
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the biological and physiological principles underpinning human health and disease, integrating knowledge from fields such as anatomy, biochemistry, genetics, pharmacology, and physiology. This course provides a comprehensive understanding of how the human body functions at molecular, cellular, and systemic levels, emphasizing the mechanisms of disease, diagnostic techniques, and emerging biomedical technologies. Students gain skills in laboratory methods and critical analysis, preparing them for careers or advanced study in healthcare, research, and related biomedical fields.
Recommended Textbook
Cellular and Molecular Immunology 8th Edition by Abul K. Abbas
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20 Chapters
214 Verified Questions
214 Flashcards
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Page 2
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about MHC-TCR interactions is NOT true?
A) Antigen receptors on T cells bind to MHC molecules for only brief periods of time.
B) The affinity of most TCRs for peptide-MHC complexes is similar to the affinity of antibodies for their antigens.
C) Only 1% or less of the MHC molecules on any antigen-presenting cell (APC) display a peptide recognized by a particular T cell.
D) T cells usually require multiple engagements with an APC before a threshold of activation is reached.
E) A subthreshold number of MHC-TCR interactions can lead to T cell inactivation.
Answer: B
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Q1) The isotype only found in membrane-bound form on naive B cells
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Answer: B
Q2) A proteolytic fragment of an antibody molecule that contains an intact antigen-binding site
A)Conformational determinant
B)Linear determinant
C)Neoantigenic determinant
D)Hinge region
E)Immunocomplex
F)Fab
G)Fc
H)Tail piece
I)Hapten
Answer: F
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Q1) A helper T cell response to a protein antigen requires the participation of antigen-presenting cells that express which of the following types of molecules?
A) Class II MHC and costimulators
B) Class I MHC and CD4
C) Class II MHC and CD8
D) CD4 and costimulators
E) Class II MHC and CD4
Answer: A
Q2) Site of peptide loading of class I MHC molecules
A)T cell receptor on CD4 T cells
B)Endosomes
C)Endoplasmic reticulum
D)MHC class II compartment/class II vesicle (MIIC/CIIV)
E)Class II-associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP)
F)LMP-2 and LMP-7
G)Acidic proteases
H)T cell receptor on CD8 T cells
I)HLA-DM
Answer: C
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Q1) CTLA-4
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q2) Variable Ig domain
Q3) E-selectin
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q4) Immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM)
Q5) Complementarity-determining regions
Q6) z protein
Q7) Antigen-binding region
Q8) Constant Ig domain
Q9) CD3 protein Page 6
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Q1) A protein that is the cell surface receptor for Epstein-Barr virus
A)Ig
B)Ig
C)C3b
D)C3d
E)CR2
F)CD19
G)CD81
H)Fyn
I)Syk
Q2) An allergy attack
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
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Q1) This product of TH2 cells promotes immunity to helminthic infections.
A)Interferon-
B)Interleukin (IL)-10
C)IL-12
D)CD40L
E)CD40
F)STAT6
G)STAT4
H)IL-5
Q2) This membrane molecule is expressed on the surface of activated TH1 cells and promotes macrophage activation.
A)Interferon-
B)Interleukin (IL)-10
C)IL-12
D)CD40L
E)CD40
F)STAT6
G)STAT4
H)IL-5
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Q1) Superoxide anion, hydroxyl radical, or hydrogen peroxide, produced by activated phagocytes
A)Defensin
B)Opsonin
C)Natural antibody
D)Adjuvant
E)Complement
F)Inflammation
G)C-reactive protein
H)Mannose-binding lectin
I)Reactive oxygen intermediate
J)Inducible nitric oxide synthase
Q2) Toll-like receptors and other receptors are potent activators of various components of the innate immune system. All of the following proteins are expressed in response to signaling by these receptors EXCEPT:
A) Interleukin-12
B) E-selectin
C) Tumor necrosis factor
D) Inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS)
E) CD28
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Q1) Defect in leukocyte adhesion-dependent functions, resulting from mutations in the gene encoding the CD18 integrin chain, and leading to recurrent bacterial and fungal infections
A)X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B)X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
C)X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
D)Bare lymphocyte syndrome
E)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
F)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-1 (LAD-1)
G)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-2 (LAD-2)
Q2) A generalized deficiency in the ability to mount delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) responses, as described in question 3, is called:
A) Clinical atopy
B) Clonal ignorance
C) Clinical anergy
D) Clonal deletion
E) Seroconversion
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Q1) Expressed on osteoclasts, this receptor is important in remodeling bone.
A)TNF-RI
B)CD40
C)Fas ligand
D)RANK
E)Lymphotoxin
Q2) Mediates neutrophil recruitment into tissues
A)CXCL8 (IL-8)
B)CXCL10 (IP-10)
C)CCL19 (ELC)
D)CCL11 (Eotaxin)
E)CCR5
F)CXCR1
G)CX3CL1 (Fractalkine)
Q3) Stimulates growth and activation of eosinophils
A)Interferon-g
B)Interleukin (IL)-4
C)IL-5
D)Transforming growth factor-b
E)Lymphotoxin
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Hypersensitivity and Autoimmunity
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Q1) In which of the following disorders is the underlying pathogenic mechanism NOT due to antibody-mediated damage to cells or tissues?
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Pemphigus vulgaris
D) Acute rheumatic fever
E) Hyperacute allograft rejection
Q2) Which of the following is NOT associated with increased relative risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus?
A) Female gender
B) Deficiency in complement protein C2
C) African-American ethnicity
D) Presence of HLA-DR3
E) Defect in B cell maturation
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Q1) Which of the following cell types is required for all humoral immune responses?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Dendritic cells
C) Cytolytic T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
E) Helper T lymphocytes
Q2) Which of the following infectious diseases was prevented by the first successful vaccination?
A) Polio
B) Tuberculosis
C) Smallpox
D) Tetanus
E) Rubella
Q3) The principal function of the immune system is:
A) Defense against cancer
B) Repair of injured tissues
C) Defense against microbial infections
D) Prevention of inflammatory diseases
E) Protection against environmental toxins
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Q1) Inbred mouse strain MHC haplotype
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q2) Human class I MHC allele
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q3) Peptide-binding groove
Q4) 2-Microglobulin
Q5) Polymorphic region
Q6) CD8-binding site
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Q1) This complement fragment is a chemoattractant for neutrophils.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q2) Produced by C3 convertases, this opsonin promotes phagocytosis of microbes.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q3) Generated by factor I-mediated proteolysis, this opsonizing complement fragment binds to CR3 on phagocytes.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
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Q1) All of the following are key mediators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions EXCEPT:
A) Mast cells
B) Basophils
C) IgE
D) Macrophages
E) TH2 cells
Q2) Immediate hypersensitivity differs from delayed-type hypersensitivity in which one of the following ways?
A) Immediate hypersensitivity is a CD4<sup>+</sup> T cell-mediated disease.
B) Immediate hypersensitivity does not require previous exposure to an antigen.
C) Immediate hypersensitivity does not involve inflammation.
D) Immediate hypersensitivity is driven by cytokines such as interleukin (IL)-4, IL-5, and IL-13.
E) Immediate hypersensitivity typically leads to granuloma formation.
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Q1) Location of Langerhans cells
A)Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
B)Thymic medulla
C)Thymic cortex
D)Parafollicular cortex of lymph node
E)Hematopoietic bone marrow
F)Afferent lymphatic
G)Efferent lymphatic
H)Marginal zone
I)Red pulp of spleen
J)White pulp of spleen
K)Epidermis
L)Dermis
M)Peyer's patch
Q2) Which of the following is the generative lymphoid organ for T lymphocytes?
A) Bone marrow
B) Spleen
C) Lymph node
D) Thymus
E) Tonsil
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Q1) Tolerance-sensitive stage of T cell maturation
A)Immature (IgM<sup>+</sup>IgD<sup>-</sup>)
B)Thymic cortex
C)Bone marrow
D)Antigen recognition without T cell help
E)Receptor editing
F)Activation-induced cell death
G)Regulatory T cell-mediated suppression
H)Antigen recognition with costimulation
I)Double positive (CD4<sup>+</sup>CD8<sup>+</sup>)
J)Anergy
K)Thymic medulla
Q2) Failure of self-tolerance is the cause of which one of the following types of diseases?
A) Allograft rejection
B) Autoimmunity
C) Atopy
D) Anergy
E) Acne
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Q1) Encodes the isotype of antibodies made by naive B cells
Q2) Homologous segments of this type of gene segment that encode part of the third complementarity determining region (CDR3) of Ig heavy chains and TCR b chains but not Ig light chains or TCR a chains
Q3) A segment that encodes Ig-like domains that form part of the antigen-binding region of an Ig molecule
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a required step in B and T lymphocyte maturation?
A) Proliferative expansion of precursor cells
B) Cell surface expression of complete antigen receptor complexes
C) Positive selection
D) Activation of precursors by foreign antigens
E) Pre-antigen receptor expression
Q5) A type of gene segment involved in somatic recombination events in Ig heavy chain and light chain as well as TCR a and b chain gene loci
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Q1) A common strategy by which microbes survive their host's immune responses involves changing the structures of the molecules they produce so that they are no longer recognized by the host's immune system. This strategy, called antigenic variation, is most likely to allow evasion of which type of immune recognition?
A) Toll-like receptor-dependent recognition of microbes by cells of the innate immune system
B) Mannose receptor-dependent recognition of microbes by cells of the innate immune system
C) Antibody recognition of microbial cell surface molecules
D) Natural killer cell inhibitory receptor recognition of class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on infected cells
E) T cell receptor recognition of microbial cell wall lipid antigens
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Q1) Inhibits a lymphocyte-specific isoform of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme that is required for the synthesis of guanine nucleotides
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Mycophenolate mofetil
D)Rapamycin
E)Anti-CD40L antibody
F)Anti-IL-2R antibody
G)CTLA4-Ig
H)OKT3
I)Corticosteroids
Q2) Formed by a glycosyltransferase enzyme that adds a terminal galactose residue to the H antigen
A)A
B)B
C)O
D)RhD
E)Lewis
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Q1) Therapy that targets an antigen that is not essential to the malignant phenotype of the tumor; antigen-loss variants can emerge during therapy
A)Killed tumor vaccine
B)DNA vaccines
C)Interleukin (IL)-2
D)IL-4
E)GM-CSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)
F)Anti-CD3 antibodies
G)Lymphokine-activated killer cells
H)Anti-Her2/neu antibodies
I)Anti-idiotypic antibodies
J)Dendritic cell vaccine
Q2) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
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