Biomedical Sciences
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the foundational principles of biology and medicine, focusing on the scientific understanding of human health and disease. The course covers a broad range of topics including human anatomy and physiology, biochemistry, genetics, microbiology, pathology, and pharmacology. Emphasizing laboratory techniques and research methodologies, students learn how biological systems function and how medical conditions are diagnosed and treated. The course also investigates current advances in medical science, such as biotechnology and molecular medicine, preparing students for careers in healthcare, research, or further study in medical and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Medical Biochemistry 3rd Edition by Gerhard Meisenberg
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between -D-glucose and -D-galactose?
A)They are mirror images of each other.
B)They differ in the configuration of substituents at C-4.
C)One is an aldose and the other is a ketose.
D)They are anomers.
E)One forms only O-glycosidic bonds, and the other forms only N-glycosidic bonds.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the major difference between glycogen and amylose?
A)Glycogen contains only glucose, and amylose contains some fructose in addition to glucose.
B)Glycogen is a storage polysaccharide, and amylose is a structural polysaccharide of the extracellular matrix.
C)Glycogen is branched, and amylose is not.
D)Glycogen contains some linkages, but amylose contains only linkages.
E)Glycogen is stored in the liver, and amylose is stored in skeletal muscle.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Introduction to Protein Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about protein structure is correct?
A)The helix is stabilized primarily by ionic interactions between the side chains of amino acids.
B)Cytoplasmic proteins generally contain disulfide bonds.
C)In comparison with the b-pleated sheet, the a helix is more extended.
D)The denaturation of proteins is in most cases reversible by slow cooling.
E)The tertiary structure of the protein forms before the formation of disulfide bonds.
Answer: E
Q2) All naturally occurring amino acids:
A)Have more than one -carbon atom.
B)Are uncharged at a pH of 7.
C)Can only have two pKs.
D)Are chiral, except glycine.
E)Occur in nature mainly or exclusively in the optically active D-form.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Oxygen Transporters: Hemoglobin and Myoglobin
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Q1) The oxygen dissociation curve of hemoglobin is sigmoidal, and this raises the efficiency of oxygen delivery considerably.The reason for hemoglobin's sigmoidal oxygen dissociation curve is:
A)The steric control of oxygen access to the heme iron by the distal histidine.
B)The difference in oxygen affinity between the heme groups of the chains and those of the chains.
C)A conformational change in the protein that raises the oxygen-binding affinities of the other heme groups when one of them becomes oxygenated.
D)The effect of 2,3-BG, which binds only to oxygenated but not deoxygenated hemoglobin.
E)The hydrophobicity of the heme-binding pocket, which forces oxygen to diffuse through a hydrophobic medium in order to reach the heme iron. Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Enzymatic Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term ligase refers to a class of enzymes that catalyzes:
A)Hydrogen transfer reactions.
B)The transfer of a functional group from one molecule to another.
C)The removal of a group, forming a C=C double bond in the substrate.
D)The joining together of two molecules.
E)Cleavage of a bond.
Q2) Which is true for enzymes in general?
A)They reduce the free energy of the product in relation to that of the substrate.
B)They can catalyze their reaction over a wide pH range.
C)They increase the rate of the forward and backward reactions in proportion.
D)When the substrate is chiral, both isomeric forms can be used as substrates of the enzymatic reaction.
E)They alter the position of the equilibrium for a reaction.
Q3) Most NAD-using enzymes are named as:
A)Transferases.
B)Dehydrogenases.
C)Carboxylases.
D)Oxygenases.
E)Lyases.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Coenzymes
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Q1) Coenzyme A has a very specific function in metabolic pathways.Its task is:
A)Transfer of hydrogen.
B)Transfer of electrons.
C)Attachment of carboxyl groups.
D)Activation of monosaccharides for the synthesis of complex carbohydrates.
E)Activation of organic acids.
Q2) Flavoproteins are proteins that contain:
A)Heme.
B)FAD or flavin mononucleotide (FMN).
C)Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) or nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP).
D)Zinc or copper.
E)Coenzyme A.
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Chapter 6: DNA, RNA, and Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following bases, when it occurs in the wobble position in tRNA, can bind to three different bases (adenine [A], uracil [U], and cytosine [C])?
A)Cytosine.
B)Hypoxanthine.
C)Adenine.
D)Guanine.
E)Uracil.
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes the structure of the DNA double helix?
A)The bases are in the center of the double helix and do not contact the surrounding water.
B)2-Deoxyribose forms O-glycosidic bonds.
C)All hydroxyl groups of 2-deoxyribose are tied up in covalent bonds.
D)The purine and pyrimidine bases carry positive charges at a pH of 7.
E)The double helix can interact with proteins mainly through hydrophobic interactions.
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Chapter 7: The Human Genome
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a scientific article, you read that the transcriptional regulator satanin recruits a histone deacetylase to the promoter of the gene for transcendentin, the major structural protein of the human soul.The most likely effect of this will be:
A)Altered splicing of the transcendentin messenger RNA (mRNA), resulting in the production of a structurally altered protein.
B)The destabilization of nucleosomes in the region of the transcendentin gene.
C)Reduced transcription of the transcendentin gene.
D)Recruitment of the TATA-binding protein to the promoter of the transcendentin gene.
E)Stimulation of the protein kinase activity of transcription factor H.
Q2) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes share which of the following characteristics during transcription?
A)A subunit that binds to the promoter.
B)A template that is read in the 3'-to-5' direction.
C)A primase to initiate RNA synthesis.
D)Cotranscriptional attachment of a cap to the 5' end of the RNA.
E)Proofreading through a 3'-exonuclease activity.
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Chapter 8: Protein Targeting
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Q1) In glycoproteins, the terminal position in the oligosaccharide is most commonly occupied by:
A)N-acetylglucosamine.
B)Glucose.
C)Mannose.
D)Iduronic acid.
E)N-acetylneuraminic acid.
Q2) The most promising gene therapy strategy for I-cell disease is to:
A)Introduce an intact copy of the a-L-iduronidase gene.
B)Replace a normal copy of the iduronate sulfatase gene with one containing a nuclear localization signal.
C)Replace the N-acetyl-galactosamine transferase gene with one containing a lysosomal localization signal.
D)Replace a faulty copy of the mannose-6-phosphate transferase gene with a functional copy.
E)Replace all lysosomal enzyme genes.
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Genetic Diseases
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Q1) Spending a day on the beach is bad for your skin because sunlight causes:
A)Deamination of bases in the DNA.
B)Formation of pyrimidine dimers.
C)DNA double-stranded breaks.
D)Alkylation reactions that modify the bases.
E)Depurination.
Q2) A girl had repeated attacks of pneumonia almost immediately after birth.A blood test taken 3 weeks after birth showed a blood hemoglobin concentration of 4.5% (normal at that age: 15% to 19%).This could possibly be a serious case of:
A)Sickle cell disease or -thalassemia but not -thalassemia.
B) -Thalassemia but not sickle cell disease or -thalassemia.
C)Sickle cell disease or -thalassemia but not -thalassemia.
D)Sickle cell disease but not -thalassemia or -thalassemia.
E) -Thalassemia or -thalassemia but not sickle cell disease.
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11
Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes are never encoded by viral genes?
A)RNA replicase.
B)Reverse transcriptase.
C)RNA polymerase I.
D)Proteases.
E)Integrase.
Q2) Unlike bacteriophage T , l phage is capable of both lytic and lysogenic infection.The lysogenic state is maintained by:
A)Chemical modification of cytosine bases in the viral DNA, forming hydroxymethyl-cytosine.
B)Transcription of the cro gene.
C)Transcription of the gene for the l repressor.
D)Transcription of the xis and cro genes.
E)Exposure of the bacterium to ultraviolet radiation or other DNA-damaging agents.
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) RNA interference can be used for experimental and possibly therapeutic purposes.RNA interference is triggered by:
A)Shortening of telomeres in aging cells.
B)Activation of oncogenes in malignant cells.
C)Exposure to viral spike proteins.
D)Double-stranded RNA molecules.
E)DNA-RNA hybrid molecules.
Q2) The most important "selectable markers" used in recombinant DNA technology with bacteria are:
A)Self-transmissible plasmid, such as the F factor.
B)Single-stranded cloning vectors that are used for DNA sequencing.
C)Genes for integrase enzymes that are needed for the integration of recombinant DNA in the bacterial genome.
D)Bacteriophages that carry a foreign DNA.
E)Genes for antibiotic resistance that permit the selective survival of engineered bacteria.
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Chapter 12: Biological Membranes
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Q1) The mechanism that absorbs glucose from the intestinal lumen can be characterized as:
A)Electroneutral.
B)Facilitated diffusion.
C)Secondary active transport.
D)Antiport.
E)Passive diffusion.
Q2) Most sphingolipids are glycolipids.However, there is one sphingolipid that contains phosphate but no carbohydrate.This lipid is:
A)Ceramide.
B)Sphingomyelin.
C)Ganglioside.
D)Sphingosine.
E)Cerebroside.
Q3) How do most integral membrane proteins interact with the lipid bilayer?
A)By covalent attachment to a glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor.
B)Through covalently bound fatty acids.
C)By electrostatic interactions with the head groups of membrane lipids.
D)By a little piece of hydrophobic a helix that traverses the lipid bilayer.
E)By hydrogen bonds with the head groups of membrane lipids.
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Chapter 13: The Cytoskeleton
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Q1) During evaluation of a couple for infertility, it turns out that the male partner has a normal sperm count, but his sperm cells are totally immotile.He also has a history of recurrent bronchitis and sinusitis, and when he was a child, the pediatrician had told his mother that his heart was not on the left but on the right side.Abnormalities in which protein could possibly account for these problems?
A)Vinculin.
B)Dynein.
C)Connexin.
D)Cadherin.
E) -Catenin.
Q2) Cells can exchange inorganic ions and small metabolites with neighboring cells in the tissue.This process requires the protein:
A)Vinculin.
B)Dynein.
C)Connexin.
D)Cadherin.
E) -Catenin.
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15
Chapter 14: The Extracellular Matrix
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Q1) Patients with Hurler syndrome (complete deficiency of -L-iduronidase) have mental deficiency in addition to physical deformities, corneal clouding, and valvular heart disease.Their mental deficiency is caused by the accumulation of:
A) -L-iduronic acid.
B)Heparan sulfate.
C)Chondroitin sulfate.
D)Hyaluronic acid.
E)Keratan sulfate.
Q2) Most glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) are covalently bound to a core polypeptide.One GAG, however, is usually found as a free polysaccharide without covalent protein attachment.This GAG is:
A)Chondroitin sulfate.
B)Dermatan sulfate.
C)Keratan sulfate.
D)Hyaluronic acid.
E)Heparan sulfate.
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Chapter 15: Plasma Proteins
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Q1) Heparin inhibits blood clotting by:
A)Binding to fibrinogen and thereby preventing its cleavage by thrombin.
B)Activating tissue-type plasminogen activator.
C)Inhibiting urokinase.
D)Inhibiting the binding of prothrombin to activated platelets.
E)Activating antithrombin III.
Q2) A 52-year-old man was brought by his wife to the emergency room, suffering with chest pain.When questioned, his wife said that the pain had started about 4 hours earlier.You think that the most appropriate test to do at the time is cardiac troponin I but find that the test kit for this is empty.At this time, which of the following enzyme analyses would give you the same information?
A)Creatine kinase MM.
B)Alkaline phosphatase.
C)Lactate dehydrogenase.
D)Creatine kinase MB.
E)Alanine transaminase.
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Chapter 16: Extracellular Messengers
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Q1) The polyunsaturated fatty acid that is most abundant in fish oils is known as eicosapentaenoic acid.It is a precursor for the synthesis of:
A)Arachidonic acid.
B)Linoleic acid.
C)Thromboxane A3.
D)Platelet-activating factor.
E)Prostaglandin E2.
Q2) An 18-year-old girl is evaluated for primary amenorrhea.The external genitalia are unambiguously female, and secondary sexual characteristics appear normally developed.The karyotype is 46,XY.Estrogen and testosterone levels are in the normal male range.This condition is most likely caused by:
A)Deficiency of aromatase in all tissues.
B)Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase in the adrenal cortex.
C)Deficiency of desmolase.
D)A defective androgen receptor.
E)A defect of adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary gland.
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18
Chapter 17: Intracellular Messengers
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Q1) IP is a second messenger of many hormones.To form this second messenger, which enzyme is needed?
A)Phosphodiesterase.
B)Protein kinase C.
C)Protein kinase B.
D)Phospholipase C.
E)Ras.
Q2) Glucagon can induce gene transcription in the liver.How?
A)It is translocated to the nucleus, where it binds to response elements in the regulatory sequences of the genes.
B)It triggers cAMP formation, and cAMP activates genes by binding to the catabolite activator protein.
C)It releases calcium from the ER, which activates protein kinase C in the nucleus.
D)It causes phosphorylation of nuclear transcription factors by protein kinase A.
E)It induces the formation of the second messenger IP3, which activates transcription by binding to nuclear transcription factors.
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Chapter 18: Cellular Growth Control and Cancer
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Q1) Cytochrome c is normally attached to the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane, where it participates in electron transport.However, when released into the cytoplasm, it can influence the fate of the cell by:
A)Activating mitogen-activated protein kinases, thereby pushing the cell through the G1 checkpoint.
B)Binding to death receptors, thereby triggering apoptosis.
C)Entering the nucleus, where it activates transcription by removing the retinoblastoma protein pRb from the transcription factor E2F.
D)Binding tightly to the Ras protein, thereby causing exit from the cell cycle.
E)Helping in the assembly of the apoptosome, which triggers apoptosis.
Q2) The function of caspases is:
A)Stimulation of cyclin-dependent protein kinases.
B)Inhibition of cyclin-dependent protein kinases.
C)Destruction of cellular proteins during apoptosis.
D)Prevention of apoptosis by the mitochondrial pathway.
E)Activation of death receptors on the cell surface.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Digestive Enzymes
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Q1) Lactose intolerance is not only a commonly encountered genetic trait but can also be caused by diseases that compromise the function of the intestinal epithelium.After lactose ingestion, lactose-intolerant individuals most likely have:
A)Absorption of intact lactose from the intestine, followed by cleavage of the lactose by endothelial lactase in most tissues.
B)Excessive formation of ammonia within 2 hours after lactose ingestion, which can be dangerous for patients with liver cirrhosis.
C)Fatty stools, because unabsorbed lactose is fermented into fatty acids by intestinal bacteria.
D)Absence of reducing substances from the stools.
E)A pH of the stools in the acidic range.
Q2) The bacterial fermentation of undigested carbohydrates in the colon forms not only gas but also a good deal of:
A)Lactose.
B)Fatty acids.
C)Small organic acids.
D)Urea.
E)Ketone bodies.
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Metabolic Pathways
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Q1) Which type of regulation is most likely for the regulated enzymes of energy-generating oxidative pathways?
A)Stimulation by adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
B)Stimulation by adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
C)Stimulation by the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH).
D)Feedback inhibition by carbon dioxide.
E)Inhibition by the substrate of the pathway.
Q2) Which is the most likely regulated step in metabolic pathways?
A)The first reaction in the pathway, regardless of whether it is reversible or irreversible.
B)The first irreversible reaction of the pathway.
C)The first endergonic reaction in the pathway.
D)The last reaction of the pathway.
E)The reaction whose enzyme is present in the highest activity in the cell.
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Chapter 21: Glycolysis, Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle, and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Complete the following phrase by filling in the blanks to make it a true statement."The action of the inhibitor rotenone on the Complex I enzyme system of electron transport results in accumulation of _____, which slows down _____.This results in ______."
A)The reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH); adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthesis; glycogen accumulation.
B)Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+); glycolysis; a higher membrane potential across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
C)NAD+; ATP synthesis; enhanced fatty acid biosynthesis.
D)NADH; the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle; accumulation of lactate.
E)NAD+; the TCA cycle; enhanced gluconeogenesis.
Q2) Thiamine deficiency leads not only to the accumulation of pyruvate and lactate but also to the accumulation of:
A)Succinyl-CoA.
B)Oxaloacetate.
C)Malate.
D)Succinate.
E) -Ketoglutarate.
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Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) A 30-year-old man of Italian ancestry is treated with high doses of a combination antibiotic for his chronic sinusitis.After 1 week of drug treatment, a dark brown discoloration of the urine is noted, and the hematocrit is found to be 32%.Haptoglobin is virtually undetectable.What is a likely mechanism for the patient's drug-induced anemia?
A)Galactose metabolism is inhibited.
B)There is not enough ribose to support DNA replication.
C)Red blood cells produce too much apo-hemoglobin.
D)Glutathione reduction by the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) is impaired.
E)The reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) oxidase overproduces oxygen radicals.
Q2) Which liver enzyme is activated by insulin to stimulate glycogen deposition by glycogen synthase?
A)Phosphofructokinase-2.
B)Protein phosphatase-1.
C)Protein kinase A.
D)Protein kinase C.
E)Calmodulin-dependent protein kinase.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Fatty Acids and Triglycerides
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Q1) In adipocytes, protein kinase A activates lipolysis by phosphorylating two proteins.These proteins are:
A)Lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT) and leptin.
B)Gs proteins and protein kinase C.
C)Signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) proteins and phospholipase A2.
D)Hormone-sensitive adipose tissue lipase and perilipin.
E)Protein kinase C and triglyceride transfer protein.
Q2) A student who lives on only soft drinks and chocolate bars will have very little -oxidation of fatty acids in his liver.Why?
A)Phosphofructokinase-1 is inhibited by high glucose-6-phosphate levels.
B)Acetyl-CoA carboxylase is inhibited by high citrate levels.
C)Carnitine-acyl transferase-1 is inhibited by high malonyl-CoA levels.
D)Hepatic lipase is inhibited by high glucagon levels.
E)Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity is inhibited by high citrate levels.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Metabolism of Membrane Lipids
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Q1) One per 30 Ashkenazi Jews carries a mutation for Tay-Sachs disease in the heterozygous state.The heterozygotes can be identified by measuring one of the following enzymes in cultured leucocytes:
A)Glucocerebrosidase.
B)Hexosaminidase A.
C)Iduronate sulfatase.
D)Ceramidase.
E) -Galactosidase.
Q2) A pregnant woman mentions that 2 years ago, her first child died 2 weeks after birth because the newborn's "lungs were immature" at birth.Because you are planning a cesarean section, you want to determine first whether there is a risk of respiratory problems for her current baby.Which of the following results from an analysis of the mother's amniotic fluid would indicate a high risk?
A)A low ratio of free cholesterol/cholesterol esters.
B)An elevated glucose level.
C)A low lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio.
D)An elevated level of phosphatidylglycerol.
E)A reduced level of platelet-activating factor.
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26
Chapter 25: Lipid Transport
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Q1) On physical examination, you notice that a patient has tendon xanthomas.A blood analysis reveals a total cholesterol level of 350 mg/dL, which results mainly from raised levels of LDL, and normal levels of triglyceride.What other investigation would be helpful in this patient?
A)Look for eruptive xanthomas.
B)Perform a VLDL analysis.
C)Isolate the patient's lymphocytes and measure the number of LDL receptors.
D)Check for hyperthyroidism.
E)Measure fasting blood glucose.
Q2) Excess cholesterol needs to be transported to the liver because it cannot be metabolized in most extrahepatic tissues.This "reverse" transport of cholesterol requires a lipoprotein that is not required for other routes of cholesterol transport.This lipoprotein is:
A)Intermediate-density lipoprotein (IDL).
B)Low-density lipoprotein (LDL).
C)High-density lipoprotein (HDL).
D)Very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL).
E)Lipoprotein(a).
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) A nurse notices that the urine produced by a newborn infant has the odor of maple syrup.Which of the following pathways is most likely defective?
A)Metabolism of branched-chain amino acids.
B)Metabolism of aromatic amino acids.
C)Metabolism of sulfur-containing amino acids.
D)Transformation of carbohydrates to amino acids.
E)One-carbon transfer reactions.
Q2) High homocysteine levels are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis.A deficiency of which of the following enzymes would result in high blood levels of homocysteine (and also methionine)?
A)Tyrosine hydroxylase.
B)Cystathionine synthase.
C)Threonine dehydratase.
D)Glutathione reductase.
E)L-Amino acid oxidase.
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Chapter 27: Heme Metabolism
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Q1) One test that can detect many types of porphyria is the determination of urinary:
A)Dihydroorotic acid.
B)Urobilinogen.
C)Stercobilin.
D)Biliverdin.
E)Porphobilinogen.
Q2) A newborn is found to have persistent jaundice that does not resolve spontaneously even 4 weeks after birth.Repeated blood tests show an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, with bilirubin levels of 8 to 15 mg/dL on different occasions.Finally, treatment with phenobarbital succeeds in bringing the bilirubin level to less than 4 mg/dL.This disorder is most likely:
A)Dubin-Johnson syndrome.
B)Gilbert syndrome.
C)Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II.
D)Rotor syndrome.
E)Megaloblastic anemia.
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Chapter 28: The Metabolism of Purines and Pyrimidines
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Q1) The effect of the chemotherapeutic drug methotrexate is best described as:
A)Disruption of the mitotic spindle.
B)Impaired synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides from ribonucleotides.
C)Inhibition of orotic acid synthesis in the biosynthetic pathway of pyrimidine nucleotides.
D)Depletion of tetrahydrofolate.
E)Induction of mutations by DNA methylation.
Q2) A 1-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician because his parents have noticed that he is mutilating himself by chewing on his lips.On examination, the child is found to be mentally retarded, and tophi are present in the earlobes.Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient in this child?
A)Adenosine deaminase.
B)Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase.
C)Phosphoribosylpyrophosphate synthetase.
D)Xanthine oxidase.
E)Thymidylate kinase.
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Chapter 29: Vitamins and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients in renal failure require dietary restriction of all the following nutrients except:
A)Calcium.
B)Phosphate.
C)Sodium.
D)Protein.
E)Potassium.
Q2) You look over the laboratory reports of 500 medical students to determine the frequency of iron deficiency in this population.The best way to identify iron deficiency from laboratory reports would be to define as iron-deficient all those with:
A)A hematocrit below 50%.
B)A reduced level of serum transferrin.
C)An elevated level of serum ferritin.
D)A transferrin saturation of less than 15%.
E)An iron concentration of less than 5 mg/liter in the urine.
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Chapter 30: Integration of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious illnesses can precipitate ketoacidosis in patients with insulin-dependent diabetes.The reason for this is:
A)Excessive formation of ketone bodies by cells of the immune system.
B)Reduced food intake by the ill patient.
C)Stimulation of lipolysis in adipose tissue by cortisol and epinephrine.
D)Impaired function of the insulin-secreting cells during fever.
E)Excessive glycogen synthesis in response to cytokines.
Q2) Excess alcohol can impair fatty acid oxidation in the liver, thereby diverting fatty acids into triglyceride synthesis.The triglycerides are then exported as VLDL, or they stay in the liver, contributing to the development of fatty liver.This alcohol effect is mediated by:
A)Impaired gluconeogenesis.
B)Inhibition of lactate dehydrogenase by alcohol.
C)Depletion of NAD+.
D)Excessive formation of ketone bodies from alcohol.
E)Inhibition of the carnitine shuttle.
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