
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the biological and physiological principles underpinning human health, disease, and medical research. This interdisciplinary field integrates knowledge from areas such as biochemistry, molecular biology, anatomy, physiology, pathology, and pharmacology to understand the mechanisms of disease, develop laboratory skills, and investigate the basis of diagnostic procedures and therapeutic interventions. Emphasis is placed on research methodology, critical analysis, and the translation of scientific discoveries into clinical and public health applications, preparing students for careers in healthcare, biomedical research, and related sectors.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology 11th Edition by Stuart Fox
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20 Chapters
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone-forming cells are known as A)osteocytes.
B)osteoblasts.
C)osteons.
D)chondrocytes.
Answer: B
Q2) The ____________ is the polysaccharide layer attaching an epithelial tissue to the underlying connective tissue.
A)goblet cell
B)epidermis
C)basement membrane
D)plasma membrane
Answer: C
Q3) Sebaceous glands are responsible for the lubrication of the skin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Steroids are derived from cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The primary structure of proteins is/are
A)the linear arrangement of amino acids in the molecule.
B)alpha helix coils and beta-pleated sheet folds of a protein strand.
C)due to the interaction between protein subunits.
D)stabilized when a protein is denatured.
Answer: A
Q3) Water makes up _____ of the total body weight of an average adult.
A)50-60%
B)55-65%
C)60-70%
D)65-75%
Answer: D
Q4) Atoms sharing a pair of electrons form covalent bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 4
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Q1) Cells in the G<sub>1</sub> phase of the cell cycle contain half as much DNA as cells in the G<sub>2</sub> phase.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Crossing over is important for
A)increasing genetic variability.
B)preventing mutations.
C)limiting genetic recombination.
D)maintaining chromosome structure.
Answer: A
Q3) Proteins and mRNA exit the nucleus via A)nuclear pores.
B)endoplasmic reticulum.
C)vesicles.
D)centromeres.
Answer: A
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Q1) In some instances RNA can act as an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Enzymes in a metabolic pathway act antagonistically to produce a final product. A)True
B)False
Q3) At saturation, enzyme activity is maximal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rate at which a chemical reaction can be increased is by either ______________ the temperature or ______________ the activation energy.
A)increasing, increasing B)increasing, decreasing C)decreasing, decreasing D)decreasing, increasing
Q5) Enzymes are specific for a given substrate.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Cyanide is lethal because it blocks the oxidation of oxygen in the electron transport chain system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prior to entering the Krebs cycle amino acids must be reductively deaminated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ATP formation in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle is called
A)substrate level phosphorylation.
B)oxidative phosphorylation.
C)direct phosphorylation.
D)Both substrate level phosphorylation and direct phosphorylation are correct.
Q4) A total of ______________ molecules of ATP are produced by glycolysis.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q5) Coenzyme A is derived from the vitamin riboflavin.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of water within the body is found in the A)intracellular compartment.
B)extracellular compartment.
C)blood plasma.
D)interstitial fluid.
Q2) Glucose transported via the GLUT carrier is characterized as A)active transport.
B)passive transport.
C)co-transport.
D)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Q3) The primary intracellular cation is
A)Ca<sup>2+</sup>.
B)K<sup>+</sup>.
C)Mg<sup>2+</sup>.
D)Na<sup>+</sup>.
Q4) The osmotic pressure exerted by a cell would decrease if the cell synthesized more proteins.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The gap of exposed axon in the myelin sheath is the A)neurilemma.
B)node of Ranvier.
C)sheath of Schwann.
D)white matter.
Q2) Sensory neurons for muscle position are the fastest conducting neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The nerve is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nicotinic receptors utilize G-proteins to regulate the opening of ion channels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which poison inhibits glycine receptors?
A)strychnine
B)curare
C)tetrodotoxin
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Q1) Chorea is most likely to result from
A)damage to the caudate nucleus.
B)damage to the spinal ganglia.
C)damage to the occipital lobe.
D)damage to the hypothalamus.
Q2) Damage to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum would limit
A)voluntary skeletal muscle contraction.
B)integration of cerebral activities.
C)hearing.
D)vision.
Q3) A record of the electrical currents of the cerebral cortex is a/an A)computed tomograph.
B)electroencephalogram.
C)magnetic resonance image.
D)positron-emission tomograph.
Q4) Which type of EEG pattern in an awake adult is indicative of brain damage?
A)alpha waves
B)beta waves
C)theta waves
D)delta waves
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Q1) The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system has limited range because only a few postganglionic neurons are stimulated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medulla oblongata controls many autonomic activities through the A)paravertebral ganglia.
B)vagus nerve.
C)collateral ganglia.
D)splanchnic nerves.
Q3) The vagus nerve would innervate all of the following except A)the heart.
B)the stomach.
C)the liver.
D)the iris.
Q4) Which of the following is a catecholamine?
A)norepinephrine
B)acetylcholine
C)nitric oxide
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Q1) The ______ system is involved in the pupillary response.
A)tectal
B)geniculostriate
C)optic chiasma
D)sensory adaptation
Q2) Specialized cells on the tongue that distinguish salty, sour, sweet, or bitter flavors are called
A)taste buds.
B)umami cells.
C)gustducin.
D)taste cells.
Q3) Eye movements are regulated by information sent to the A)lateral geniculate body.
B)hypothalamus.
C)inferior colliculus.
D)superior colliculus.
Q4) The near point of vision decreases with increasing age.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following are considered nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs except A)aspirin.
B)celecoxib (Celebrex).
C)acetaminophen (Tylenol).
D)rofecoxib (Vioxx).
Q2) The posterior pituitary gland produces two hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) G-proteins are needed to stimulate the activation of protein kinase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Steroid hormone influence on gene expression is known as A)genomic action.
B)nongenomic action.
C)dimerization.
D)translocation.
Q5) Inhibition of phosphodiesterase would potentiate increase the effects of hormones that activate adenylate cyclase.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Z lines are found bisecting the A bands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) High-energy phosphates are stored in skeletal muscle as glycogen ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of single-unit smooth muscle?
A)All cells receive autonomic stimulation.
B)It displays pacemaker activity.
C)It displays myogenic response to stretch.
D)Acetylcholine binds to muscarinic receptors and closes K<sup>+</sup> channels.
Q4) A muscle contraction against a resistance that is greater than the force and causes muscle lengthening is a(n)
A)concentric contraction.
B)isometric contraction.
C)eccentric contraction.
D)isokinetic contraction.
Q5) The monosynaptic stretch reflex involves the actions of the muscle spindles.
A)True
B)False

14
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Q1) Within the blood vessels, valves are found in the A)arteries.
B)capillaries.
C)arterioles.
D)veins.
Q2) Ischemic heart disease causes ______________ on the ECG.
A)no P wave
B)no QRS complex
C)S-T depression
D)inverted P waves
Q3) Increasing the number of slow Ca<sup>2+</sup> channels open in the sinoatrial node increases heart rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cardiac rates slower than 60 beats per minute indicate tachycardia.
A)True B)False
Q5) Arteries usually carry blood high in oxygen toward the heart. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Net filtration would be decreased by A)liver damage.
B)increased hepatic protein synthesis.
C)hypotension.
D)increased cellular metabolism.
Q2) Edema may result from increased plasma protein concentrations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Essential hypertension
A)is the type of hypertension that most patients have.
B)is the result of a known disease process.
C)is a necessary physiological state.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) During exercise, blood flow to the heart increases.
A)True B)False
Q5) Tripling blood vessel radius would increase blood flow 64-fold.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What chemical acts as a chemokine to draw more neutrophils to the site of an infection?
A)histamine
B)tumor necrosis factor alpha
C)protease
D)prostaglandin
Q2) Which chromosome contains the genes for the major histocompatibility complex?
A)chromosome 3
B)chromosome 6
C)chromosome 14
D)chromosome 19
Q3) What substance released by NK cells and cytotoxic T cells destroys the DNA of an infected cell?
A)perforin
B)interleukin-1
C)interferon
D)granzyme
Q4) All human cells have human leukocyte antigens on their membrane surface.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) During exercise, arterial carbon dioxide is normally increased.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What disease is characterized by the abnormal hemoglobin S?
A)sickle-cell anemia
B)thalassemia
C)cystic fibrosis
D)emphysema
Q3) Which of the following changes would occur during exercise?
A)increased blood gases
B)decreased ventilation
C)decreased oxygen delivery to muscles
D)increased oxygen extraction by muscles
Q4) When a diver descends 20 meters below sea level, the total atmospheric pressure would increase by ____ atmospheres.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
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Q1) The ability of the kidneys to maintain a relatively constant GFR despite fluctuating blood pressures is called
A)renal plasma threshold.
B)renal transport maximum.
C)renal plasma clearance.
D)renal autoregulation.
Q2) Shock-wave lithotripsy is used to treat
A)polycystic kidney disease.
B)glomerulonephritis.
C)acute renal failure.
D)renal calculi.
Q3) Potassium secretion by the kidneys is only possible due to the action of aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Thiazide diuretics
A)inhibit the actions of ADH.
B)add extra solutes to the filtrate.
C)inhibit active transport of salt out of the ascending loop of Henle limb.
D)inhibit salt transport in the first section of the distal convoluted tubule.
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Q1) Protection against atherosclerosis is believed to be associated with an
A)elevated HDL-cholesterol.
B)elevated LDL-cholesterol.
C)elevated total cholesterol.
D)elevated VLDL-cholesterol.
Q2) The majority of hydrolysis of disaccharides occurs by the actions of enzymes found
A)in the pancreatic juice.
B)in the brush border of the small intestine.
C)in saliva.
D)in the gastric mucosa.
Q3) Which of the following zymogens is activated by trypsin in the small intestine?
A)lipase
B)carboxypeptidase
C)ribonuclease
D)amylase
Q4) Excessive amounts of porphyrin heme groups in the liver is toxic and called porphyria.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Insulin secretion is often normal in individuals with type I diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Elevated concentrations of glucagon would result in
A)decreased lipolysis.
B)decreased glycogen synthesis.
C)increased gluconeogenesis.
D)increased lipogenesis.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an action of parathyroid hormone?
A)stimulates osteoclasts to resorb calcium
B)stimulated osteoblasts to deposit calcium
C)stimulates kidneys to reabsorb calcium
D)stimulates formation of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D<sub>3</sub>
Q4) Elevated blood glucose triggers insulin secretion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ablation of the thyroid gland would cause a drop in basal metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Barr bodies are normally only found in the cells of female mammals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Apoptosis of T lymphocytes requires that Sertoli cells produce
A)FAS ligand.
B)androgen-binding protein.
C)testosterone.
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a role of estriol in parturition?
A)produces more receptors for oxytocin
B)produces the hormone relaxin
C)produces more receptors for prostaglandins
D)produces more gap junctions between myometrial cells
Q4) Day 1 of the menstrual cycle is
A)the day ovulation occurs.
B)the first day of the menses.
C)the last day of the menses.
D)the first day of the proliferative phase.
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