Biomedical Sciences
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the biological principles underlying human health and disease, integrating concepts from biology, chemistry, and medicine to understand the mechanisms of bodily function and dysfunction. The course covers essential topics such as cell biology, physiology, genetics, pathology, microbiology, immunology, and pharmacology, alongside laboratory techniques and research methods. Through this multidisciplinary approach, students gain critical knowledge about the molecular and cellular bases of health, the progression of diseases, and emerging biomedical technologies preparing graduates for careers in healthcare, research, clinical diagnostics, or further medical study.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology Global 10th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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4309 Verified Questions
4309 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wrist is ________ to the elbow.
A)proximal
B)distal
C)lateral
D)medial
E)horizontal
Answer: B
Q2) Anatomy uses a special language,called ________ terminology,which involves the use of word roots,prefixes,suffixes,and combining forms to construct terms related to the body in health and disease.
A)clinical
B)pathological
C)medical
D)anatomical
E)surgical
Answer: C
Q3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs,heart,trachea,esophagus,thymus,major blood vessels connected to the heart
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high-energy bond in ATP is present between
A)adenine and ribose.
B)adenine and a phosphate group.
C)the first and second phosphate group.
D)the second and third phosphate group.
E)phosphate groups 1 and 2 and between phosphate groups 2 and 3.
Answer: E
Q2) The purines found in DNA are ________ and guanine.
A)cytosine
B)adenine
C)thymine
D)uracil
E)niacin
Answer: B
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
Q4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the A)cytoplasm.
B)gene.
C)codon.
D)anticodon.
E)polypeptide itself.
Answer: B
Q2) The control center for cellular operations is the A)nucleus.
B)mitochondria.
C)Golgi apparatus.
D)endoplasmic reticulum.
E)ribosome.
Answer: A
Q3) Define osmosis.
Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeable solute.
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of lactation (milk production)depends on both merocrine and ________ secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells.
A)epicrine
B)eccrine
C)holocrine
D)apocrine
E)endocrine
Q2) A tissue with a gel matrix and cells inside lacunae is A)areolar connective tissue.
B)cartilage.
C)bone.
D)epithelium.
E)dense regular connective tissue.
Q3) The function of simple cuboidal epithelium is A)support and structure.
B)protection and transport.
C)phagocytosis and immunity.
D)absorption and secretion.
E)storage and retrieval.
Q4) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of hard keratin that coats the hair is termed the A)medulla.
B)cuticle.
C)hair bulb.
D)root.
E)shaft.
Q2) The tough superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the stratum
A)corneum.
B)lucidum.
C)basale.
D)granulosum.
E)spinosum.
Q3) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Q4) Sensible perspiration is produced by ________ glands.
A)ceruminous
B)apocrine sweat
C)merocrine sweat
D)sebaceous
E)mammary
Q5) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the growth of a long bone,how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft?
Q2) ________ bones develop inside tendons,commonly near the knees,hands,and feet.
A)Irregular
B)Sesamoid
C)Short
D)Long
E)Flat
Q3) Blood is distributed from the surface of a bone to deeper central canals through channels known as
A)perforating canals.
B)canaliculi.
C)interstitial canals.
D)concentric ducts.
E)concentric canals.
Q4) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitamin D deficiency? Explain.
Q5) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
Q6) What is the difference between ossification and calcification.?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A)lateral process
B)spinous process
C)lamina
D)transverse process
E)pedicle
Q2) Most mammals,including humans and giraffes,have ________ cervical vertebrae.
A)11
B)6
C)7
D)19
E)10
Q3) The ribs articulate with the A)cervical vertebrae.
B)thoracic vertebrae.
C)lumbar vertebrae.
D)sacrum.
E)hyoid bone.
Q4) Consider a disease whereby cilia within the epithelial lining of the paranasal sinuses are destroyed.What would be some of the consequences?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"?
A)femur
B)clavicle
C)humerus
D)manubrium
E)radius
Q2) The bones of the forearm,or ________,consist of the radius and ulna.
A)olecranon region
B)brachium
C)antecubital region
D)antebrachium
E)cubital region
Q3) Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis?
A)triangular obturator foramen
B)coccyx points anteriorly
C)sacrum broad and short
D)bone markings not very prominent
E)ischial spine points posteriorly
Q4) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
Q5) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is false?
A)The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint.
B)The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint.
C)The tighter two bones are held together within a joint,the stronger the joint.
D)The more movement a joint allows,the stronger the joint.
E)The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint.
Q2) A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by
A)loss of annulus fibrosis elasticity.
B)slippage of the fibrocartilage disc.
C)ossification of the vertebral disc.
D)protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.
E)transformation of fibrocartilage to hyaline cartilage.
Q3) A high school student comes to the emergency room complaining of persistent pain and stiffness in her shoulder joint.In talking with her,you discover that she has been spending many hours trying to improve her pitching skills for her school's softball team.What is likely causing the pain?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers?
A)muscles of the neck
B)postural muscles of the back
C)muscles that control the eyes
D)thigh muscles
E)calf muscles
Q2) Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following except A)muscle fatigue.
B)an oxygen debt.
C)an increase in intracellular glycogen.
D)a shift to anaerobic glycolysis.
E)an increase in intracellular lactic acid.
Q3) The sequence of processes that links the action potential to contraction is called
A)neuromuscular junction.
B)action potential propagation.
C)excitation-contraction coupling.
D)cross bridge formation.
E)sliding filament theory.
Q4) Describe a motor unit.How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle(s)that adduct(s)the humerus is/are the A)coracobrachialis.
B)deltoid.
C)trapezius.
D)latissimus dorsi.
E)coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi.
Q2) The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the A)zygomaticus.
B)orbicularis oris.
C)buccinator.
D)levator labii.
E)procerus.
Q3) Which of the following muscles is found within the pelvic floor?
A)ischiocavernosus
B)perineal group
C)bulbospongiosus
D)coccygeus
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Which three functional roles in a movement are used to characterize muscle groups? Give a brief description of each action.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myelination of central and peripheral axons occurs rapidly through the first few years of life.How can this developmental process explain the improved motor abilities of infants and toddlers?
Q2) Which area of the graph shows when potassium channels open?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q3) What is occurring in the area between #2 and #3?
A)An excitatory graded potential is occurring.
B)Potassium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization.
C)Chemically gated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the axon.
D)Sodium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization.
E)Repolarization of the axon due to sodium ions leaving the axon is occurring.
Q4) Rabies is caused by a virus that attacks the central nervous system.The virus is normally introduced by an animal bite that breaks the surface of the skin.Since the virus is not motile,how does it travel to the central nervous system?
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A)autonomic nerve
B)sympathetic ganglion
C)dorsal root ganglion
D)rami communicantes
E)ventral root
Q2) The white matter of the spinal cord contains
A)bundles of axons with common origins,destinations,and functions.
B)bundles of dendrites with common origins,destinations,and functions.
C)sensory and motor nuclei.
D)both axons and dendrites.
E)interneurons.
Q3) The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly
A)unmyelinated axons.
B)neuroglia.
C)Schwann cells.
D)myelinated axons.
E)nodes of Ranvier.
Q4) What would happen if the dorsal root of a spinal nerve were completely transected?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basal nuclei
A)plan and coordinate voluntary muscle activity.
B)provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking.
C)coordinate sensory information.
D)control the secretions of the pituitary gland.
E)control respiration and blood pressure.
Q2) Tic douloureux is
A)a disorder of the maxillary and mandibular branches of nerve V.
B)characterized by almost totally debilitating pain.
C)triggered by contact with the lip,tongue,or gums.
D)also called trigeminal neuralgia.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The dural sinuses are located in the A)paranasal cavity.
B)arachnoid.
C)pia mater.
D)dural folds.
E)tentorium cerebelli.
Q4) A patient develops a clot that blocks the blood supply to the right cerebral hemisphere.What signs and symptoms would you expect as a result of this blockage?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensory transduction can involve which of the following?
A)a stimulus altering the permeability of a receptor membrane
B)change in the flow of ions across the sensory membrane
C)the production of a receptor potential
D)inhibition of neurotransmitter release
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) In the spinothalamic pathway,the sensory neuron that synapses with a neuron in the cerebral cortex is called the ________ neuron.
A)first-order
B)second-order
C)third-order
D)fourth-order
E)receptive
Q3) Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called A)nociceptors.
B)chemoreceptors.
C)baroreceptors.
D)proprioceptors.
E)thermoreceptors.
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ganglia located lateral to the vertebral column are part of the sympathetic A)chain.
B)tract.
C)decussation.
D)tubes.
E)canal.
Q2) Postganglionic axons usually are
A)myelinated.
B)unmyelinated.
C)larger than preganglionic fibers.
D)located in the brain.
E)located in the spinal cord.
Q3) Preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located in
A)the brain.
B)the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
C)the posterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
D)both the brain and the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
E)the cerebrum.
Q4) Why is the suprarenal medulla considered to be a modified sympathetic ganglion?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Color blindness is a(n)
A)hereditary disease involving a lack of certain cones.
B)nutritional disease related to a deficiency of vitamin A.
C)progressive deterioration of the ganglion cells of the retina.
D)inflammatory reaction causing damage to the photoreceptors.
E)infection of the retina,resulting in destruction of the cones.
Q2) An irregularity in curvature in the cornea or lens,called ________,causes a reduction in visual acuity.
A)astigmatism
B)glaucoma
C)a cataract
D)macular degeneration
E)cornela atrophy
Q3) In the light-adapted state,
A)photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation.
B)photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation.
C)we can only see color,and not black and white.
D)we would see better in the dark.
E)colors are dull.
Q4) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the pancreatic hormones are regulated by
A)the adenohypophysis.
B)the liver.
C)the neurohypophysis.
D)the thyroid gland.
E)nutrient concentrations in the blood.
Q2) Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones?
A)catecholamines
B)peptide hormones
C)eicosanoids
D)thyroid
E)catecholamines,peptide hormones,and eicosanoids
Q3) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place?
A)in lysosomes
B)in rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)in the lumen of the thyroid follicle
D)in pinocytotic vesicles
E)in apical microvilli
Q4) Describe the four patterns of hormonal interaction.
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A)albumin. B)porphyrin. C)hemoglobin.
D)immunoglobulin. E)fibrinogen.
Q2) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called A)thrombi. B)emboli. C)plaques. D)clots. E)occlusions.
Q3) The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the A)spleen. B)kidneys.
C)lymph nodes. D)red bone marrow. E)thymus.
Q4) How does Rhogam prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN,hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adult heart is roughly the size of
A)the liver.
B)a man's clenched fist.
C)the gallbladder.
D)the hand of a 10-year-old.
E)the brain.
Q2) The connective tissue fibers of the myocardium
A)add strength and prevent overexpansion of the heart.
B)help distribute the forces of contraction.
C)provide elasticity to help return the heart to its normal size.
D)provide physical support for cardiac muscle.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Stroke volume depends on
A)end diastolic volume.
B)the contractility of the ventricle.
C)the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta.
D)venous return of blood to the heart.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) A doctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker).Why?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Branches off the aortic arch include the
A)brachiocephalic trunk.
B)left subclavian artery.
C)left common carotid artery.
D)left subclavian artery and left common carotid artery.
E)brachiocephalic trunk,left subclavian artery,and left common carotid artery.
Q2) The ________ artery supplies blood to the face and neck.
A)facial
B)vertebral
C)common carotid
D)external carotid
E)internal carotid
Q3) The branch of the common iliac artery that enters the pelvic cavity is the ________ artery.
A)superficial iliac
B)deep iliac
C)external iliac
D)internal iliac
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,lymphocytes
A)spend most of their time in lymphatic tissue.
B)have relatively short life spans.
C)have two nuclei.
D)are produced and mature only in red bone marrow.
E)are located primarily in the blood stream.
Q2) The only antibodies that normally cross the placenta are
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.
Q3) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.
A)B
B)plasma
C)helper T
D)cytotoxic T
E)suppressor T
Q4) What is MALT? What role does it play in the body's defenses?
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the inspiratory muscles relax,the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of
A)exhalation.
B)gravity.
C)elastic rebound.
D)accessory muscle contraction.
E)partial pressure difference.
Q2) Which of the following age-based changes is false?
A)The lungs lose elastic tissue.
B)The lung's compliance changes.
C)Vital capacity increases.
D)Respiratory muscles weaken.
E)Costal cartilages become more flexible.
Q3) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?
A)right lung
B)left lung
C)right primary bronchus
D)left primary bronchus
E)diaphragm
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "alkaline tide" implies that the pH of the blood in gastric veins is
A)greater during digestion of a large meal than following a 24-hour fast.
B)greater following a 24-hour fast than during digestion of a large meal.
C)constant because of buffering.
D)None of the answers are correct.
Q2) All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric digestion except that it
A)precedes the gastric phase.
B)functions to control the rate of gastric emptying.
C)involves both neural and endocrine reflexes.
D)helps ensure that the functions of the small intestine proceed with relative efficiency.
E)begins when chyme enters the small intestine.
Q3) The pouchlike structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal valve is the A)appendix.
B)sigmoid colon.
C)rectum.
D)haustra.
E)cecum.
Q4) What role do hormones play in hunger and satiety?
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Removal of the amino group from amino acids in the first step of their catabolism requires a coenzyme derived from vitamin A)A)
B)C)
C)B .
D)B .
E)B .
Q2) The vitamin that prevents breakdown of vitamin A and fatty acids is vitamin A)A)
B)B)
C)C)
D)D)
E)E)
Q3) Oxygen is an important molecule in which of the following?
A)citric acid cycle and ETS
B)glycolysis,citric acid cycle,and ETS
C)citric acid cycle only
D)glycolysis only
E)ETS only
Q4) List and briefly describe the body's five metabolic components.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism for producing a concentrated urine involves
A)the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)by the neurohypophysis.
B)aquaporins being inserted into the membranes of the collecting duct cells.
C)a high concentration of NaCl in the interstitial fluid that surrounds the collecting ducts.
D)an increase in facultative water reabsorption.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following components of the nephron is largely confined to the renal medulla?
A)glomerular (Bowman's)capsule
B)distal convoluted tubule
C)collecting ducts
D)proximal convoluted tubule
E)glomerulus
Q3) The ________ is a capillary bed that parallels the nephron loop (loop of Henle).
A)glomerulus
B)peritubular capillary bed
C)afferent arteriolar bed
D)collecting duct
E)vasa recta
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone
A)is secreted in response to decreased levels of potassium in the blood.
B)promotes sodium retention in the kidneys.
C)helps decrease blood volume and lower blood pressure.
D)regulates blood calcium levels.
E)regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys.
Q2) The extracellular fluid (ECF)consists of the A)plasma.
B)interstitial fluid.
C)cerebrospinal fluid.
D)lymph.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) In an adult female,the body consists of about ________ percent water.
A)60
B)50
C)40
D)70
E)80
Q4) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis? What is this called? What effects does it have?
29
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary follicle develops from the A)ovarian hilum.
B)tunica albuginea.
C)primordial follicle.
D)ovarian stroma.
E)granulosa cells.
Q2) The surgical removal of the prepuce is called A)circumcision.
B)orchidectomy.
C)tubectomy.
D)vasectomy.
E)pupectomy.
Q3) The external marking of the boundary between the two testes is the A)spermatic cord.
B)raphe.
C)tunica albuginea.
D)acrosome.
E)dartos muscle.
Q4) How does mitosis differ from meiosis?
Q5) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
140 Verified Questions
140 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34567
Sample Questions
Q1) In a(n)________,an incision is made in the perineal musculature.
A)episiotomy
B)lumbar puncture
C)crowning
D)epidural
E)peritoneal cut
Q2) The period of gestation that is characterized by rapid fetal growth and fat deposition is the ________ trimester.
A)first
B)second
C)third
Q3) Twins that occur when blastomeres separate are called
A)monozygotic.
B)blastulatory.
C)zygoblastic.
D)dizygotic.
E)fraternal.
Q4) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?
Q5) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.
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