Biomedical Sciences
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Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that combines principles of biology, chemistry, and medicine to explore the mechanisms underlying human health and disease. This course provides a foundational understanding of human anatomy, physiology, molecular biology, pathology, and pharmacology, equipping students with the skills to investigate biological processes and their implications for disease diagnosis, treatment, and prevention. Emphasizing both theoretical concepts and laboratory techniques, students will learn to analyze scientific literature, conduct research, and apply biomedical knowledge in clinical and research settings, preparing them for advanced study or careers in healthcare, research, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 14th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Q1) Describe the steps associated with the scientific method.
Answer: Observation: New observations are made and previous data are studied. Hypothesis:Input from various sources is used to formulate a testable statement. Experiment / Observation:The hypothesis is tested by experiment or further observations. Conclusion:The results are analyzed,and the hypothesis is supported or rejected. Scientific Theory:Many experiments and observations support a theory.
Q2) Which of the following statements explains the atomic bomb and the benefit of nuclear physics to cancer therapy?
A)Science and technology are not risk free.
B)Science and technology are wrong.
C)Science and technology are good for mankind.
D)Science and technology are value-neutral.
E)Science and technology always provide value to peoplE.
Answer: A
Q3) Jessica is interested in a new vitamin pill her friend recommended.Her friend told her that it really helped her.Should Jessica accept this type of evidence?
Answer: NO
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) After lunch our digestive system will use the process of hydrolysis to break the food down into smaller subunits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the Titanic?
A)Water is liquid at room temperature.
B)Water has a high heat of vaporization.
C)The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly.
D)Frozen water is less dense than liquid water.
E)Water molecules are cohesivE.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following nitrogenous bases is NOT found in DNA?
A)cytosine
B)thymine
C)uracil
D)guanine
E)adenine
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only glucose can be used as an energy source in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Centrosomes are associated with A)ribosomes.
B)mitochondria.
C)chromosomes.
D)microtubules.
E)lysosomes.
Answer: D
Q3) What are the folds in mitochondrial membranes called?
A)matrix
B)cristae
C)rugae
D)lumen
E)villi
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome.Which type of fiber is affected in this disorder?
A)elastic fibers
B)reticular fibers
C)collagen fibers
D)hyaline fibers
E)ground fibers
Q2) List and describe the three types of cartilage.
Q3) The cardiovascular system is limited to just the heart and the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is mismatched to its location in the skin?
A)fat--subcutaneous layer
B)sense organs--dermis
C)keratinization--epidermis
D)nerves/blood vessels--epidermis
E)hair follicle--dermis
Q5) Only the nervous and endocrine systems are involved in homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Q1) Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?
A)right atrium
B)right ventricle
C)left atrium
D)left ventricle
E)aorta
Q2) What does an ECG record?
A)brain activity
B)blood volume
C)heart sounds
D)hormonal changes
E)electrical changes
Q3) What is the bursting of a blood vessel called?
A)embolus
B)aneurysm
C)thrombus
D)myocardial infarction
E)stroke
Q4) Compare the structure and function of the arteries to that of the veins.
Q5) Describe the 4 functions of the cardiovascular system.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Q1) Jeremy has type O negative blood.What type blood could he receive in a transfusion?
A)O negative only
B)A positive,A negative,B positive,and B negative
C)A positive and B positive
D)AB positive only
E)AB negative only
Q2) Which body system does not dump some product into the blood?
A)the urinary system
B)the muscular system
C)the digestive system
D)the respiratory system
E)All body systems dump wastes into the blood
Q3) A person with O negative blood has what antigens on their red blood cells?
A)A only
B)B only
C)A and Rh
D)B and Rh
E)none
Q4) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What two sites are involved in the production and maturation of T lymphocytes?
A)thyroid and tonsils
B)tonsils and thymus
C)thymus and bone marrow
D)bone marrow and thyroid
E)tonsils and bone marrow
Q2) Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue?
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)macrophages
E)red blood cells
Q3) Before working at the hospital,Beth was given a Mantoux skin test to detect tuberculosis.If it were positive,the site of the test would become hardened and red.What type of response is this?
A)anaphylactic
B)histamine
C)immediate allergic
D)delayed allergic
E)B-cell mediated
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Chapter 8: Biology of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the steps in the HIV life cycle in the correct order.1.Assembly;2.Integration;3.Entry;4.Fusion;5.Attachment;6.Budding;7.Biosynthesis and cleavage;8.Reverse transcription
A)1,3,2,4,5,7,6,8
B)1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
C)8,1,7,2,6,3,5,4
D)4,6,3,7,2,8,1,5
E)5,4,3,8,2,7,1,6
Q2) Which of the following diseases is categorized as an opportunistic infection found in AIDS patients?
A)prolonged diarrhea
B)yeast infections of the mouth or vagina
C)cervical dysplasia
D)shingles
E)Kaposi's sarcoma
Q3) There is no point in taking antibiotics for a cold.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and describe the most common opportunistic diseases an individual in category C of AIDS will die from.
10
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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Q1) Pepsin is an enzyme that digests proteins at acidic pH.Therefore,it must act in the A)stomach.
B)small intestine.
C)mouth.
D)large intestine.
E)esophagus.
Q2) What serves as an emulsifying agent for fats in the small intestine?
A)lipase
B)bile
C)amylase
D)pepsin
E)maltase
Q3) What type of hepatitis is usually acquired through blood transfusions or sexual contact?
A)B
B)A
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 10: Respiratory System
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Q1) Upon X-ray,it could be seen that Josh's lungs were filled with fluid.What is the proper diagnosis for Josh's illness?
A)bronchitis
B)emphysema
C)asthma
D)pulmonary fibrosis
E)pneumonia
Q2) Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?
A)bronchi
B)lungs
C)alveoli
D)trachea
E)larynx
Q4) Can you hold your breath until you die?
Q5) During respiration,as the thorax moves up,the lungs move down.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the dialysate continually replaced in hemodialysis?
A)to maintain a favorable concentration gradient with the blood
B)because it is easily infected
C)because it enters the body and is absorbed
D)because it is lost by urination
E)because it biodegrades rapidly
Q2) Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product?
A)urea
B)erythropoietin
C)ammonia
D)creatinine
E)uric acid
Q3) The kidneys are much more powerful than the acid-base buffer and the respiratory center mechanisms in controlling blood pH.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The renal pyramids are located within the renal pelvis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the three steps involved in urine formation.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe bone cells?
A)osteocytes
B)chondrocytes
C)trabeculae
D)periosteum
E)epiphysis
Q2) How is bone repair different from bone development?
A)A hematoma indicates an injury has occurred.
B)Osteoblasts are not involved in bone repair but they are in bone development.
C)Osteoclasts are involved in bone development but not in bone repair.
D)Only spongy bone is built in bone repair while both spongy and compact bone are built in bone development.
E)There is no cartilage involved in bone repair but there is in bone development.
Q3) The thoracic vertebrae are associated with the ribs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to the actin and myosin filaments when a muscle contracts?
A)both of them shorten
B)both of them lengthen
C)both stay the same length
D)actin shortens while myosin lengthens
E)myosin shortens while actin lengthens
Q2) Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle,which pathway(s)do slow-twitch fibers prefer?
A)the creatine phosphate pathway
B)fermentation
C)aerobic respiration
D)the creatine phosphate pathway or fermentation
E)the creatine phosphate pathway or aerobic respiration
Q3) What is found within the intercalated disks of cardiac muscle?
A)sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)gap junctions
C)dense connective tissue
D)bone
E)myoglobin
Q4) List the functions of the skeletal muscles.
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Chapter 14: Nervous System
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Q1) There are only two types of neurotransmitters: acetylcholine for excitation and norepinephrine for inhibition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List the order of events that will occur during a reflex arc.
Q3) List the structures associated with the brain stem and indicate their primary function.
Q4) Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS?
A)Schwann cells
B)myelin sheath
C)axon
D)dendrite
E)node of Ranvier
Q5) Which of the following are mismatched concerning memory and learning?
A)hippocampus and emotionally charged fearful memories
B)long-term potentiation and memory storage
C)semantic memory and numbers
D)episodic memory and persons
E)prefrontal area and where memories are used
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Chapter 15: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) As you try to focus on a far away object,the lens of the eye becomes round and thick.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of exteroceptors are located in the ear?
A)mechanoreceptors
B)chemoreceptors
C)photoreceptors
D)thermoreceptors
E)none of these
Q3) List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what they respond to.
Q4) What do nociceptors detect?
A)stimuli of pain
B)stimuli of smell
C)stimuli of touch
D)stimuli of pressure
E)stimuli of taste
Q5) One third of the cerebral cortex takes part in processing visual information.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parathyroid hormone also activates ___________ in the kidneys.
A)vitamin D
B)vitamin C
C)vitamin B
D)cholesterol
E)calcium
Q2) Although other animals produce pheromones,humans have not been shown to make them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are the posterior pituitary and anterior pituitary similar?
A)Both are controlled by the hypothalamus.
B)Both produce three or more hormones.
C)Both are connected to the hypothalamus via a portal system.
D)Both produce releasing and inhibiting hormones.
E)Both produce hormones that control other glands.
Q4) Explain how the adrenal cortex responds to long term stress.
Q5) Most of the diabetics in the United States have type 1 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
18
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Chapter 17: Reproductive System
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Q1) A tubal ligation consists of cutting and sealing the vas deferens so that sperm are unable to reach the seminal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the genitals?
A)produce gametes
B)transport gametes
C)protect zygote
D)produce FSH and LH
E)produce androgens/estrogens
Q3) During which stage of the ovarian cycle will LH spike?
A)Ovulation
B)Follicular phase
C)Luteal phase
D)Secretory phase
E)Proliferative phase
Q4) If fertilization occurs,the progesterone levels fall to almost zero.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the 5 functions of the reproductive system.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin changes is not associated with growing older?
A)Pigmented blotches appear on the skin.
B)There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer.
C)The number of elastic fibers decreases.
D)There is an increase in the number of oil glands.
E)There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur.
Q2) When the uterus begins to contract,it is almost time for the baby to be born.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
Q4) Which part of the sperm contains the chromosomes?
A)tail
B)middle piece
C)head
D)cell membrane
E)flagella
Q5) Sheila is experiencing contractions every 15 to 20 minutes that last for 40 seconds or longer.Is she ready to give birth?
Q6) Describe what occurs during cleavage,growth,morphogenesis,and differentiation.
Q7) Describe the steps in fertilization of an egg cell.
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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Q1) There is no mechanism to ensure the exact partitioning of the cytoplasm as there is of the DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List the stages of interphase and the events that occur during each of these stages.
Q3) If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16,and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate,then you are looking at A)mitosis.
B)meiosis.
C)interphase.
D)G<sub>2</sub>.
E)G<sub>1</sub>.
Q4) From a karyotype,you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether A)a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred.
B)a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes.
C)one chromosome was missing.
D)there were three copies of a chromosome present.
E)a particular gene contained a mutation.
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Chapter 20: Cancer
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Q1) A mole becomes suspicious when it is greater than 6 mm in diameter.How big is 6 mm approximately?
A)just barely visible,about the size of a pin prick
B)about the same as one of the letters in this question
C)about the size of a pencil eraser
D)about the size of a nickel
E)about the size of a quarter
Q2) What type of screening test could be used to determine the likelihood that someone might develop cancer?
A)PAP test
B)PSA test
C)CEA test
D)genetic test
E)tumor marker test
Q3) When the p53 gene is overexpressed in normal cells,the cells are killed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the characteristics of cancer cells that make them different than regular cells.
Q5) Explain what the acronym CAUTION means in regard to the warning signs of cancer.
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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) List the genotypic ratios of the cross between a man with O blood type and a woman who is heterozygous B blood type.
Q2) Explain the problems associated with the genetic disorder Tay-Sachs.A.This lysosome is responsible for clearing out the fatty acid proteins that build up in the cells of the brain.The build up begins to interfere with proper brain development and growth.This leads to malfunctions in vision,movement,hearing,and overall mental development.The impairment leads to blindness,seizures,and paralysis.
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual?
A)genotype
B)phenotype
C)gamete
D)probability
E)autosomal
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a recessive genotype?
A)aa
B)Aa
C)short
D)AA
E)ab
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Chapter 22: DNA Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class?
A)1%
B)50%
C)90%
D)99%
E)99.9%
Q3) The "r" in "rRNA" stands for reticulum RNA because this type of RNA is associated with the endoplasmic reticulum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a type of small RNA?
A)snoRNAs
B)tRNA
C)snRNAs
D)miRNAs
E)siRNAs
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Chapter 23: Human Evolution
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Q1) Biological evolution is the process whereby
A)humans descended from apes.
B)species change through time.
C)living cells arose from nonliving chemicals.
D)prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells.
E)only the strongest survivE.
Q2) Which statement is accurate if the first true cell arose by the RNA-first hypothesis?
A)The first cell had RNA genes that could have specified protein synthesis.
B)Proteins in the protocell would have evolved the ability to synthesize DNA.
C)RNA genes replicated because of the presence of proteins.
D)All of these statements support the RNA-first hypothesis.
E)None of these statements support the RNA-first hypothesis.
Q3) Homo habilis was the first hominid to use fire.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish?
Q5) There are no transitional fossils between different groups.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Global Ecology and Human Interferences
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Q1) When energy flows from one trophic level to another only a small amount is actually used.Which of the following uses of energy by an organism allows for the least amount of transfer to a different trophic level?
A)cellular respiration
B)growth
C)death
D)excretion
E)reproduction
Q2) A detrital food web and a grazing food web are separate because each starts at a different level.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What two characteristics define a biome?
A)temperature and the types of plants found there
B)amount of precipitation and the types of plants found there
C)temperature and rainfall
D)latitude and rainfall
E)altitude and temperature
Q4) Are humans capable of upsetting global biogeochemical cycles with their activities?
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Chapter 25: Human Population,global Resources,and Conservation
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Q1) Which of the following is not a factor contributing to the loss of biodiversity?
A)alien species
B)increased carrying capacity
C)pollution
D)overexploitation
E)disease
Q2) What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why?
A)It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war.
B)It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war.
C)It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine.
D)It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II.
E)It stabilized due to fewer people dying in war.
Q3) Define an ecological footprint.
A)the total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs
B)the amount of food a person needs to eat
C)the amount of water a person needs to meet their needs
D)the amount of land a person needs to provide a place to live
E)the amount of energy a person needs to meet their needs
Q4) List and describe the criteria that are used to measure quality of life.
Q5) Explain the consequences of groundwater depletion.
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