Biomedical Sciences
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that applies principles of biology, chemistry, physiology, and other sciences to understand the mechanisms of health and disease in the human body. This course explores foundational topics such as cell biology, genetics, anatomy, biochemistry, pathology, and microbiology, providing a comprehensive overview of how molecular and cellular processes relate to organ systems and overall human function. Students gain insight into diagnostic and therapeutic strategies, laboratory techniques, and emerging biomedical technologies, preparing them for advanced study or careers in healthcare, research, or medical industries.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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Chapter 1: Cells and Organisms
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Q1) All of the following are eukaryotes,except .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)fungi
Answer: B
Q2) Cells that do not have a nucleus are .
A)prokaryotes
B)eukaryotes
C)not alive
D)animal cells
Answer: A
Q3) Membrane bound structures involved in digestion are called .
A)mitochondria
B)nuclei
C)Golgi complexes
D)lysosomes
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gametes are and somatic cells are .
A)diploid;haploid
B)haploid;diploid
C)haploid;haploid
D)diploid;diploid
Answer: B
Q2) Which statement is false?
A)Individuals who are heterozygous for a defective gene are carriers of the defective allele.
B)Heterozygous individuals have the genetic disorder.
C)Heterozygotes have two different alleles for the same trait.
D)All of the above are false.
Answer: B
Q3) In the following genetic cross,Pp x Pp,what percentage of the offspring will have a recessive phenotype?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: DNA, RNA, and Protein
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Q1) Given the following sequence,which of the following is the complementary DNA strand?
5'-CCTAGAAACTG-3'
A)5'-CCTAGAAACTG-3'
B)5'-GGATCTTTGAC-5'
C)3'-GGATCTTTGAC-5'
D)3'-CAGTTTCTAGG-3'
Answer: C
Q2) During DNA base pairing,which of the following would be incorrectly paired?
A)guanine:cytosine
B)adenine:thymine
C)purine:purine
D)purine:pyrimindine
Answer: C
Q3) All of the following are pyrimidines except .
A)thymine
B)adenine
C)cytosine
D)uracil
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genes, genomes, and DNA
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Q1) Compared to the other answers listed,which is the least compacted structure?
A)DNA double helix
B)chromatid
C)30 nm fiber
D)nucleosome
Q2) A large amount of satellite DNA is found .
A)in euchromatin
B)around the centromeres of chromosomes
C)in loosely packed forms of chromatin
D)in Alu elements.
Q3) Homologous chromosomes .
A)are the same length
B)have the same genes at the same loci
C)pair up during cell division
D)are all of the above.
Q4) DNA wrapped around histones are called .
A)chromatids
B)nucleosomes
C)heterochromatin
D)300 nm fibers
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Manipulation of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which statement is not true regarding peptide nucleic acids?
A)Peptide nucleic acids are not degraded by nucleases or proteases.
B)Peptide nucleic acids consist of a polypeptide backbone to which nucleic acid bases are attached as side chains.
C)Peptide nucleic acids are able to bind to complementary strands of DNA or RNA.
D)Peptide nucleic acid penetrates cells easily,and therefore has importance in medicine.
Q2) Which type of blotting uses antibodies to detect proteins on a membrane?
A)Southern blot
B)Northern blot
C)Western blot
D)South-Western blot
Q3) FISH allows DNA or RNA to be visualized in its natural location.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An A260/A280 ratio of less than 1.8 indicates .
A)pure DNA
B)pure RNA
C)protein contamination of DNA
D)RNA contamination of DNA
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Chapter 6: Polymerase Chain Reaction
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Q1) What is the function of the RNA primer during DNA synthesis?
A)DNA polymerase requires a 3' hydroxyl to initiate synthesis.
B)The primer helps the replication machinery find the origin of replication.
C)The primer is required for cleavage of the DNA to generate a loose end.
D)The primer signals DNA polymerase to terminate synthesis.
Q2) In real time PCR,the presence of double-stranded DNA is detected by
A)fluorescence of SYBR Green
B)luminescence of SYBER Green
C)quenching of SYBR Green fluorescence
D)rapid decrease in the amount of SYBR Green fluorescence
Q3) In addition to DNA polymerase,a PCR reaction mixture contains all of the following except .
A)Buffer
B)Primers
C)Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
D)Ligase
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Chapter 7: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) What types of genes are found on plasmids and often used as selectable markers?
A)antibiotic resistance genes
B)multiple cloning sites
C)origins of replication
D)methylated sequences
Q2) Which process enables recombinant DNA to be introduced into mammalian cell lines?
A)Transfection
B)Transduction
C)Transformation
D)Translocation
Q3) Restriction enzymes .
A)generate either blunt or sticky ends by cutting the DNA on each strand.
B)are nucleases.
C)recognize specific sequences and cleave the DNA at the recognition site or somewhere in the vicinity.
D)are all of the above.
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9
Chapter 8: DNA Sequencing
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Q1) DNA chip technology relies on the hybridization of .
A)DNA to DNA
B)DNA to RNA
C)RNA to DNA
D)RNA to RNA
Q2) All of the following are second generation sequencing methods except .
A)454 sequencing
B)Illumina/Solexa sequencing
C)SOLiD/Applied Biosystems method
D)Pyrosequencing
Q3) Which sequencing method would work best for determining the sequence of a single DNA molecule?
A)pyrosequencing
B)third generation sequencing
C)second generation sequencing
D)chain termination sequencing
Q4) Nanopore technology is speedy and handles long DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Genomics Systems Biology
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Q1) Genes in the family are of particular interest due to their pharmaceuticals.
A)cytochrome P450
B)CYP2D6
C)Glutathione S-transferease
D)SNP
Q2) Correlating individual genotypes with drug treatment is called .
A)genomics
B)pharmacogenetics
C)pharming
D)pharmacogenomics
Q3) Eukaryotic cell lines,usually rodents,that contain chromosomal fragments from other eukaryotic species are called .
A)transfected hybrids
B)artificial chromosomes
C)radiation hybrids
D)STS/EST cell lines
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Chapter 10: Cell Division and DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of does not use mitosis.
A)gamete formation
B)embryogenesis
C)asexual reproduction
D)tissue repair/wound healing
Q2) G1,S,and G2 are collectively called .
A)the cell cycle
B)interphase
C)cell division
D)cytokinesis
Q3) Replication always proceeds relative to the new strand.
A)unidirectional from the origin
B)left to right
C)3' to 5'
D)5' to 3'
Q4) How many origins are replication are typical of bacterial circular chromosomes?
A)None.Bacterial chromosomes replicate by binary fission
B)1
C)2
D)Many.
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Chapter 11: Transcription of Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The eukaryotic promoter recognized by RNA polymerase II contains three regions.Which of the following is not part of the trio?
A)TATA box
B)upstream elements
C)initiator box
D)Enhancer
Q2) Large ribosomal RNAs are transcribed by .
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
Q3) Transcription occurs in the of eukaryotes and the of prokaryotes.
A)nucleus;nucleus
B)cytosol;cytosol
C)nucleus;cytosol
D)cytosol;nucleus
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Chapter 12: Processing of RNA
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Q1) In bacteria, is involved in processing tRNAs.
A)ribonuclease P
B)ribonuclease H
C)ribonuclease D
D)ribonuclease E/F
Q2) The regions of transcript that contain protein coding sequence are called
A)introns
B)exons
C)inteins
D)exteins
Q3) RNA processing includes .
A)base modification
B)intron removal and exon splicing
C)addition of extra bases
D)all of the above
Q4) Some pre-rRNAs are processed to generate mature rRNA and tRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is not associated with tRNA?
A)transfer of amino acids
B)anticodon loop
C)cloverleaf appearance
D)type of RNA translated into protein
Q2) A triplet of three nucleotides found on the DNA or mRNA that codes for one amino acid is called a/an .
A)anticodon
B)codon
C)trio
D)peptide
Q3) The type of covalent bond that forms between adjacent protein monomers is called a .
A)beta-linkage
B)phosphodiester bond
C)peptide bond
D)glycosidic bond
Q4) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) When a single polypeptide chain is coiled and held together by hydrogen bonds,this is called aan) and occurs in the structure of proteins.
A)beta sheet;secondary
B)alpha helix;secondary
C)beta sheet;tertiary
D)alpha helix;tertiary
Q2) The binding of a regulatory molecule to an allosteric site on a protein that results in the inhibition of the protein is an example of .
A)non-competitive inhibition
B)allosteric activation
C)competitive inhibition
D)positive regulation
Q3) Denaturation destroys the primary structure of proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Proteomics
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Q1) All of the following are appropriate methods for investigating protein-protein interactions except .
A)mass spectrometry
B)two hybrid analysis
C)electrophoretic mobility shift assays
D)co-immunoprecipitation
Q2) When a virus displays multiple peptide sequences,this is termed .
A)phage array
B)yeast two hybrid system
C)phage display
D)protein microarray
Q3) How are proteins denatured in SDS-PAGE?
A)detergent and high temperature
B)high temperature only
C)acylamide
D)electrical charge
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes
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Q1) All of the following are examples of transcriptional regulation in prokaryotes except
A)binding of a repressor to an operator
B)premature termination of RNA polymerase during transcription elongation
C)binding of cAMP-CRP complex to the lac operon of Escherichia coli
D)over-riding termination by anti-terminator proteins
Q2) Autoregulation occurs when .
A)IPTG binds to LacI
B)allo-lactose binds to LacI
C)a repressor binds to its own gene to prevent transcription
D)CRP binds to cAMP and the the lac operon
Q3) Alternative sigma factors exist for all of the following except .
A)heat shock
B)nitrogen control
C)flagellar motion
D)exponential phase
Q4) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes
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Q1) In eukaryotes,negative regulation occurs by .
A)obstructing RNA polymerase II
B)interfering with activators
C)interfering with repressors
D)binding of repressors to operators
Q2) Specific transcription factors .
A)modulate gene expression in response to a specific stimulus
B)are not able to enter the nucleus of eukaryotes and instead help regulate gene expression at the post-transcriptional level
C)bind to target mRNAs prior to translation
D)prevent RNA polymerase II from binding to the DNA
Q3) Euchromatin .
A)is only found in prokaryotes
B)does not allow gene expression to occur
C)is densely packed chromatin
D)is loosely packed chromatin
Q4) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Regulation at the RNA Level
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Q1) Which statement is false?
A)Nucleases are not part of the RNAi scenario.
B)Some small RNAs help stabilize the mRNA and protect it from degradation.
C)RNAi is a form of gene silencing that involves degradation of target RNAs.
D)Riboswitches bind small molecules.
Q2) RNA interference occurs in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RISC proteins recognize small RNA fragments called .
A)Slicer
B)Dicer
C)siRNA
D)miRNA
Q4) In bacteria, the system destroys incoming viral DNA and RNA.
A)RISC
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)CRISPR
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Chapter 19: Analysis of Gene Expression
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Q1) DNA microarrays are appropriate for investigating the expression of one or a few genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) DNase I protection assays or DNA footprinting is useful for .
A)determining the start of transcription
B)determining the location of a DNA binding sequence
C)preventing contamination of RNA in primer extension samples
D)none of the above
Q3) Microarrays and SAGE have the ability to monitor .
A)large numbers of mRNAs simultaneously
B)small numbers of specific mRNAs
C)proteins expressed under a given condition
D)the binding of a protein to a DNA or RNA molecule
Q4) Primer extension is used to .
A)determine the transcriptional start site
B)locate the binding of RNA polymerase
C)determine the interaction of RNA and proteins
D)generate primers for PCR
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Chapter 20: Plasmids
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Q1) Which one of the following organisms does not have plasmids?
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)yeast
D)archaea
Q2) The Ti-plasmid was used as the platform for genetically engineering plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plasmids in the same family are incompatible because .
A)they are transferable
B)they produce toxins
C)they carry genes for antibiotic resistance
D)they have similar DNA sequences in the replication genes
Q4) Bidirectional replication for F-plasmids occurs at the .
A)origin of vegetative replication
B)origin of transfer
C)origin of chromosomal replication
D)linear ends
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Chapter 21: Viruses
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Q1) Viruses hijack host cell replication machinery to produce more viral particles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The next step of viral propagation following attachment and entry is
A)genome replication
B)assembly
C)viral protein manufacture
D)release of new virions
Q3) Enveloped viruses only infect .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)yeast
Q4) The largest virus is .
A)herpesvirus
B)poxvirus
C)mimivirus
D)HIV
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Mobile DNA
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Q1) Reverse transcsriptase is needed for .
A)the movement of retrotransposons
B)the integration of RNA transposons
C)the transcription of RNA transposons
D)the excision of retrotransposons
Q2) Conservative transposition .
A)generates a copy of the transposon
B)generates double-stranded breaks in the DNA
C)occurs only for RNA transposons
D)has no detrimental effects on the host genome.
Q3) All transposons have all of the following characteristics except .
A)the gene for transposase
B)inverted repeats
C)resolvase
D)antibiotic resistance genes
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24
Chapter 23: Mutations and Repair
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Q1) Spontaneous mutations occur .
A)from errors in replication
B)when organisms grow at high temperatures
C)in the presence of mutagens
D)from ultraviolet radiation
Q2) A mutation changes the coding sequence of the gene by inserting single base pair.
A)nonsense
B)silent
C)frameshift
D)reversion
Q3) DNA polymerases often proofread their recently inserted nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Terotogenic agents .
A)generate reversions
B)always causes mutations
C)are always carcinogenic
D)have known effects on developing embryos
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Chapter 24: Recombination
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Q1) Site specific recombination only occurs for homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Xis protein .
A)is involved in X-inactivation in female animals
B)helps recombine homologous sequences
C)is used to excise previously recombined DNA segments
D)all of the above
Q3) A heteroduplex is a double helix with two strands from different DNA or RNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Homologous recombination is .
A)the exchange of DNA between similar sequences
B)the exchange of DNA between dissimilar sequences
C)the formation of a heteroduplex
D)the removal of a holiday junction
Q5) The Holliday junction only forms during excision.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) In order for cells to take up naked DNA,they must be .
A)dead
B)actively replicating
C)competent
D)weak
Q2) DNA transfer that occurs via a virus is called .
A)transfection
B)conjugation
C)transduction
D)transformation
Q3) The preferential transfer of DNA fragments using viruses is called .
A)generalize transduction
B)specialized transduction
C)conjugation
D)transformation
Q4) During conjugation,the entire double-stranded F-plasmid is transferred into the recipient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) Recent evolutionary changes are easier to identify from .
A)DNA with slow mutation rates
B)DNA with high mutation rates
C)ribosomal RNA sequences
D)Y chromosomes
Q2) Life likely evolved under .
A)a reducing atmosphere
B)cold conditions
C)oxidizing conditions
D)dehydrating conditions
Q3) Which was likely the first molecule of life?
A)DNA
B)RNA
C)protein
D)lipids
Q4) Mitochondrial DNA .
A)has a high mutation rate
B)is useful for determining paternal ancestry
C)has a low mutation rate
D)is only present in animal cells
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