Biomedical Sciences
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underlying health, disease, and medical treatment. This course examines the molecular and cellular bases of life, human anatomy and physiology, microbiology, immunology, genetics, and biochemistry, emphasizing how these sciences inform the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of illness. Students develop a strong scientific foundation through laboratory work, critical analysis, and the application of research methods, preparing them for careers in healthcare, research, pharmaceuticals, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology 3rd Edition by George M. Brenner
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45 Chapters
150 Verified Questions
150 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/936
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is administered a drug in the form of a tablet formulated with an osmotic substance that slowly attracts water.Which characteristic is associated with this preparation?
A) used to treat constipation
B) enables almost 100% bioavailability
C) poses more risks than intramuscular administration
D) causes a localized effect on the colon
E) provides sustained drug absorption over many hours
Answer: E
Q2) Which endeavor is most important for determining the dose-response relationship of a drug?
A) isolation of a pure drug compound
B) measurement of the plasma concentration of a drug over time
C) clinical trials to determine drug efficacy
D) study of the structure-activity relationship of a drug
E) development of a sustained-release formulation of a drug
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with peptic ulcer disease is found to require larger than usual doses of omeprazole to cure her peptic ulcer.Which drug metabolism phenotype is most likely present in this patient?
A) CYP2D6 poor metabolizer phenotype
B) CYP2D6 extensive metabolizer phenotype
C) CYP2C19 poor metabolizer phenotype
D) CYP2C19 extensive metabolizer phenotype
E) rapid acetylation phenotype
Answer: D
Q2) A patient with renal disease exhibits zero-order elimination of a drug she is taking.Which description of the drug's elimination half-life is correct?
A) directly proportional to the drug's clearance
B) inversely proportional to the drug's volume of distribution
C) directly proportional to the plasma drug concentration
D) inversely proportional to the dose administered
E) varies with the route of drug administration
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what way is the log-concentration effect (dose response)curve of an agonist drug modified in the presence of a competitive receptor antagonist?
A) shifted to the right without a change in slope or maximum effect
B) shifted to the left without a change in slope or maximum effect
C) shifted to the right with a decreased slope and maximum effect
D) shifted to the left with a decreased slope and maximum effect
E) not shifted right or left but shows a decreased maximum effect
Answer: A
Q2) A patient exhibits a rapid loss of responsiveness to a drug during the first several hours of drug administration.Which event is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) up-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
B) down-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
C) internalization of cell membrane receptors
D) formation of receptor antibodies
E) phosphorylation of G protein-coupled receptors
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Drug Development and Safety
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4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Food and Drug Administration removed a drug product from the market because it contained a toxic contaminant.Which term is used to describe this type of product in the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act?
A) misbranded
B) mislabeled
C) adulterated
D) off-label
E) teratogenic
Q2) If a generic version of a drug is approved for marketing on the basis of a study comparing the oral bioavailability of the generic and brand name product, which term is associated with the review of this product by the Food and Drug Administration?
A) Harris-Kefauver amendment
B) accelerated drug approval
C) orphan drug amendment
D) abbreviated new drug application
E) investigational new drug
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6
Chapter 5: Introduction to Autonomic and Neuromuscular Pharmacology
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2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter causes vasodilation when released by the enteric nervous system?
A) norepinephrine
B) nitric oxide
C) endothelin
D) neuropeptide Y
E) substance P
Q2) A child experiences abdominal spasms after a black widow spider bite.Which activity is affected by the toxin contained in its venom?
A) choline reuptake
B) choline acetylation
C) exocytosis
D) cholinesterase
E) receptor activation
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Chapter 6: Acetylcholine Receptor Agonists
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which adverse effect may result from administration of bethanechol?
A) dry mouth
B) urinary retention
C) pupil dilation
D) tachycardia
E) diarrhea
Q2) Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of sildenafil?
A) inhibition of acetylcholine degradation
B) activation of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
C) inhibition of cyclic GMP degradation
D) stimulation of nitric oxide synthesis
E) stimulation of potassium efflux
Q3) A patient with open-angle glaucoma receives a drug that activates muscarinic receptors in the eye.Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) contraction of ciliary muscle
B) relaxation of ciliary muscle
C) contraction of iris sphincter muscle
D) relaxation of iris sphincter muscle
E) stimulation of lacrimal gland secretion
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Chapter 7: Acetylcholine Receptor Antagonists
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Succinylcholine is avoided in persons with skeletal muscle injuries because of the drug's tendency to cause which effect?
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypocalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) metabolic acidosis
E) prolonged apnea
Q2) For which purpose is glycopyrrolate administered during surgery?
A) reversing the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents
B) increasing blood pressure
C) decreasing respiratory secretions
D) causing bronchodilation
E) potentiating general anesthetics
Q3) Cisatracurium is preferred in patients with renal or hepatic impairment because of which property?
A) a short duration of action
B) undergoes spontaneous chemical degradation
C) metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
D) rapidly inactivated by sugammadex
E) effects easily reversed by edrophonium
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Chapter 8: Adrenoceptor Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure is given an intravenous dobutamine infusion to reduce impedance to left ventricular ejection.Which receptors mediate this effect of dobutamine?
A) dopamine D receptors
B) -adrenoceptors
C) -adrenoceptors
D) -adrenoceptors
E) -adrenoceptors
Q2) A patient in the intensive care unit is given dexmedetomidine.Which therapeutic outcome may result from this medication?
A) vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure
B) analgesia and sedation
C) increased cardiac output
D) muscle relaxation
E) bronchodilation
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10
Chapter 9: Adrenoceptor Antagonists
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2 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man is placed on doxazosin for hypertension.Which adverse effect is most likely to result from taking this drug?
A) postural hypotension
B) rebound hypertension
C) hypokalemia
D) urinary retention
E) bradycardia
Q2) Which pharmacologic effect is produced by topical ocular administration of timolol?
A) miosis
B) mydriasis
C) contraction of the ciliary muscles
D) decreased aqueous humor secretion
E) conjunctival vasoconstriction
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11
Chapter 10: Antihypertensive Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antihypertensive drug is most likely to reduce vascular injury by inhibiting activation of growth factors that cause smooth muscle proliferation and hypertrophy?
A) clonidine
B) terazosin
C) atenolol
D) candesartan
E) nifedipine
Q2) A patient with a hypertensive emergency is given an intravenous infusion of a drug that dilates renal afferent and efferent arterioles and is rapidly metabolized with a half-life of 5 minutes.Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) activation of dopamine D receptors
B) activation of dopamine D receptors
C) blockade of -adrenoceptors
D) activation of -adrenoceptors
E) blockade of - and -adrenoceptors
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12
Chapter 11: Antianginal Drugs
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3 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug reduces heart rate and increases coronary blood flow?
A) isosorbide mononitrate
B) atenolol
C) verapamil
D) ranolazine
E) felodipine
Q2) A patient is given a drug that decreases anginal episodes without reducing heart rate or blood pressure.Which mechanism is responsible for the beneficial effects of this drug?
A) increased utilization of glucose by the heart
B) improved cardiac diastolic function
C) inhibition of fatty acid oxidation in the heart
D) increased sodium influx into myocytes
E) increased calcium influx into myocytes
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Chapter 12: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with decompensated heart failure is given an intravenous infusion of a peptide drug.Which effect is produced by this treatment?
A) decreased synthesis of angiotensin II
B) blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C) increased levels of cyclic AMP
D) increased levels of cyclic GMP
E) increased influx of calcium
Q2) The beneficial effects of carvedilol in persons with heart failure are obtained with the use of which drug administration regimen?
A) intravenous infusion for 3 to 7 days
B) low doses that are gradually increased over time
C) loading doses followed by maintenance doses
D) high doses that are gradually tapered over time
E) titration to obtain the desired increase in cardiac output
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14
Chapter 13: Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diuretic acts to increase the renal excretion of weakly acidic drugs?
A) spironolactone
B) amiloride
C) acetazolamide
D) furosemide
E) mannitol
Q2) A patient is given a drug that prevents insertion of aquaporin channels in the apical membranes of the renal collecting ducts.Which disorder is most likely being treated with this drug?
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypercalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) hypokalemia
E) hyponatremia
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Chapter 14: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Esmolol can be rapidly titrated to obtain the desired effect in persons with atrial tachycardia because of which drug property?
A) spontaneous decomposition
B) eliminated by the lungs
C) rapid renal excretion
D) inactivated by plasma esterase
E) sequestered by reticuloendothelial cells
Q2) Which drug slows atrioventricular conduction and increases atrioventricular refractory period and is used to control ventricular rate in persons with atrial fibrillation?
A) sotalol
B) ibutilide
C) diltiazem
D) disopyramide
E) adenosine
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16
Chapter 15: Drugs for Hyperlipidemia
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4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what level of serum LDL-cholesterol do persons with symptomatic coronary artery disease benefit from drug therapy to lower these levels?
A) >175 mg/dL
B) >150 mg/dL
C) >100 mg/dL
D) >70 mg/dL
E) They benefit regardless of level.
Q2) In addition to their beneficial effect on serum LDL-cholesterol levels, atorvastatin and related drugs may reduce coronary heart disease by which mechanism?
A) reducing cholesterol absorption
B) improving vascular endothelial function
C) stimulating lipoprotein lipase
D) increasing lipolysis
E) decreasing appetite
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anticoagulant consists of a synthetic antithrombin III-binding pentasaccharide?
A) fondaparinux
B) bivalirudin
C) warfarin
D) heparin
E) enoxaparin
Q2) Which coagulation factor is inactivated following administration of lepirudin?
A) tissue thromboplastin
B) fibrinogen
C) prothrombin
D) active factor X
E) thrombin
Q3) A patient receives a cyclic peptide derived from rattlesnake venom.Which step leading to platelet aggregation is inhibited by this agent?
A) glycoprotein IIb/IIIa expression
B) ADP binding
C) fibrinogen binding
D) cyclic AMP formation
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine synthesis
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Chapter 17: Hematopoietic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using larger doses of recombinant erythropoietin (e.g., epoetin)to achieve hemoglobin levels >12 g/dL is associated with an increased risk of which type of disease?
A) cardiovascular disease
B) renal disease
C) hepatic disease
D) hematologic disease
E) pulmonary disease
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is used to describe the effect of a drug that reduces the activity of an inhibitory neuronal system?
A) co-antagonist
B) disinhibition
C) up-regulation
D) delirium
E) metabotropic
Q2) Which attribute is most correctly associated with substances known as neuromodulators?
A) produced in the brain but exert effects on other organs
B) affect the activity of only one or a few neurons
C) inhibit the synthesis or degradation of neurotransmitters
D) influence the activity of a large number of neurons
E) modulate the activity of non-neuronal cells in the central nervous system
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Chapter 19: Sedative-Hypnotic and Anxiolytic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which attribute is correctly associated with ramelteon?
A) produces considerable daytime sedation
B) may cause rebound insomnia when discontinued
C) has a high abuse potential
D) binds melatonin receptors
E) is a Schedule IV controlled substance
Q2) Because of its ability to induce -aminolevulinate synthase, phenobarbital should not be taken in persons with which disorder?
A) porphyria
B) homocystinuria
C) pernicious anemia
D) hemophilia
E) hepatitis
Q3) For which reason is lorazepam is one of the safer benzodiazepines for elderly patients?
A) It is excreted unchanged in the urine.
B) It does not cause anterograde amnesia.
C) It is not associated with drug dependence.
D) It is metabolized by glucuronide formation.
E) It has special utility in treating panic disorder.
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Chapter 20: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pair of drugs produces antiepileptic effects by blocking T-type calcium channels in neuronal membranes?
A) topiramate and vigabatrin
B) gabapentin and pregabalin
C) zonisamide and carbamazepine
D) lamotrigine and topiramate
E) ethosuximide and valproate
Q2) A child whose seizures have been controlled with valproate experiences breakthrough seizures and lamotrigine is being added to the regimen.Which adverse effect is more common in children receiving both drugs?
A) aplastic anemia
B) hepatitis
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) megaloblastic anemia
E) gingival hyperplasia
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22
Chapter 21: Local and General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of prilocaine is limited to topical and infiltration anesthesia because the drug's metabolite may cause which adverse effect?
A) cardiac arrhythmias
B) hepatitis
C) renal impairment
D) myopathy
E) methemoglobinemia
Q2) Which attribute best describes sevoflurane?
A) causes little cardiovascular and respiratory depression
B) more irritating to the respiratory tract than other drugs
C) slower rate of induction than other inhalational agents
D) more potent than other halogenated inhalational anesthetics
E) increases systemic vascular resistance more than other drugs
Q3) Which advantage is associated with etomidate compared to other parenteral anesthetics?
A) produces muscle relaxation
B) causes a high degree of analgesia
C) less likely to cause hypotension
D) has a longer duration of action
E) causes dissociative anesthesia
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Chapter 22: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The efficacy of atomoxetine in persons with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is due to which mechanism?
A) inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake
B) stimulation of norepinephrine synthesis
C) blockade of adrenoceptors
D) activation of adrenoceptors
E) increased release of norepinephrine
Q2) A woman is placed on an antidepressant that increases neuronal release of norepinephrine.Which mechanism is responsible for this effect?
A) activation of -adrenoceptors
B) blockade of -adrenoceptors
C) activation of serotonin 5-HT receptors
D) blockade of serotonin 5-HT receptors
E) blockade of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
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24
Chapter 23: Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) The analgesic effect of tramadol is partly attributed to which action?
A) inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B) activation of descending inhibitory pathways
C) activation of -adrenoceptors in the spinal cord
D) depletion of substance P from afferent neurons
E) partial agonist activity at kappa opioid receptors
Q2) Which adverse effect may result from administration of buprenorphine to a man who is illicitly taking oxycodone?
A) hypertensive crisis
B) cardiac arrest
C) opioid withdrawal reaction
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) apnea due to depression of respiratory centers
Q3) Chronic administration of meperidine should be avoided for which reason?
A) greater risk of drug dependence than with other opioids
B) auto-induction of drug metabolism enzymes
C) development of pharmacodynamic drug tolerance
D) increased suicidal ideations
E) accumulation of a toxic metabolite
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Neurodegenerative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Memantine is believed to benefit persons with Alzheimer's disease because of its ability to exert which action?
A) inhibit neurotransmitter degradation
B) increase neurotransmitter degradation
C) block neurotransmitter receptors
D) activate neurotransmitter receptors
E) block neurotransmitter reuptake
Q2) Which agent is useful in persons with multiple sclerosis because it serves as a decoy for myelin-damaging T cells?
A) mitoxantrone
B) natalizumab
C) interferon beta-1b
D) glatiramer
E) prednisone
Q3) Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effects of entacapone?
A) inhibition of monoamine oxidase-type B
B) stimulation of levodopa decarboxylation
C) decreased formation of 3-O-methyldopa
D) increased uptake of dopamine into the brain
E) increased release of dopamine from neurons
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Chapter 25: Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neuronal effects of -tetrahydrocannabinol are believed to result from activation of receptors that are coupled with which cellular effect?
A) sodium channel activation
B) calcium channel activation
C) inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
D) inhibition of guanylyl cyclase
E) synthesis of inositol triphosphate
Q2) Which mechanism is responsible for the efficacy of fomepizole in treating ethylene glycol poisoning?
A) inactivation
B) inhibition of toxic metabolite formation
C) enhanced excretion
D) accelerated degradation to inactive compounds
E) competitive antagonism of ethylene glycol
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Chapter 26: Autacoid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman complains of sedation after taking a second-generation antihistamine in the morning.Which drug is most likely responsible for this side effect?
A) fexofenadine
B) desloratadine
C) loratadine
D) cetirizine
E) astemizole
Q2) Which autacoid is associated with the production of inflammation, edema,Pruritus,and cough?
A) serotonin
B) prostaglandin E1
C) endothelin
D) leukotriene B4
E) histamine
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28
Chapter 27: Drugs for Respiratory Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which mechanism does tiotropium improve respiratory function in patients with emphysema?
A) increasing levels of cyclic AMP in smooth muscle
B) inhibiting vagally mediated bronchoconstriction
C) improving diaphragmatic function and ventilation
D) stimulation of brainstem respiratory centers
E) improving mucociliary clearance
Q2) Which drug would be most effective in cases of severe asthma involving the formation of leukotriene B ?
A) montelukast
B) zafirlukast
C) zileuton
D) cromolyn sodium
E) lodoxamide
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Chapter 28: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event is involved in the inhibition of gastric acid secretion by pantoprazole?
A) blockade of histamine H receptors
B) competitive inhibition of H , K -ATPase
C) formation of an active drug metabolite
D) metabolism by cytochrome P450 2C19
E) stimulation of prostaglandin synthesis
Q2) Blockade of which receptors is responsible for the antiemetic effect of aprepitant?
A) histamine H
B) serotonin 5-HT
C) muscarinic acetylcholine M
D) dopamine D
E) neurokinin NK
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Chapter 29: Drugs for Headache Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-month drug-free interval every 6 months is required for patients taking methysergide in order to prevent which adverse effect?
A) heart valve fibrosis
B) intermittent claudication
C) pulmonary hypertension
D) cardiac ischemia
E) serotonin syndrome
Q2) Which agent might be used for termination of migraine headache in a woman with coronary artery disease?
A) sumatriptan
B) tramadol
C) valproate
D) dihydroergotamine
E) propranolol
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Pain, Inflammation, and Arthritic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administration of allopurinol produces which effect on serum and urinary levels of uric acid in a patient with gout?
A) increased serum and urinary levels
B) increased serum and decreased urinary levels
C) decreased serum levels and no change in urinary levels
D) decreased serum and urinary levels
E) decreased serum and increased urinary levels
Q2) Abatacept exerts its antirheumatic effects by binding to which molecular target?
A) interleukin-1 type I receptor
B) tumor necrosis factor-
C) cell surface proteins of T lymphocytes
D) immunoglobulin G rheumatoid factor
E) interleukin-2 transcription factors
Q3) Leflunomide prevents leukocyte proliferation by inhibiting which step in this process?
A) formation of active folate
B) pyrimidine biosynthesis
C) purine biosynthesis
D) ribonucleotide reductase
E) DNA polymerase
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Hypothalamic and Pituitary Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Desmopressin is often preferred for treating diabetes insipidus for which reason?
A) convenient once daily oral administration
B) relieves nocturnal enuresis in most patients
C) causes more vasoconstriction than vasopressin
D) It is a potent inhibitor of adenylyl cyclase.
E) selectively activates vasopressin V receptors
Q2) Which agent is most likely to cause an up-regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptors during long-term administration of the drug?
A) abarelix
B) gonadorelin
C) leuprolide
D) chorionic gonadotropin
E) nafarelin
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33
Chapter 32: Thyroid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which agent is preferred for controlling symptoms of hyperthyroidism prior to administration of radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) lithium carbonate
Q2) Which drug causes the most rapid decline in circulating thyroid hormones in persons with thyrotoxicosis?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)
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34
Chapter 33: Adrenal Steroids and Related Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug action prevents precocious sexual development in boys being treated for congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A) suppression of corticotropin secretion
B) activation of adrenal steroid receptors
C) stimulation of adrenal 11- -hydroxylase
D) stimulation of adrenal 21-hydroxylase
E) inhibition androgen pathway enzymes
Q2) A patient is treated with a drug that increases expression of genes encoding sodium channels and the sodium-potassium ATPase.Which effect will result from this action?
A) increased free water clearance
B) increased sodium excretion
C) increased potassium excretion
D) increased calcium excretion
E) increased aldosterone secretion
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35
Chapter 34: Drugs Affecting Fertility and Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postmenopausal woman is placed on a drug that inhibits aromatase. This treatment will decrease serum levels of which hormone?
A) androstenedione
B) estrone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone
D) progesterone
E) dehydroepiandrosterone
Q2) Administration of a progestin causes which effect on pulses of gonadotropin-releasing hormone secretion?
A) decreased amplitude of pulses
B) decreased frequency of pulses
C) increased frequency and amplitude of pulses
D) decreased frequency and amplitude of pulses
E) increased frequency and decreased amplitude of pulses
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Chapter 35: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before meals, a diabetic patient injects an insulin preparation with an onset of action of 10 to 20 minutes.Which preparation is being used?
A) insulin detemir
B) regular insulin
C) insulin glargine
D) insulin aspart
E) NPH insulin
Q2) In patients with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin administration will correct which imbalances?
A) hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia
B) hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
C) hyperglycemia and acidosis
D) acidosis and hyperkalemia
E) hypokalemia and alkalosis
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Chapter 36: Drugs Affecting Calcium and Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strontium may have role in preventing osteoporosis because of its ability to produce which effect?
A) increased calcium absorption
B) decreased calcium excretion
C) increased formation of osteoblasts
D) increased parathyroid hormone secretion
E) decreased parathyroid hormone secretion
Q2) Patients who are taking both calcium and alendronate to prevent osteoporosis should be advised to take these drugs in which way?
A) separately on alternate days
B) separately at least 2 hours apart
C) separately with different meals
D) together at the same time each day
E) together at bedtime
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Chapter 37: Principles of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oseltamivir is used for prophylaxis of which infection during an outbreak of the disease?
A) influenza
B) tuberculosis
C) malaria
D) meningococcal meningitis
E) whooping cough
Q2) Which class of antibiotics is most often used for prophylaxis of surgical infections?
A) penicillins
B) aminoglycosides
C) tetracyclines
D) cephalosporins
E) fluoroquinolones
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Chapter 38: Inhibitors of Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis
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Q1) A woman is dispensed a single dose of a drug for a urinary tract infection.Which step in bacterial cell wall synthesis is inhibited by this drug?
A) transpeptidase
B) addition of phosphoenolpyruvate
C) formation of N-acetylglucosamine
D) incorporation of D-alanine residues
E) formation of pentaglycine bridge
Q2) After receiving a rapid intravenous infusion of an antibiotic, a man develops hypotension and an erythematous rash.Which drug is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) ceftriaxone
B) ertapenem
C) aztreonam
D) piperacillin
E) vancomycin
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Chapter 39: Inhibitors of Bacterial Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which agent is used topically to eradicate nasal colonization of methicillin-resistant staphylococci?
A) bacitracin
B) mupirocin
C) neomycin
D) polymyxin
E) tigecycline
Q2) A woman develops an allergic reaction after being treated for a superficial ocular infection.Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) polymyxin
B) azithromycin
C) neomycin
D) bacitracin
E) chloramphenicol
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Chapter 40: Quinolones, Antifolate Drugs, and Other
Antimicrobial Agents
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Q1) Ciprofloxacin should be taken 2 hours before or after taking nutritional supplements containing which ingredient?
A) folic acid
B) vitamin C
C) potassium
D) iron
E) vitamin D
Q2) Which antimicrobial agent prevents the formation of supercoils in circular bacterial DNA?
A) daptomycin
B) nitrofurantoin
C) polymyxin
D) trimethoprim
E) moxifloxacin
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Chapter 41: Antimycobacterial Drugs
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Q1) The efficacy of clofazimine is partly due to its ability to alter the activity of which type of cells?
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) epithelial cells
E) fibroblasts
Q2) Rifabutin is usually combined with which other drugs in the treatment of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infections?
A) isoniazid and ethambutol
B) ethambutol and clarithromycin
C) clarithromycin and dapsone
D) clofazimine and pyrazinamide
E) thalidomide and clofazimine
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving drug therapy for invasive candidiasis experiences abnormally colored vision and photophobia.Which other adverse reaction is associated with this drug?
A) hepatitis
B) electrolyte abnormalities
C) peripheral neuropathy
D) renal toxicity
E) QT prolongation
Q2) A patient is placed on a drug that inhibits synthesis of -(1,3)-D-glucan.Which infection is most likely being treated?
A) cryptococcal meningitis
B) tinea capitis
C) sporotrichosis
D) Candida krusei infection
E) Histoplasma capsulatum infection
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Chapter 43: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antiviral agent is active against viruses that cause several hemorrhagic fevers, such as Rift Valley fever virus?
A) ganciclovir
B) lamivudine
C) interferon alfa
D) foscarnet
E) ribavirin
Q2) A man receives a drug that binds cations essential for the catalytic activity of an enzyme required for HIV replication.Which step is blocked by this drug?
A) viral maturation and release
B) interaction of the viral enzyme and host cell DNA
C) insertion of glycoprotein 41 into host cell membranes
D) formation of a DNA copy of viral RNA
E) binding of glycoprotein 120 to CD4 antigen
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Chapter 44: Antiparasitic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acute phase of which disease may be shortened by administration of nifurtimox and interferon gamma?
A) visceral leishmaniasis
B) African sleeping sickness
C) onchocerciasis
D) cutaneous larva migrans
E) American trypanosomiasis
Q2) A patient is treated for a Schistosoma mansoni infection.Which mechanism is responsible for the drug's therapeutic effect?
A) increased chloride permeability
B) decreased chloride permeability
C) increased calcium permeability
D) decreased calcium permeability
E) decreased sodium permeability
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic and Immunomodulating Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug reduces the supply of 5,10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate and thereby prevents formation of deoxythymidine monophosphate?
A) mercaptopurine
B) cytarabine
C) fluorouracil
D) hydroxyurea
E) methotrexate
Q2) A man receives a monoclonal antibody for colorectal cancer.This agent binds to which target protein?
A) CD52 lymphocyte antigen
B) BCR-ABL oncoprotein
C) epidermal growth factor receptor
D) vascular endothelial growth factor
E) human epidermal growth factor-2 receptor
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