) One of the least severe clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency is:
A) Acute hemolytic anemia
B) Favism
C) Neonatal jaundice
D) Congenital non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia
Q4) In hereditary spherocytosis, the reticulocyte count will typically be:
A) Less than 0.5%
B) 0.5% to 1.5%
C) 3% to 10%
D) Greater than 10%
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77401
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with sickle cell anemia generally have a hemoglobin value between:
A) 2 and 4 g/dL
B) 6 and 8 g/dL
C) 8 and 10 g/dL
D) 10 and 12 g/dL
Q2) In hemoglobin C disease, is substituted for glutamic acid.
A) valine
B) adenine
C) lysine
D) leucine
Q3) The Benin haplotype of sickle cell disease is prevalent in which country or countries?
A) Saudi Arabia and Asia
B) Senegal
C) West Africa
D) Central and South Africa
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77400
Sample Questions
Q1) There are ___ maturation stages in the neutrophil.
A) five
B) four
C) three
D) six
Q2) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are features of the lymphatic system except:
A) Stimulation of the kidney by EPO
B) Blood filtration
C) Antibody generation
D) Lymphopoiesis
Q4) The N:C ratio in a myeloblast is:
A) 2:1
B) 4:1
C) 3:1
D) 5:1
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77399
Sample Questions
Q1) The best corrective action for a patient who exhibits platelet satellitism on peripheral blood smear is to:
A) Make a duplicate slide and see if this phenomenon disappears
B) Warm the tube of blood
C) Redraw the sample in sodium citrate
D) Vortex the sample of blood
Q2) In which white cell disorder will you see gray-green cytoplasmic granules in the neutrophils?
A) May-Hegglin anomaly
B) Alder's anomaly
C) Pelger-Huët anomaly
D) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Q3) A patient who has a persist leukocytosis, Dohle bodies, and an elevated LAP score most likely has a (an):
A) Leukemoid reaction
B) Pelger-Huët anomaly
C) Parasitic infection
D) HIV infection
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77398
Sample Questions
Q1) The cells pictured above are most consistent with:
A) Acute myeloid leukemia
B) Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D) Acute erythroid leukemia
Q2) The leukemia with a predominance of WBC cells positive for CD41 is:
A) AMML
B) AML
C) AMonoL
D) AMegL
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of Auer rods?
A) Composed of fused primary granules
B) Predominantly seen in ALL
C) Predominantly seen in HCL
D) Composed of specific granules
Q4) Low-risk ALL pediatric clinical trials require the WBC count to be less than:
A) 20 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 50 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 60 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 75 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Page 13
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77397
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are causes of secondary erythrocytosis except:
A) Hypertension
B) Alcohol
C) Sleep apnea
D) Smoking
Q2) A term describing a peripheral blood finding of leukocytosis with a shift to the left accompanied by occasional nucleated red cells and platelet abnormalities is:
A) Dysplasia
B) Leukoerythroblastic
C) Megaloblastoid
D) Leukemoid
Q3) Plethora is a condition associated with:
A) Polycythemia vera
B) CML
C) Leukemoid reaction
D) Myelofibrosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77396
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about Hodgkin's disease is false?
A) The peak incidence for the disease is 15 to 40 years of age.
B) The disease occurs more frequently in males.
C) It is a precursor to T-cell lymphoma
D) Individuals who have been exposed to the Epstein-Barr virus may be more vulnerable to Hodgkin's lymphoma.
Q2) A new treatment for multiple myeloma that was once banned from use in pregnant women is:
A) EPO
B) Thalidomide
C) Demerol
D) Interferon
Q3) A peripheral blood picture dominated by cells that appear convoluted with an ovoid nucleus and clefting would most likely be seen in:
A) Sézary syndrome
B) Burkitt's lymphoma
C) CLL
D) Infectious mononucleosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77395
Sample Questions
Q1) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refractory anemia is an anemia that:
A) Has more than 5% blasts in the peripheral blood
B) Is resistant to treatment
C) Will usually demonstrate a hypoplastic bone marrow
D) Demonstrates a 17g deletion routinely
Q3) The FAB classification of the MDSs include CML.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The morphological classification of anemia in the myelodysplastic syndromes is:
A) Normocytic, normochromic
B) Microcytic, hypochromic
C) Macrocytic, normochromic
D) Microcytic, normochromic
Q5) Deleted 5q MDS is primarily seen in male patients.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77394
Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor is involved in contact activation?
A) Factor X
B) Fibrinogen
C) Fitzgerald factor
D) Factor II
Q2) Platelet aggregation is dependent on the presence of:
A) Calcium ions
B) Sodium citrate
C) Magnesium
D) Potassium
Q3) Therapeutic thrombolytic agents include:
A) tPA
B) Streptokinase
C) Urokinase
D) All of the above
Matching
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77393
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an autoimmune thrombocytopenic disease process?
A) Chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C) von Willebrand's disease
D) Thrombocytopenia with absent radii
Q2) Which of the following are platelet adhesion disorders?
A) von Willebrand's disease and Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
B) von Willebrand's disease and Bernard-Soulier
C) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier
D) Glanzmann's thrombasthenia and congenital fibrinogenemia
Q3) In thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
A) It is associated with E. coli O157:H7.
B) It is associated with fever, renal failure, and neurological complications.
C) The organ most affected is the kidney.
D) More males are affected than females
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77392
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most useful in differentiating hemophilia A from hemophilia B?
A) A familial pattern of inheritance
B) Patient's history
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time
D) Factor assays
Q2) Clotting factors must be present at a minimum of which percentage for hemostasis to be achieved?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q3) A man with hemophilia A and an unaffected female can produce a:
A) Female carrier
B) Male carrier
C) Male with hemophilia A
D) Normal female
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77391
Sample Questions
Q1) Obstetrical complications like retained placenta or abruptio placenta are leading causes of:
A) Thrombosis
B) DIC
C) ITP
D) TTP
Q2) The reference range for fibrinogen is:
A) 100 to 200 mg/dL
B) 200 to 400 mg/dL
C) 400 to 600 mg/dL
D) 600 to 750 mg/dL
Q3) A patient with DIC will have the following coagulation test results except:
A) An increased PT/INR
B) An increased aPTT
C) An increased fibrinogen
D) An increased D-dimer
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77390
Sample Questions
Q1) Drug alternatives for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia include:
A) Danaparoid
B) Warfarin
C) Streptokinase
D) Aspirin
Q2) Heparin:
A) Inhibits PF3
B) Inhibits thrombin
C) Degrades antithrombin
D) Complexes with protein C
Q3) The most common tests used to detect Lupus anticoagulants include all of the following except:
A) aPTT
B) Kaolin clotting time
C) PT/INR
D) Dilute Russell viper venom test
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
21