Biomedical Sciences
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underlying human health, disease, and medical intervention. The course covers key topics such as human anatomy, biochemistry, molecular biology, genetics, microbiology, pathology, and pharmacology. Students gain an understanding of how cellular and molecular mechanisms contribute to the functioning of the human body, how diseases develop, and how these conditions can be diagnosed and treated. By integrating theoretical knowledge with laboratory experience, the course equips students with the critical thinking and practical skills essential for careers in medical research, healthcare, biotechnology, and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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26 Chapters
1432 Verified Questions
1432 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbes have played important roles in genetics and in the discovery of DNA as the genetic material. What discoveries depended on bacteria?
A) that the ability for a previously harmless bacteria to change into a disease causing bacteria was due to DNA
B) the discovery of the intracellular reproduction of tobacco mosaic virus
C) the development of the microscope
D) the identification of a virus that causes yellow fever
Answer: A
Q2) Who first elucidated the structure of DNA
A) Hershey and Chase
B) Avery, McCarty and MacLeod
C) Watson and Crick
D) Tatum and Beadle
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about acids and bases is false?
A) A hydrogen ion (H+) is a proton.
B) Acids are proton acceptors.
C) Bases are hydroxyl ion donors
D) A hydroxyl ion donor is also a proton acceptor
Answer: B
Q2) Water plays an important role in the chemical reactions in cells,including A) denaturing proteins
B) stabilizing the primary structure of a protein
C) forming covalent bonds with proteins
D) breaking down large proteins into amino acids in hydrolysis reactions
Answer: D
Q3) In DNA,the nucleotide cytosine always base pairs to A) adenine
B) guanine
C) thymine
D) uracil
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) During microscopic observation of a specimen,the amount of light that is allowed to pass through the specimen is controlled by the
A) condenser
B) objective lens
C) iris diaphragm
D) ocular lens
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements about preparing a specimen is false?
A) organisms must be heat fixed before viewed in a hanging drop slide
B) smears are loopful of medium spread on the surface of a glass slide
C) wet mount preparations give good views of microbial mobility
D) the depth of a smear affects the results as too thin you may find no organisms
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following can be used to examine live specimens?
A) transmission electron microscope
B) scanning electron microscope
C) scanning tunneling electron microscope
D) atomic force microscope
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A) all bacteria are capable of forming capsules
B) the chemical composition of each capsule is unique to a particular strain of bacteria
C) slime layer is usually thinner than a capsule
D) a slime layer protects bacteria against drying and helps trap nutrients near a cell.
Q3) During diffusion,molecules
A) move from hotter areas to cooler areas
B) move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration
C) move from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration
D) expend energy to move around
Q4) Three bags,permeable to water but not salt,are placed in beakers containing an isotonic,hypotonic and hypertonic solution. Describe how you could determine which beaker was which. If the bag were a cell what would happen to it if it was placed in each beaker.
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about glycolysis?
A) the net yield of ATP is two ATPs for each molecule of glucose
B) it provides cells with a relatively large amount of energy
C) four molecules of ATP are used in the initial phosphorylation steps
D) the ATP that is used up during glycolysis is not considered in calculating the net yield of ATP
Q2) A holoenzyme consists of
A) an apoenzyme plus a cofactor
B) an apoenzyme plus a coenzyme
C) a protein and non-protein component
D) all of the above
Q3) All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration,except:
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) nitrate ions
D) sulfate ions
Q4) Describe the chemical characteristics of enzymes and indicate why they are important in the metabolism of large molecules and how they determine which metabolic pathways occur in a cell.
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in the amount of nitrogen to a culture of Clostridium botulinum would induce
A) activation
B) germination
C) sporulation
D) outgrowth
Q2) Most bacteria reproduce by A) sexual reproduction
B) binary fission
C) budding
D) homologous recombination
Q3) Bacteria that ferment lactose grow as red colonies on MacConkey agar while those that do not ferment lactose are pink. MacConkey agar can best be described as being A) selective
B) differential
C) complex
D) enriched
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true?
A) the first position of a codon determines the amino acid
B) an amino acid can be specified for by more than one codon
C) nonsense codons contain no information
D) because DNA only contains three letters there are very few possible genes that can exist
Q2) During replication,DNA is synthesized by
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) ribosomes
D) ribozymes
Q3) Polymerase chain reaction
A) allows for the rapid amplification of a billion copies of DNA without needing a living cell
B) can be applied to historic samples and to criminal investigations
C) requires oligonucleotides to cut DNA into smaller pieces
D) two of the above are true
Q4) Using the lac and trp operons as examples,describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Restriction enzymes come from
A) fungal cells
B) viruses
C) bacteria cells
D) animal cells
Q2) DNA can be cut at specific sites by using A) ligases
B) restriction enzymes
C) antibiotics
D) plasmids
Q3) Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cells?
A) transduction
B) transcription
C) conjugation
D) transformation
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The binomial name of a microbe is composed of its
A) kingdom and genus names
B) genus name and a species modifier
C) family and class names
D) genus and species names
Q2) A eukaryotic,unicellular organism with no cell wall would be classified as a
A) Monera
B) Animal
C) Fungi
D) Protista
Q3) Which one of the following microorganisms was once called blue-green algae?
A) mycoplasmas
B) cyanobacteria
C) chlamydiae
D) rickettsia
Q4) A bacterial strain contains
A) several species
B) several families
C) a subgroup of a species with some of the same characteristics
D) a subgroup of a genus which has permanent genetic differences
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rare form of cancer that has become common among men with AIDS is
A) Kaposi's sarcoma
B) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
C) tuberculosis
D) Burkitt's lymphoma
Q2) Recognition of the proper host cell by an animal virus may be aided by the ________ of the virus.
A) spikes
B) tail fibers
C) DNA
D) cell membrane
Q3) Because viruses such as bacteriophages lead to bursting of the bacterial host cell they are known as ________ viruses.
A) lytic
B) lysogenic
C) recurring
D) lethal
Q4) Why did scientists initially resist the idea of an infectious,self-replicating protein?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasites having both male and female reproductive organs are known as
A) obligate parasites
B) schizons
C) hermaphrodites
D) accidental parasites
Q2) Fungi can be differentiated from plants by the fact that
A) fungi are all unicellular, plants are all multicellular
B) fungi do not have a cell wall, plants have a cell wall
C) fungi cannot photosynthesize, plants can photosynthesize
D) fungi are prokaryotic, plants are eukaryotic
Q3) A mechanical vector
A) lives on or in another organism at the expense of the host
B) is simply along for the ride
C) reproduces as an asexual form in this host
D) infects by mechanical insertion of a syringe
Q4) Fungi are never
A) saprophytes
B) obligate parasites
C) facultative parasites
D) heterotrophs
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following do not affect viruses?
A) alkylating agents
B) detergents
C) alcohols
D) halogens
Q2) Moist heat kills microorganisms by denaturing their
A) lipids
B) proteins
C) carbohydrates
D) nucleic acids
Q3) Which is a cationic detergent having four organic groups attached to a nitrogen atom and used to sanitize utensils?
A) quaternary ammonium compound
B) propionic acid
C) methylene blue
D) ethylene oxide
Q4) Compare the meanings of the following paired terms: a)disinfectant and antiseptic; b)bactericidal agent and bacteriostatic agent; and c)sterilization and disinfection. When is it worthwhile to pay extra for a sanitized item?
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Side effects due to antimicrobial agents may involve all of the following except
A) allergic reactions
B) anaphylactic shock
C) disruption of microbial flora
D) increased antibiotic susceptibility of replacement microflora
Q2) The mode of action of penicillin is
A) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B) disruption of cell membranes
C) inhibition of protein synthesis
D) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
Q3) A microorganism that can use ready-made folic acid from its environment and no longer needs to synthesize it from the PABA precursor demonstrates an example of what type of antimicrobial resistance mechanism?
A) alteration of an enzyme
B) alteration of targets
C) development of enzymes
D) alteration of a metabolic pathway
Q4) Describe the targets or action for 3 of the following: antifungal agents,antiviral agents,antiprotozoan agents and antihelminthic agents.
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following refer to the normal microflora except
A) no microflora is found in the fetus
B) resident microorganisms normally do not cause disease
C) some microorganisms are resident while others are transient
D) resident microorganisms are found in nervous system and blood
Q2) In the United States,infectious diseases are currently
A) responsible for more deaths than cardiovascular diseases
B) the number one cause of mortality
C) ranked after cancer, accidents, diabetes and cardiovascular disease in mortality
D) two of the above
Q3) Transposal of virulence is all of the following except
A) a laboratory technique in which a pathogen is passed from its normal host to a new host
B) involves animal passaging experiments to adapt a pathogen to its normal host
C) was used by Pasteur to prepare rabies virus
D) increases the virulence for the new host but may reduce the virulence in the normal host
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of factors and mechanisms of disease frequency and spread within a population is called:
A) endemic
B) epidemic
C) epidemiology
D) etiology
Q2) All of the following correspond to Yersinia pestis except
A) causes plague
B) has a 100% mortality when acquired through respiratory route
C) when acquired through the respiratory route causes bubonic plague
D) has a 50% mortality when acquired through a flea bite
Q3) Bioterrorism
A) is a new phenomenon
B) agents all transmit from one human to other humans
C) agents are transmitted through mechanical vectors
D) none of the above
Q4) Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus?
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that resist digestion by phagocytes use all of the following mechanisms except
A) produce capsule that can resist lysosomal digestion
B) block chemokines from reaching phagocytes
C) form parasitophorous vacuoles
D) produce streptolysisin and leukocidin
Q2) Complement
A) system consists of over 20 proteins that function in a cascade-like manner
B) activation results in the onset of fever
C) pathway involves factors B, D and P
D) all of the above
Q3) A multilobed lymphatic organ that functions to process lymphocytes known as T cells and release them into the blood is called:
A) tonsil
B) trachea
C) thymus gland
D) salivary gland
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activated delayed hypersensitivity T (TDTH)cells:
A) release macrophage chemotactic factor
B) play a role in humoral immunity
C) suppress T cells
D) release perforin molecules
Q2) A compromised host
A) may have a poor diet
B) may have an impairment in cell mediated immunity but not humoral immunity
C) usually has increased resistance to infectious diseases
D) two of the above
Q3) Cells that are neither T or B cells,but function to non-specifically kill cells infected by viruses are called:
A) natural killer cells
B) phagocytic cells
C) memory cells
D) blood cells
Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose one immunological test - either a precipitin test,agglutination reaction or a tagged antibody test -- diagram how it is used to detect antibodies or antigens. In your diagram be sure to show what allows for the visualization of either the precipitin ring,the agglutination or the antigen on a cells surface.
Q2) Hypersensitivity to poison ivy
A) is due to the formation of granulomas
B) is a type I hypersensitivity reaction
C) leads to contact dermatitis due to immune reaction to urushiol
D) occurs immediately after contact with the oil from the plant
Q3) Rhogam,which is administered to women during pregnancy to prevent the occurrence of hemolytic disease of the newborn,is
A) Rh positive antigen
B) Rh negative antigen
C) Anti-Rh antibodies (IgG)
D) two of the above
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flesh-eating bacteria are
A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Pseudomonas
D) Propionibacterium
Q2) Which correctly matches the disease caused by VZV virus?
A) shingles - virus is carried in blood to various tissues
B) chickenpox - confined to a single region supplied by a particular nerve
C) chickenpox - is due to latent virus that is reactivated
D) shingles - occurs when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level
Q3) Gas gangrene,with gas production leading to tissue necrosis,is due to
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Spirillum minor
Q4) Candida albicans is characterized by all of the following except
A) an oval budding yeast
B) etiology of thrush
C) vaginitis
D) not found normally in intestines or urogenital tract
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acid pH in the vagina is predominantly due to ______ fermenting the _____ present in vaginal cells.
A) Staphylococcus, glycogen
B) Escherichia, glucose
C) Staphylococcus, starch
D) Lactobacillus, glycogen
Q2) Which is a true statement about fetal and infant CMV infections?
A) CMV can only be contracted during birth as it doesn't cross the placenta
B) maternal antibodies can cross the placenta to inactivate CMV virus
C) infections contracted after birth have more permanent defects than those before birth
D) two of the above
Q3) Chlamydia trachomatis is the causative agent of
A) non-gonococcal urethritis
B) lymphogranuloma venereum
C) inclusion blennorrhea
D) all of the above
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Middle ear infections are common in children because A) they do not secrete cerumen
B) their tympanic membranes are thinner than in adults
C) their Eustachian tubes are shorter and wider
D) two of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements about pneumonia is incorrect?
A) helminths can cause pneumonia
B) walking pneumonia is caused by Legionella pneumophilia
C) chemicals and radiation can cause pneumonia
D) walking pneumonia cannot be prevented by vaccination
Q3) Parasitic lung fluke disease can be prevented by A) treatment with amphotericin B
B) cooking shellfish before eating
C) vaccination when in endemic parts of the world
D) cooking meat products before eating
Q4) Pharyngitis is most often caused by A) a virus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes Group A
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Corynebacterium
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) While the overall prevalence of hepatitis has decreased significantly in the last 20 years in the United States,hepatitis due to viruses is still a major public health problem because of the high infectivity of the viruses. What is the mode of transmission for hepatitis viruses? What are potential prevention and treatment methods?
Q2) Which pair is matched incorrectly?
A) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis-trench mouth
B) periodontitis-bone and tissue damage
C) gingivitis-due to plaque deposits
D) calculus-due to gum lesions
Q3) Which helminth burrows through the skin,reach the lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed and then burrow into villi of the intestines and mature to adult worms?
A) Ascariasis
B) Trichinosis
C) Hookworms
D) Strongyloidiasis
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Yellow fever is characterized by all of the following except
A) carrier is sand fly
B) reservoir is monkey
C) vaccine is available
D) limited to tropical areas of Central & South America and Africa
Q2) Ehrlichiosis is characterized by all of the following except
A) symptoms include fever, headache, hepatitis, and muscle pain
B) reduction in white blood cells
C) a rash similar to Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
D) ehrlichial intracytoplasmic inclusions in WBCs suggest presence of Ehrlichia
Q3) Anthrax is characterized by all of the following except
A) cutaneous is the most common form
B) intestinal anthrax has the highest mortality rate
C) etiology is Bacillus anthracis
D) diagnosed by cultured blood or smears from cutaneous lesions
Q4) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is characterized by all of the following except
A) vector is the dog tick, Dermacentor variabilis
B) etiology is Rickettsia rickettsii
C) most cases reported are in the northwest U.S.
D) prominent rash on palms and soles
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is
A) antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium
B) dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear
C) the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work
D) the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells
Q2) Acute meningitis is consistent with all of the following except
A) organisms could be endogenous
B) organisms can spread from pneumonia
C) symptoms are insidious, occurring over a period of weeks
D) organisms spread from otitis media
Q3) African sleeping sickness is caused by
A) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
B) Yersinia pestis
C) Trypanosoma cruzi
D) prions
Q4) Tetanus is most common in A) newborns
B) adolescents
C) young adult athletes
D) older women
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
A) oxidize ammonia to nitrates or nitrites
B) oxidize ammonia to nitrous oxide
C) reduce nitrates to nitrites
D) reduce nitrogen gas to ammonia
Q2) The most predominant microbial group found in soil is
A) fungi
B) bacteria
C) protozoa
D) viruses
Q3) How do the ONPG and MUG test detect microorganisms in water?
A) color is changed by enzymes secreted by coliform bacteria
B) gas production in cultures of lactose broth
C) observing dark colonies of coliform organisms on EMB-lactose agar
D) colonies forming on surface of a sterile absorbent pad
Q4) Microbes in the environment can be
A) producers
B) consumers
C) decomposers
D) all of the above
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Claviceps purpurea contaminates
A) raw milk
B) raw grains
C) processed diary products
D) packaged lunch meats
Q2) Canned goods
A) will not spoil unless they are dented or improperly canned at the factory
B) will not spoil because of the high salt content
C) will remain edible for years
D) have been subjected to dry heat under very low pressure but high oxygen treatment
Q3) Glutamic acid is probably the amino acid manufactured by fermentation in the greatest quantity. What is its major use?
A) as a flavor enhancer
B) as a raw material for animal feeds
C) a nutritional supplement
D) a starting material for aspartame
Q4) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms?
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