Biomedical Sciences
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that combines principles from biology, chemistry, and medicine to advance understanding of the human body and disease processes. This course covers fundamental topics such as human anatomy and physiology, molecular and cellular biology, genetics, microbiology, immunology, and pharmacology. Students will explore how biomedical research contributes to the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases, developing practical laboratory skills and critical thinking necessary for careers in healthcare, research, and biotechnology. The curriculum emphasizes the integration of scientific knowledge with real-world medical challenges, equipping students to contribute to advancements in medical science and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela
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Buckingham
Chapter 1: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication is:
A) Conservative
B) Semiconservative
C) Nonconservative
D) Dispersive
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following enzymes will untangle DNA?
A) Polymerase
B) Helicase
C) Kinase
D) Phosphatase
Answer: B
Q3) What reactions are catalyzed by DNA methyltransferase?
A) Addition of methyl groups to nitrogen bases
B) Addition of methyl groups to ribose sugars
C) Addition of methyl groups to proteins
D) Removal of methyl groups from DNA
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: RNA
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Q1) Genomic imprinting is accomplished primarily through:
A) Methylation
B) Acetylation
C) Transcription
D) Cis and trans factor interactions
Answer: A
Q2) Multiple products are generated from the same gene by what mechanism?
A) Alternative splicing
B) Polyadenylation
C) Capping
Answer: A
Q3) DNA sequences that are involved in the regulation of gene expression are called:
A) Cis factors
B) Trans factors
C) Inducers
D) Repressors
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sequence of amino acids in a protein constitutes which level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: A
Q2) The start codon for synthesis of most proteins is:
A) ACC
B) UGA
C) AUG
D) UAA
Answer: C
Q3) A glycoprotein contains ______attached after translation.
A) extra amino acids
B) sugar moieties
C) lipids
D) metal ions
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Q1) Diethyl pyrocarbonate (DEPC) is a chemical that is used to:
A) Inactivate DNAses
B) Measure DNA concentration
C) Isolate mitochondria
D) Inactivate RNAses
Q2) PolyT oligomers bound to a matrix resin column will selectively isolate which of the following?
A) Ribosomal RNA
B) GC-rich DNA
C) Transfer RNA
D) Messenger RNA
Q3) DNA, after separation from other cellular constituents, is precipitated in which of the following?
A) Chloroform
B) Isopropanol
C) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
D) Sodium dodecyl sulfate
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6
Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following molecules polymerize to form a support medium through which nucleic acids move?
A) Ethidium bromide
B) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
C) Sodium dodecyl sulfate
D) Polyacrylamide
Q2) Nucleic acids are injected into the capillary in capillary electrophoresis by which of the following injection methods?
A) Hydrostatic
B) Electrokinetic
C) Pneumatic
D) Vacuum
Q3) To increase the density of a sample relative to the density of the buffer prior to loading the sample into a gel, which of the following is added to the sample?
A) Glycerol
B) Ethidium bromide
C) Formaldehyde
D) Tris acetate EDTA
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Q1) A hybridization assay is run under the following conditions: 40% formamide with 0.5X SSC at 70<sup>o</sup>C. When the bands were visualized, there were many more bands than expected in all wells on the membrane. Which of the following changes should be made to the hybridization conditions to get results that are closer to those expected?
A) Decrease formamide
B) Increase temperature
C) Increase SSC concentration
D) Decrease temperature
Q2) Which of the following bind(s) specifically to a sequence of interest, thus facilitating the analysis of that sequence?
A) Restriction enzymes
B) Probes
C) Hybridomas
D) Digoxigenin
Q3) A northern blot allows you to do which of the following?
A) Analyze a specific region of DNA in a complex background
B) Measure gene expression
C) Investigate DNA binding proteins
D) Determine antigen/antibody interactions
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of PCR starts with an RNA template?
A) Real-time PCR
B) Multiplex PCR
C) Reverse transcriptase PCR
D) Sequence-specific PCR
Q2) A PCR assay is performed, and the results are being analyzed. The positive control has a band at the expected size; the negative template control has a band at the same size as the positive control; the contamination control has no band; and the amplification control has a band of expected size. All of the patient samples that were run had a band the same size as the band seen in the positive and negative template control wells. How are these results interpreted?
A) This is an acceptable run, and the patients should all be reported as positive.
B) This run is not acceptable because the amplification control should not have a band.
C) This run is not acceptable because the contamination control should have a band.
D) This run is not acceptable because the negative template control should not have a band.
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Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Q1) A change in DNA sequence that is present in at least 1% to 2% of the population is called a(n):
A) Phenotype
B) Polymorphism
C) Aneuploid
D) Mutation
Q2) Before its conversion to a microarray technique, CGH was performed by hybridizing labeled DNA to what support?
A) Immobilized PCR products
B) Normal chromosome spread
C) Nitrocellulose membrane
D) Agarose gel
Q3) A reciprocal translocation is which type of mutation?
A) Gene
B) Genome
C) Chromosome
D) Nucleotide
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Q1) A patient is being tested to determine whether he has the factor V Leiden mutation by PCR-RFLP analysis. PCR is performed on the patient's DNA and cut with HindIII. The mutation-positive control sample had a single band of expected size, and the mutation-negative control sample had a slightly larger band. The patient's specimen had two bands, one that was the same size as the mutation-positive control band and the other the same as the mutation-negative control. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these results?
A) The patient does not have the factor V Leiden mutation.
B) The patient is heterozygous for the factor V Leiden mutation.
C) The patient is homozygous for the factor V Leiden mutation.
D) The results are not valid, and the assay should be repeated.
Q2) Which of the following mutations is more likely to result in a phenotypic change?
A) Frameshift mutation at the beginning of the coding sequence
B) Nonconservative mutation at the end of the coding sequence
C) Silent mutation in the middle of the coding sequence
D) Conservative mutation at the end of the coding sequence
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Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Q1) Which of the following is the most widely used method of DNA sequencing in clinical laboratories today?
A) Pyrosequencing
B) Maxam-Gilbert sequencing
C) Sanger sequencing
D) Array sequencing
Q2) Ten equivalents of a genome were cut into small pieces and sequenced. Computers were then used to put the sequences of the pieces together to determine the sequence of the intact genome. The method described is which of the following?
A) Basic Local Alignment Search Tool
B) Hierarchal Genome Sequencing
C) Whole Genome Shotgun Sequencing
D) Gene Recognition and Assembly
Q3) Which of the following are included in sequencing reactions to deter secondary structure in the template and synthesized fragments?
A) Deaza-GTP
B) Manganese
C) Magnesium
D) Extra dNTPs
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Q1) A woman has been sexually assaulted by an unknown man. Which of the following laboratory procedures can be used to more accurately analyze residual DNA left by the man in an effort to identify him?
A) RFLP
B) STR
C) Y-STR
D) VNTR
Q2) An individual who has two populations of cells that were derived from two different zygotes is called a:
A) Chimera
B) Mosaic
C) Clone
D) Mutant
Q3) THO1, D8S1179, and D2S11 are examples of which of the following?
A) RFLP
B) SINE
C) STR
D) SNP
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13
Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Q1) The following methods that are used to determine the HIV viral load in a newly diagnosed patient. Which uses signal amplification?
A) NASBA
B) bDNA
C) RT-PCR
D) Sequencing
Q2) HIV genotyping is performed for which of the following reasons?
A) Monitor development of antiretroviral drug resistance
B) Confirm HIV infection
C) Quantify amount of HIV in the patient
D) Determine source of HIV
Q3) Which of the following molecular-based assays targets rRNA?
A) NASBA for hepatitis C virus
B) TMA for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Accuprobe for M. tuberculosis
D) Linear Array Genotyping for HPV
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14
Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Q1) In a pedigree, an affected female will be indicated by which of the following symbols?
A) Open circle
B) Shaded circle
C) Open square
D) Shaded square
Q2) Mitochondrial mutations primarily affect which of the following tissues?
A) Skin
B) Bone
C) Muscle
D) Lung
Q3) Missense mutations in cell growth regulator proteins can result in which of the following diseases?
A) Familial hypercholesteremia
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Neurofibromatosis
D) Phenylketonuria
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Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant tissue originating in one organ (primary) site is isolated from a different organ. How would this malignancy be described?
A) Benign
B) Necrotic
C) Metastatic
D) Apoptotic
Q2) Five one- and two-base repeat loci were tested for instability, comparing cancer tissue to reference normal tissue from the same patient. Three of the five loci showed additional alleles in the cancer cells compared to the normal cells. How is this interpreted?
A) High instability (MSI-H)
B) Low instability (MSI-L)
C) Stability (MSS)
D) This result is not informative.
Q3) What are the two checkpoints of the cell division cycle?
A) M to G1 and G1 to G2
B) G1 to G2 and M to S
C) G1 to S and G2 to M
D) S to G1 and G2 to M
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Page 16
Chapter 15: DNA-Based Tissue Typing
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Q1) An HLA haplotype is inherited from:
A) Only the mother
B) Only the father
C) Both the mother and the father
D) Neither the mother nor the father
Q2) In PCR-SSOP, the HLA allele is identified based on which of the following?
A) Primers that are specific for particular alleles
B) Probes that are specific for particular alleles
C) Restriction enzyme cutting and band patterns
D) Differences in single-strand conformations
Q3) HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C are in what MHC region?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Cytokine gene
Q4) Which is the term for recognition of two or more antigens by the same antibody?
A) Synonymous
B) Ambiguity
C) Nonsense
D) Null
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Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Q1) Which is the proper way to report a threonine-to-methionine mutation at amino acid position 790?
A) 790 T>M
B) M790T
C) T790M
D) TM790
Q2) A blood specimen is received in the laboratory for a PCR assay to detect cytomegalovirus (a DNA virus) on a Wednesday night. The PCR assay will not be performed until the next Monday morning. How should this specimen be stored to maintain the integrity of the nucleic acid prior to analysis?
A) Lyze RBCs, centrifuge, and store at 22<sup>o</sup>C
B) Lyze RBCs, centrifuge, and store at -20<sup>o</sup>
C) Whole blood stored at 22<sup>o</sup>-25<sup>o</sup>C
D) Whole blood stored at 35<sup>o</sup>-37<sup>o</sup>C
Q3) What is the proper way to handle raw data from a completed test run?
A) Submit the data to the ordering physician.
B) Discard the data immediately after the case is signed out.
C) Immediately shred the data to maintain patient privacy.
D) Retain the data with the final reports of the test run.
Page 18
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