Biomedical Sciences
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological principles underlying health and disease in humans. The course integrates knowledge from biology, chemistry, physiology, and anatomy to understand the mechanisms of disease, diagnostics, and therapeutics. Students gain insights into molecular and cellular biology, pathology, pharmacology, and genetics, preparing them for careers in medical research, healthcare, or further professional studies. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques, critical analysis of scientific literature, and the application of biomedical knowledge to solve real-world health problems.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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2459 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) This plane divides the body into equal right and left halves.
A)frontal
B)midsagittal
C)transverse
D)oblique
E)coronal
Answer: B
Q2) Discuss the importance of body fluids and which one is considered to be the body's internal environment.
Answer: No Answer
Q3) Which cavity contains the heart?
A)cranial cavity
B)vertebral cavity
C)abdominal cavity
D)pericardial cavity
E)pleural cavity
Answer: D
Q4) List the eleven organ systems of the human body.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are?1 synthesized from cholesterol.?2 lipids.?3 eicosanoids.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 2 and 3
E)1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element nitrogen in the human body?
A)ionized form makes body fluids acidic
B)ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid
C)ionized form is needed for action of many enzymes
D)is a component of all proteins and nucleic acids
E)ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid
Answer: D
Q3) Why is the human digestive system unable to digest cellulose?
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Describe the law of conservation of energy.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define homologous chromosomes.
Answer: No Answer
Q2) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles can engulf a worn-out organelle,digest its chemical components,and recycle those digested components?
A)peroxisomes
B)mitochondria
C)proteasome
D)ribosomes
E)lysosomes
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to hormones and neurotransmitters?
A)transporters
B)receptors
C)enzymes
D)linkers
E)cell identification markers
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body?
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)myocardial
D)muscle
E)nervous
Q2) Reticular fibers in soft organs like the spleen and liver form a supporting framework called the A)matrix.
B)ground substance.
C)basement membrane.
D)stroma.
E)glycosaminoglycans.
Q3) Functional classification of exocrine glands is based on A)shape of the gland.
B)size of the gland.
C)how the gland release its secretory product.
D)how the gland synthesizes its secretory product.
E)All of these Answer choices are correct.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.
Q2) This is another name for the subcutaneous layer.
A)Dermis
B)Epidermis
C)Stratum corneum
D)Stratum basale
E)Hypodermis
Q3) The hair root plexus functions to
A)support the growing hair.
B)cause the hair shaft to become erect.
C)stimulate sweat secretion.
D)give rise to the hair matrix.
E)assist hair in touch perception.
Q4) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
A)Arrector pili
B)Lunula
C)Sweat glands
D)Hair follicles
E)Oil glands
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones?
A)calcitriol and parathyroid hormone
B)calcitonin and calcitriol
C)human growth hormone and parathyroid hormone
D)parathyroid hormone and insulin
E)All of the other selections are correct.
Q2) These are considered bone-dissolving cells.
A)osteogenic cells
B)osteoclast
C)osteocytes
D)osteoblasts
E)all of these choices
Q3) Which of the following conditions is characterized by reduced bone mass due to a decreased rate of bone synthesis to a level too low to compensate for normal bone resorption?
A)osteogenic sarcoma
B)osteomyelitis
C)osteophytes
D)osteoarthritis
E)osteopenia
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sella turcica is a bony depression found in this cranial bone.
A)sphenoid
B)Frontal
C)Temporal
D)Ethmoid
E)Occipital
Q2) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
A)fissure.
B)foramen.
C)fossa.
D)meatus.
E)sulcus.
Q3) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?
A)Females
B)Males
C)Both genders
D)The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender
Q4) Briefly discuss the main structural features of the temporal bones.
Q5) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone?
A)Due to the medial pressure from the inflated lungs
B)Due to the ligament-reinforced strength of the acromial joint
C)Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle
D)Due to position of the clavicle relative to the humerus
E)Due to fusion of the ends of the clavicle to the sternum and scapula
Q2) What is the scapular notch used for?
A)Ligament attachment
B)Tendon attachment
C)Passageway for suprascapular nerve
D)Both ligament and tendon attachment
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q3) Which notch is found between the olecranon and coronoid process?
A)Ulnar notch
B)Radial notch
C)Olecranal notch
D)Trochlear notch
E)Epicondyle notch
Q4) Compare and contrast the male and female pelvis.
Q5) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is a type of movement where there is a decrease in the angle between articulating bones.
A)Flexion
B)Extension
C)Gliding
D)Circumduction
E)Rotation
Q2) In the United States,the two joints that are most commonly replaced by arthroplasty are
A)shoulder and elbow.
B)elbow and knee.
C)shoulder and knee.
D)hip and knee.
E)shoulder and hip.
Q3) The epiphyseal plate in a long bone is an example of this type of joint.
A)Gomphosis
B)Suture
C)Symphysis
D)Synovial
E)Synchondrosis
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many arteries and veins usually accompany a single nerve penetrating a skeletal muscle?
A)one artery and one or two veins
B)two arteries and two veins
C)three arteries and two veins
D)one artery and three veins
E)one artery and a varied amount of veins
Q2) A brief contraction of all muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential moving down the somatic motor neuron is known as
A)isometric contraction.
B)isotonic contraction.
C)tetany.
D)refractory period.
E)twitch contraction.
Q3) List the four steps of the contraction cycle in order of occurrence.What is needed for these steps to continuously repeat?
Q4) Discuss the steps involved in contraction of smooth muscle and explain why smooth muscle have a slower contraction cycle.
Q5) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the layers,in order,that a bullet will go through if entered through the anterior abdominal wall.
Q2) Name the three groups of muscles constituting the intrinsic muscles of the hand.Briefly describe the structure and function of each of these groups.
Q3) Which of the following is a muscle that flexes the little toe at the metatarsophalangeal joint?
A)tibialis anterior
B)adductor hallucis
C)flexor digiti minimi brevis
D)flexor digitorum brevis
E)flexor hallucis brevis
Q4) A muscle that raises or elevates a body part is called a A)pronator.
B)tensor.
C)flexor.
D)depressor.
E)levator.
Q5) Name and describe the locations and actions of the muscles typically used in breathing.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered a small molecule neurotransmitter?
A)Acetylcholine
B)Biogenic amines
C)Purines
D)Endorphins
E)Serotonin
Q2) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q3) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into
A)somatic and sympathetic divisions.
B)somatic and parasympathetic divisions.
C)enteric and somatic divisions.
D)sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
E)voluntary and involuntary divisions.
Q4) Which of the following types of neurons is the most common type of neuron found in the brain and spinal cord?
A)bipolar neuron
B)multipolar neuron
C)unipolar neuron
D)nonpolar neuron
E)pseudounipolar
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal cord does not extend the entire length of the vertebral column in an adult.Why?
Q2) A reflex pathway having only one synapse in the CNS is called a
A)visceral reflex arc.
B)somatic reflex arc.
C)polysynaptic reflex arc.
D)autonomic reflex arc.
E)none of these choices
Q3) A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body?
A)Cervical
B)Thoracic
C)Lumbar
D)Thigh
E)Arms
Q4) Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons,fascicles,and entire nerve in the correct order?
A)endoneurium,perineurium,epineurium
B)endoneurium,epineurium,perineurium
C)perineurium,epineurium,endoneurium
D)epineurium,endoneurium,perineurium
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for vision?
A)Broca's area
B)Primary visual area
C)Common integrative area
D)Primary olfactory area
E)Primary somatosensory area
Q2) Which of the following types of tracts are used to conduct nerve impulses between gyri within the same cerebral hemisphere?
A)Association tracts
B)Commissural tracts
C)Projection tracts
D)Mammillothalamic tracts
E)Stria medullaris
Q3) During brain development,the gyri of the cerebrum are formed because
A)the white matter enlarges faster than the overlying gray matter.
B)the cerebrum grows faster than the dura mater.
C)the hypothalamus is larger than the epithalamus.
D)the gray matter grows faster than the underlying white matter.
E)the lobes of the cerebrum are not symmetrical.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Q2) Describe the potential roles that autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine perform in the ANS.Be sure to describe the types of postsynaptic effector cells including their receptors that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine release from autonomic neurons.
Q3) Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to inherited mutation,injury or disease?
A)Raynaud's phenomenon
B)Autonomic dysreflexia
C)Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
D)Diabetic neuropathy
E)Horner's Syndrome
Q4) Which endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons?
A)Pituitary gland
B)Hypothalamus
C)Pancreas
D)Adrenal gland
E)Thyroid gland
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following type of neurons have their cell bodies in the spinal cord or brain stem and their axons terminating in neuromuscular junctions?
A)upper motor neurons
B)lower motor neurons
C)somatic sensory neurons
D)preganglionic autonomic neurons
E)postganglionic autonomic neurons
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in falling asleep and staying asleep?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
Q3) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
Q4) What is phantom limb sensation and describe why the patient experiences these sensations?
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection of a sebaceous ciliary gland can result in
A)blood shot eyes.
B)inhibition of tear production.
C)a sty.
D)glaucoma.
E)blindness.
Q2) Which of the following nerves conducts impulses associated with the sense of gustation?
A)Vestibulocochlear
B)Oculomotor
C)Vagus
D)Trigeminal
E)Spinal accessory
Q3) List and briefly describe the three processes that are used by the eye to form a clear image of object on the retina.
Q4) Deafness can occur for many reasons.Use your knowledge of the structure of the ear and the process of detecting sound,to propose a mechanism for how arthritis could cause deafness.
Q5) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone,it is called a(n)
A)synergistic effect.
B)permissive effect.
C)antagonistic effect.
D)circulating effect.
E)local effect.
Q2) Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T and T ?
A)Iodide trapping
B)Oxidation of iodide
C)Coupling of T and T
D)Synthesis of calcitonin
E)Iodination of tyrosine
Q3) Enuresis,or bedwetting,may be caused by psychological,anatomical or physiological factors.In the latter case,vasopressin is often prescribed and is a very effective treatment.What is vasopressin? How can it prevent enuresis?
Q4) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in the regulation of hormone release from the pituitary gland.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are identical after formation of A)thromboplastin.
B)prothrombinase.
C)clotting factor XII.
D)fibrin.
E)tissue factor.
Q2) Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure.
Q3) Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow?
A)erythropoietin (EPO)
B)thrombopoietin (TPO)
C)human growth hormone (hGH)
D)calcitonin (CT)
E)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
Q5) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.
Q6) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series.
Q2) During which of following periods does the largest volume of blood enter the arteries?
A)atrial diastole
B)ventricular diastole
C)atrial systole
D)ventricular systole
Q3) In comparison to skeletal muscle fibers,the contractile fibers of the heart are depolarized for ____ period of time.
A)a shorter
B)a longer
C)the same
Q4) Contraction of the atria of the heart leads to blood moving directly
A)into auricles.
B)into arteries.
C)into veins
D)through atrioventricular valves
E)through semilunar valves.
Q5) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following blood vessels carries blood from the tissues back to the heart?
A)arteries
B)arterioles
C)aorta
D)veins
E)capillaries
Q2) Which of the following types of blood vessels have high pulsing blood pressure?
A)arterioles
B)capillaries
C)venules
D)veins
E)vena cavae
Q3) The cardiovascular center is located
A)in the thoracic cavity.
B)in the cerebral cortex.
C)in the cerebellum.
D)in the medulla oblongata.
E)in the hypothalamus.
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of antibodies indicates a recent invasion?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgM
D)IgD
E)IgG
Q2) In which part of the thymus are T cells thought to die?
A)Capsule
B)Trabeculae
C)Epithelial cells
D)Hassall's corpuscles
E)T cells do not die in the thymus
Q3) The ability of an antigen to react specifically with the antibodies or cells it has provoked is called
A)Specificity
B)Immunogenicity
C)Reactivity
D)Epitopes
E)Immune Response
Q4) Describe the barriers used in innate defense.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q2) This portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the intestines.
A)Greater omentum
B)Falciform ligament
C)Lesser omentum
D)Mesentery
E)Mesocolon
Q3) This hormone is stimulated by high levels of dietary fat in the small intestine.
A)Pepsin
B)Secretin
C)Gastrin
D)Cholecystokinin
E)Amylase
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
Q2) Reduction is the
A)The removal of protons
B)The removal of electrons
C)The addition of protons
D)The addition of electrons
E)None of these choices
Q3) Excess amino acids in the body are
A)Excreted in urine
B)Excreted in feces
C)Converted into glucose
D)Stored as ATP
E)Converted into proteins
Q4) Which of the following is not a major nutrient the body needs?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Glycogen
C)Proteins
D)Minerals
E)Vitamins
Q5) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in regulation of food intake.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) This occurs when a substance passes from the fluid in the tubular lumen through the apical membrane,across the cytosol,and then into the interstitial fluid.
A)paracellular reabsoprtion
B)transcellular reabsoprtion
C)apical reasborption
D)basolateral reabsorption
E)active transport
Q2) An increase in permeability of the filtration membrane due to disease,injury,or irritation of kidney cells by substances such as bacterial toxins,ether,or heavy metals indicates which condition?
A)albuminuria
B)lucosuria
C)robilinogenuria
D)ketonuria
E)bilirubinuria
Q3) Parasympathetic division of ANS regulates kidney functions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the flow of blood through the kidneys.
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the site of fertilization.
A)Ureters
B)Urethra
C)Uterine tubes
D)Ovaries
E)Vagina
Q2) Zygote is
A)the same as an ovum
B)another name for secondary oocyte
C)a diploid fertilized ovum
D)the same as polar body
E)the Graffian follicle
Q3) This is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens.
A)Urethra
B)Spermatic cord
C)Inguinal canal
D)Ejaculatory duct
E)Prostate
Q4) Describe the functions of testosterone.
28
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition listed is also called morning sickness?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q2) This is the part of the blastocyst that promotes implantation and produces hCG.
A)Blastocyte
B)Blastosphere
C)Trophoblast
D)Blastocyst cavity
E)Uterine cavity
Q3) Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy,caused by the presence of a single X chromosome designated XO?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q4) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
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