Biomedical Sciences Laboratory
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
The Biomedical Sciences Laboratory course provides hands-on experience in essential laboratory techniques and methodologies used in biomedical research. Students will learn to apply concepts from biology, chemistry, and physiology while conducting experiments involving molecular biology, microbiology, biochemistry, and cell culture. The course emphasizes proper laboratory safety, accurate data collection, analysis, and scientific reporting. Through collaborative projects and individual experiments, students will develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills necessary for careers in biomedical sciences and related health professions.
Recommended Textbook Laboratory Manual for Human Anatomy and Physiology Main Version 4th Edition by Terry
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Page 2
R. Martin
Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knowing that there are 2.54 cm per inch, a person that is 5'5" in height would be ________ cm tall.
A)16.51
B)165.1
C)25.4
D)25.6
E)255.9
Answer: B
Q2) The difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable is that the dependent variable
A)can be changed.
B)is derived from the experimental results.
C)is determined before the experiment is conducted.
D)is equivalent to the hypothesis.
E)is equivalent to the observations.
Answer: B
Q3) The final step in the scientific method is data analysis.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are components of the lymphatic system, except the ________.
A)thymus
B)pineal gland
C)spleen
D)lymph nodes
E)lymphatic vessels
Answer: B
Q2) The eye is further from the midline of the body than the nose; therefore, the eye is ________ to the nose.
A)medial
B)proximal
C)lateral
D)distal
E)caudal
Answer: C
Q3) The anterior body cavity consists of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Benedict's test, the greatest amount of sugar is indicated by a ________ color.
A)blue
B)yellow
C)green
D)brown
E)red
Answer: E
Q2) All of the following are true about the cabbage water tests, except
A)red cabbage contains a pigment that functions as a colorimetric pH indicator.
B)distilled water is used in this experiment as an example of a neutral substance.
C)vinegar is added to one of the test tubes as an example of an acidic substance.
D)baking soda is used in this experiment as an example of a basic substance.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper way to carry a microscope?
A)Wrap one hand around the arm of the microscope.
B)Carry it with both hands supporting the stage.
C)Use one hand on the arm of the microscope, and the other hand supporting the base.
D)Carry it with one hand on each side of the base.
E)Carry it with one hand on the body tube, and the other hand under the base.
Q2) All of the following practices should be followed when making a wet mount, except
A)the specimen should be covered with a drop of water.
B)the wet specimen should be covered with a coverslip.
C)the specimen can be opaque and up to 1mm in thickness.
D)the microscope should not be tilted.
E)if using the oil immersion lens, open the iris diaphragm to illuminate the specimen.
Q3) The greatest magnification on the compound light microscope can be achieved by using the high power objective lens.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following structures are involved in motility, except A)microvilli.
B)cilia.
C)microtubules.
D)microfilaments.
E)flagella.
Q2) What is the difference in function between the smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?
A)The rough ER produces ATP, while the smooth ER does not.
B)The rough ER helps with cellular movements, while the smooth ER does not.
C)The rough ER conducts lipid synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts protein synthesis.
D)The rough ER breaks down lipids, while the smooth ER breaks down proteins and debris.
E)The rough ER conducts protein synthesis, while the smooth ER conducts lipid synthesis.
Q3) The nuclear envelope is a double-layered membrane, like the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Movements Through Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the passive transport processes requires hydrostatic pressure to transport molecules across membranes in the body?
A)Osmosis
B)Filtration
C)Facilitated diffusion
D)Pinocytosis
E)Diffusion
Q2) An example of filtration in the body is the movement of water and small solutes through the walls of capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the molasses experiment, after 30 minutes, the molasses level in the stem of the thistle tube had gone up.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the lab experiment on filtration, iodine potassium iodide (IKI)is used to test for the presence of glucose.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major phases of the cell cycle are
A)prophase and metaphase.
B)anaphase and telophase.
C)interphase and mitosis.
D)telophase and interphase.
E)mitosis and cytokinesis.
Q2) A karyotype shows the gender of an individual, as well as many genetic abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cell that enters the G phase will die within hours.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following events occurs in both the G and the G phases?
A)Mitosis
B)DNA replication
C)Cytokinesis
D)Spindle apparatus formation
E)Cell growth
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of epithelial tissue provides protection against respiratory infections, due to the presence of mucus and cilia?
A)Simple squamous
B)Pseudostratified columnar
C)Stratified columnar
D)Simple cuboidal
E)Stratified squamous
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the basement membrane?
A)It is connected to the apical surface of epithelial tissues.
B)The cells closest to the basement membrane are dividing cells.
C)It is acellular.
D)It is composed of collagen and secretions from the cells.
E)It serves to anchor the epithelial tissues to the underlying connective tissue.
Q3) The thinnest type of epithelial tissue in the body, which allows rapid diffusion of substances through the cells, is simple cuboidal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cell secretes the fibers and ground substance of connective tissue?
A)Fibroblasts
B)Platelets
C)Adipocytes
D)Mast cells
E)Leukocytes
Q2) Spongy bone makes up the majority of bone shafts in long bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which cell type produces heparin and histamine to promote inflammation in the connective tissues when necessary?
A)Fibroblasts
B)Chondroblasts
C)Osteoblasts
D)Mast cells
E)Erythrocytes
Q4) The type of connective tissue fiber that stretches is reticular fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of smooth muscle?
A)Peristalsis in visceral organs such as the small intestine and ureters
B)Changing the size of the pupil when the lighting conditions change
C)Causing "goose bumps" in response to cold temperature or fear
D)Causing the movements associated with airflow
E)Pumping of the blood through the heart
Q2) Cardiac muscle is found in the walls of the heart and blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both neurons and neuroglia are able to generate and conduct nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neuroglia are the supporting cells for neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Nerve cells are also called neuroglia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the stratum corneum?
A)It is only present in thick skin.
B)The cells of the stratum corneum are dead.
C)It consists of several layers of keratinized cells.
D)It is the outermost layer of the epidermis.
E)All of these are true of the stratum corneum.
Q2) The lunula of a nail has a whitish appearance, because it is covered by a thick region of the nail bed, which hides the color of the underlying blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the epidermis?
A)It consists of stratified squamous epithelium.
B)In some areas of the body, it consists of 5 strata, while in others, it consists of 4 strata.
C)It is the more superficial of the major skin layers.
D)Some of the sweat glands and hair follicles lie entirely within the epidermis.
E)All of these are true of the epidermis.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of osteoclasts in bone tissue?
A)They form blood cells.
B)They dissolve bone to release calcium salts into the blood.
C)They are the stem cells of bone tissue.
D)They are isolated within the bone matrix, and they function in bone homeostasis.
E)They form bone by depositing bone matrix.
Q2) Chicken bones soaked in vinegar or hydrochloric acid overnight become flexible, because the acid dissolves the collagen fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following structures would NOT be found in the long bones of a mature adult?
A)Epiphyses
B)Epiphyseal plates
C)Red bone marrow
D)Epiphyseal lines
E)Diaphyses
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Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distal end of the humerus articulates with the A)carpals.
B)radius and ulna.
C)tibia and fibula.
D)tarsals.
E)phalanges.
Q2) The bones that connect the upper and lower limbs to the axial skeleton are those of the pectoral and pelvic girdles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The axial skeleton contains more bones than the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ribs are attached posteriorly to the ________.
A)vertebrae
B)sacrum
C)scapula
D)coccyx
E)sternum
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Chapter 14: Skull
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coronoid process, mental foramen, and ramus are all found on the A)maxilla.
B)mandible.
C)ethmoid bone.
D)sphenoid bone.
E)parietal bone.
Q2) Which of the following bones does not articulate with any other bone, but is attached to muscles of the tongue and larynx?
A)Sphenoid bone
B)Palatine bone
C)Vomer bone
D)Stapes
E)Hyoid bone
Q3) The superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae are all found on the ethmoid bone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The skull is part of the appendicular skeleton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inferior portion of the sternum is called the A)manubrium.
B)spinous process.
C)xiphoid process.
D)body.
E)facet.
Q2) The lateral projections on cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae are called A)spinous processes.
B)pedicles.
C)transverse processes.
D)lateral process.
E)transverse foramina.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the curvatures of the vertebral column?
A)The thoracic and sacral curvatures are convex on the anterior side and concave on the posterior side.
B)There are four curvatures of the vertebral column.
C)Primary curvatures are formed by the time of birth.
D)The cervical and lumbar curvatures are secondary curvatures.
E)All of these are true of the curvatures of the vertebral column.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the pectoral girdle?
A)The clavicles meet along their medial borders above the sternum.
B)It consists of the clavicles and scapulae.
C)The scapulae do not meet along their medial surfaces.
D)The loose attachment of the pectoral girdle to the humerus provides flexibility, but also increases shoulder injuries.
E)All of these are true of the pectoral girdle.
Q2) Which of the following parts of the scapula articulates with another bone?
A)Coracoid process
B)Superior border
C)Glenoid cavity
D)Scapular spine
E)Infraspinous fossa
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the bones of the hand?
A)The hand contains a single metacarpal for each digit.
B)The carpals are arranged in 2 rows of 4 bones each.
C)The metacarpals articulate with the proximal phalanges.
D)All 5 digits of the hand contain 3 phalanges.
E)All of these are true of the bones of the hand.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the differences between the male and female pelves?
A)The pelvis is heavier, and contains thicker bones in the female.
B)The pelvic outlet is larger in the female pelvis.
C)The iliac crest is less flared in the male.
D)The acetabula are larger and closer together in the male.
E)All of these are true of the differences between the male and female pelves.
Q2) Which of the following structures is NOT found on the femur?
A)Fovea capitis
B)Linea aspera
C)Gluteal tuberosity
D)Lesser trochanter
E)Obturator foramen
Q3) All of the following structures are found on the tibia except the A)medial malleolus.
B)tibial tuberosity.
C)lateral malleolus.
D)anterior border.
E)lateral condyle.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the fontanels?
A)They are sometimes called "soft spots."
B)They are areas of incomplete ossification in the skull of an infant.
C)They occur between the flat bones of the skull, the vertebrae, and the long bones of the upper and lower limbs.
D)They allow for cranial compression during childbirth, and rapid brain development after birth.
E)All of these are true of the fontanels.
Q2) Which of the following fontanels are paired, occurring in 2 different places on the fetal skull?
A)Anterior and posterior
B)Anterior and sphenoidal
C)Mastoid and sphenoidal
D)Mastoid and posterior
E)All of the fontanels are paired in the fetal skull.
Q3) The posterior fontanel is surrounded by the parietal and occipital bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) An intervertebral disc is composed of fibrocartilage, and is slightly moveable; this type of joint is classified as a A)syndesmosis.
B)symphysis.
C)gomphosis.
D)synchondrosis.
E)suture.
Q2) Which of the following structures is NOT found in a synovial joint?
A)Joint capsule
B)Synovial membrane
C)Articular cartilage
D)Ligaments
E)All of these structures are found in a synovial joint.
Q3) Which of the following is a pivot joint?
A)The hip and shoulder joints
B)Intercarpal and intertarsal joints
C)The elbow and the interphalangeal joints
D)The joint between the dens and atlas
E)The knee
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Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Q1) What is a fascicle of a skeletal muscle?
A)A layer of connective tissue surrounding an entire skeletal muscle
B)A contractile unit of a myofibril
C)An inward extension of the sarcolemma through the muscle fiber
D)A bundle of skeletal muscle fibers
E)A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates
Q2) In a motor unit, each neuron innervates (controls)a single muscle fiber.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The synaptic knob of a neuromuscular junction is the portion of the muscle fiber that contains receptor sites for neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which region of a sarcomere contains thick filaments overlapping with thin filaments?
A)A band
B)Z line
C)H zone
D)I band
E)M line
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Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Electromyography is a recording of voltage on the skin surface, which is derived from the contraction of skeletal muscles under the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of muscle fatigue?
A)It involves a decrease in the force of muscle contraction, even when the muscle is still under stimulation.
B)It may be caused by conduction failure, due to accumulation of K ions in the transverse tubules of skeletal muscle fibers
C)It usually occurs when a muscle is being stimulated during very light work or exercise.
D)It may be caused by decreased responsiveness of a muscle fiber to low pH, resulting from a build-up of lactic acid
E)All of these are true of muscle fatigue.
Q3) The activation of additional motor units in a skeletal muscle, in order to increase muscle tension, is called motor unit recruitment.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the masseter muscle?
A)It originates on the zygomatic arch.
B)It is innervated by the facial nerve.
C)It inserts on the lateral portion of the mandible.
D)It closes the jaw by elevating the mandible.
E)All of these are true of the masseter muscle.
Q2) All of the muscles that move the hyoid bone and larynx are innervated by the facial nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The muscles that move the head are found in the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the only muscle of mastication that depresses and protracts the mandible?
A)Medial pterygoid
B)Buccinator
C)Lateral pterygoid
D)Masseter
E)Termporalis
24
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the biceps brachii muscle?
A)It is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.
B)It flexes the elbow, and also supinates the forearm and hand
C)The name of the muscle implies that it has 2 origins.
D)It inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna.
E)All of these are true of the biceps brachii muscle.
Q2) Which of the following muscles is located on the anterior side of the scapula?
A)Supraspinatus
B)Teres major
C)Subscapularis
D)Teres minor
E)Infraspinatus
Q3) The flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris both flex the wrist and abduct the hand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All muscles cross only one joint.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) The diamond-shaped area between the lower limbs is called the perineum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The deep muscles of the back flex the vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unilateral contraction of the muscles of the erector spinal group results in
A)extension of the vertebral column.
B)lateral flexion of the trunk.
C)flexion of the head.
D)flexion of the vertebral column.
E)abduction of the hip.
Q4) Which muscles form the outermost layer of the layered abdominal wall muscles?
A)Internal oblique
B)External intercostal
C)Transversus abdominis
D)Rectus abdominis
E)External oblique
26
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) All of the following are posterior leg muscles except the A)gastrocnemius.
B)soleus.
C)popliteus.
D)extensor digitorum longus.
E)All of these are posterior leg muscles.
Q2) Muscles that move the leg at the knee joint have origins on the A)tibia.
B)patella.
C)tibia or fibula.
D)femur or hip bone.
E)fibula.
Q3) Why are the psoas major and the iliacus sometimes called the iliopsoas?
A)They join at their superior ends and have the same origin.
B)They are both innervated by the femoral nerve.
C)They join at their inferior ends and have the same insertion.
D)They both extend the thigh.
E)All of these are true.
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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) What region of the body would you palpate to find the zygomatic arch?
A)Lower limb region
B)Head and neck region
C)Lower torso
D)Upper limb region
E)Upper torso region
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of examining surface features?
A)It helps to determine locations for taking the pulse.
B)It helps in the assessment of injection sites.
C)It helps in the insertion of examination tubes.
D)It helps to listen to heart, lung, and bowel sounds.
E)All of these are functions of examining surface features.
Q3) All of the following are soft tissue features of the upper limb except the A)cubital fossa.
B)thenar eminence.
C)olecranon process.
D)biceps brachii.
E)All of these are soft tissue features of the upper limb.
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Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) Sensory neurons are
A)always multipolar.
B)mostly unipolar, but some are bipolar.
C)always unipolar.
D)mostly multipolar, but some are bipolar.
E)always bipolar.
Q2) A nerve is the same structure as a neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of neuroglia forms the myelin sheath around some axons of the PNS (peripheral nervous system)?
A)Schwann cells
B)Astrocytes
C)Satellite cells
D)Oligodendrocytes
E)Ependymal cells
Q4) Neurons conduct action potentials (nerve impulses), but neuroglia do not.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The anterior ramus of each spinal nerve sends out communicating rami that connect to
A)the brain.
B)the meninges.
C)a sympathetic trunk ganglion.
D)the vertebrae.
E)the skin and muscles of the back.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the subarachnoid space?
A)It contains cerebrospinal fluid, which cushions and nourishes the neurons of the spinal cord.
B)It lies between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
C)It is attached to the outer edge of the spinal cord.
D)It contains blood, which brings oxygen to the spinal cord neurons.
E)None of these is true of the subarachnoid space.
Q3) Which of the following nerves is part of the cervical plexus?
A)Musculocutaneous nerve
B)Median nerve
C)Femoral nerve
D)Phrenic nerve
E)Pudendal nerve
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the crossed extensor reflex?
A)It occurs in conjunction with a withdrawal reflex.
B)When flexor muscles of the lower limb contract due to stepping on a sharp object, the extensor muscles in the same limb are inhibited.
C)It occurs in reflexes in both the upper and lower limb.
D)When flexor muscles of the lower limb contract due to stepping on a sharp object, the extensor muscles in the opposite limb are stimulated.
E)The crossed extensor reflex helps a person remain upright during the withdrawal reflex.
Q2) Reflexes involving skeletal muscles are called ________ reflexes.
A)autonomic
B)spinal
C)somatic
D)skeletal
E)subconscious
Q3) Reflex arcs for stretch reflexes are polysynaptic, while those for withdrawal reflexes are monosynaptic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) The spinal cord is the largest and most complex portion of the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Among the pairs of cranial nerves, 3 are sensory, 4 are mixed, and 5 are primarily motor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Swallowing problems might indicate damage to all of the following cranial nerves except
A)the trigeminal nerve.
B)the vagus nerve.
C)the hypoglossal nerve.
D)the glossopharyngeal nerve.
E)damage to any of these nerves might cause swallowing problems.
Q4) The cranial nerves are basically numbered from superior to inferior.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The reaction time for involuntary reflex responses is typically shorter than the reaction time in voluntary reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the average reaction time for all subjects in each condition is called the group
A)variance.
B)median.
C)standard deviation.
D)mean.
E)mode.
Q3) Which of the following represents the correct order of components in an involuntary spinal reflex arc?
A)Effector, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory receptor
B)Sensory neuron, interneuron, sensory receptor, motor neuron, effector
C)Sensory receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
D)Interneuron, sensory receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron
E)Sensory receptor, motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron, effector
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Chapter 32: Electroencephalography I: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to individual differences in the characteristics of brain waves?
A)Personality
B)Gender
C)Age
D)Type of activity the person is engaged in
E)All of these factors contribute to individual differences in the characteristics of brain waves.
Q2) How is desynchronization of the alpha waves observed in the EEG, when a person with eyes closed suddenly opens them?
A)The amplitude of the alpha wave increases.
B)The frequency of the alpha wave increases.
C)The amplitude of the alpha wave decreases.
D)The frequency of the alpha wave decreases.
E)The alpha waves stop, as shown by an amplitude and a frequency of 0.
Q3) All 4 types of brain waves can usually be observed in the EEG of a normal adult.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) The corpora quadrigemina, cerebral peduncles, and cerebral aqueduct are all parts of the A)midbrain.
B)diencephalon.
C)medulla oblongata.
D)thalamus.
E)pons.
Q2) In a median section of a sheep brain, the thalamus lies ________ the midbrain.
A)superior
B)lateral
C)anterior
D)inferior
E)posterior
Q3) On a median section of a sheep brain, the hypothalamus lies ________ to the thalamus.
A)superior
B)posterior
C)inferior
D)lateral
E)anterior
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) For tactile localization, the brain interprets information from touch receptor fields in the
A)primary motor cortex.
B)brainstem.
C)primary somatosensory cortex.
D)diencephalon.
E)cerebellum.
Q2) An environmental temperature of 85°F would stimulate a ________, and a temperature of 180°F would stimulate a ________.
A)nociceptor; nociceptor
B)warm receptor; warm receptor
C)thermoreceptor; mechanoreceptor
D)warm receptor; nociceptor
E)mechanoreceptor; thermoreceptor
Q3) The results of the temperature experiment suggest that there is a greater concentration of cold receptors than warm receptors in the skin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) Taste receptors for the 5 different categories of taste sensations are evenly distributed on the tongue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of cells are olfactory receptor cells?
A)Squamous epithelial cells
B)Columnar epithelial cells
C)Bipolar neurons
D)Cuboidal epithelial cells
E)Multipolar neurons
Q3) The vagus nerve transmits gustatory nerve impulses from the entire tongue to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sensory adaption occurs very quickly in both olfaction and gustation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Olfactory and gustatory receptors are both chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) The inner layer of the eye consists of the pigmented and neural portions of the
A)choroid and ciliary body.
B)retina and optic nerve.
C)lens and iris.
D)sclera and cornea.
E)lacrimal gland.
Q2) The aqueous humor occupies and flows through the anterior and posterior chambers and the pupil.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of cones?
A)They provide for color vision.
B)Only cones are found in the fovea centralis.
C)Cones are much more numerous than rods in the peripheral portions of the retina.
D)Cones are responsible for sharp vision.
E)All of these are true of cones.
Q4) The anterior cavity of the eyeball is much smaller than the posterior cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) When a person focuses on a close object, the pupil constricts along with the normal accommodation reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures refract(s)light to focus it on to the proper area of the retina?
A)Iris
B)Ciliary body
C)Cornea and lens
D)Pupil
E)Optic disc and ciliary body
Q3) About 7% of females are colorblind.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A defect in the curvature of the cornea or lens results in a condition called A)emmetropia.
B)hyperopia.
C)myopia.
D)astigmatism.
E)presbyopia.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the external ear?
A)Auricle
B)Pinna
C)External acoustic meatus
D)Tympanic cavity
E)All of these structures are parts of the external ear.
Q2) Which membrane separates the cochlear duct from the scala tympani, and provides a surface on which the spiral organ rests?
A)Vestibular membrane
B)Tectorial membrane
C)Cochlear membrane
D)Basilar membrane
E)Tympanic membrane
Q3) Which chamber of the inner ear receives sound waves directly from the oval window?
A)Cochlear duct
B)Scala media
C)Scala tympani
D)Vestibule
E)Scala vestibuli
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of otoliths?
A)They cause the stereocilia to bend, which is the stimulus for sending nerve impulses to the cerebrum.
B)They consist of magnesium chloride.
C)They add weight to the otolithic membrane as the head is tilted, which causes it to sag.
D)They are embedded in the gelatinous portion of the otolithic membrane.
E)All of these are true of otoliths.
Q2) The crista ampullaris projects into the lumen of the bony labyrinth of the semicircular canal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The organs of static and dynamic equilibrium both contain hair cells, with stereocilia embedded in a gelatinous mass.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both the crista ampullaris and the macula contain otoliths.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following endocrine glands secretes 2 antagonistic hormones?
A)The pancreas
B)The ovaries
C)The thyroid gland
D)The adrenal medulla
E)The pituitary gland
Q2) The hormones that are released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland are synthesized by the A)thymus gland.
B)anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
C)pineal gland.
D)posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
E)hypothalamus.
Q3) A major difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is that endocrine glands are ductless.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hormones FSH and LH have no functions in the male.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the hormone insulin?
A)It causes the synthesis of glycogen from glucose in the liver and skeletal muscles.
B)It causes facilitated diffusion of glucose across the plasma membranes of its target cells.
C)It lowers the blood sugar level.
D)It inhibits protein synthesis and fat storage.
E)All of these are true of the hormone insulin.
Q2) Normal or even higher than normal levels of insulin can be found in a person with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A)Insulin administration
B)Control of body weight
C)Avoidance of insulin-triggering foods
D)Exercise
E)All of these are treatments for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) If your differential white blood cell count showed that you had 10% lymphocytes, what could you conclude?
A)That you have a deficiency of lymphocytes, or that another type of white blood cell is elevated
B)That you most likely have a parasitic worm infection
C)That your lymphocytes are in the normal range
D)That you have an excess of lymphocytes
E)That you most likely have tuberculosis
Q2) What is the main function of thrombocytes?
A)Hemostasis
B)Oxygen transport
C)Phagocytosis of bacteria
D)Control of inflammation
E)Dilation of blood vessels
Q3) Formed elements make up about 55% of the volume of the blood, and plasma makes up 45%.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) The binding site for oxygen molecules in red blood cells is the globin portion of the hemoglobin molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most important factor influencing the percent saturation of hemoglobin is A)the pH.
B)the temperature.
C)the partial pressure of oxygen.
D)the carbon dioxide level.
E)All of these factors are equally important in determining the percent saturation of hemoglobin.
Q3) A normal average hematocrit in a male is about
A)15%.
B)45%.
C)25%.
D)<1%.
E)55%.
Q4) On the average, males have a slightly higher hematocrit than females. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) A person with type AB blood contains ________ antigens on his/her red blood cells, and ________ antibodies in his/her blood plasma.
A)B; anti-A
B)neither A nor B; anti-A and anti-B
C)A and B; Anti-A and Anti-B
D)A; anti-B
E)A and B; neither anti-A nor anti-B
Q2) What would happen if a transfusion recipient with type A- blood was given type A+ donor blood? (Assume the recipient had never been exposed to the Rh factor.)
A)The recipient would begin to produce anti-Rh antibodies in a few days, which would agglutinate the donor's red blood cells.
B)There would be an immediate transfusion reaction, and the recipient would become very ill or even die.
C)Due to the influx of Rh antigens, the recipient's blood type would change from A- to A+.
D)The recipient's red blood cells would be agglutinated by the donor's anti-A antibodies.
E)There would be no effect on the recipient; this is a compatible transfusion.
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) The large arteries associated with the heart all transport oxygen-rich blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a branch of the aortic arch?
A)Right subclavian artery
B)Left common carotid artery
C)Brachiocephalic trunk
D)Left subclavian artery
E)All of these are branches of the aortic arch.
Q3) The great cardiac vein runs through the same sulcus as the anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pulmonary trunk is ________ to the aorta as they emerge from the heart.
A)posterior
B)lateral
C)anterior
D)distal
E)superior
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Chapter 46: Cardiac Cycle
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Q1) During the cardiac cycle, the semilunar valves close during ventricular diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the cardiac cycle, the atria relax while the ventricles are contracting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following events is not observed in the ECG, because it is hidden in the QRS complex?
A)Atrial depolarization
B)Ventricular repolarization
C)Atrial systole
D)Atrial repolarization
E)Ventricular depolarization
Q4) The AV bundle and the bundle branches are located in the ________ of the heart.
A)right atrium
B)interventricular septum
C)aorta
D)left atrium
E)interatrial septum
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which portion(s)of the cardiac conduction system is/are found in the right atrium of the heart?
A)SA node and AV node
B)AV bundle and the bundle branches
C)Purkinje fibers
D)AV bundle
E)SA node
Q2) Which of the following is true of the intervals of the ECG?
A)They lie entirely along the isoelectric line.
B)They all contain at least 2 segments.
C)They all contain at least 1 wave and 1 segment.
D)They all contain the QRS complex.
E)They all contain the P wave.
Q3) Typically, the heart rate increases during inspiration, and decreases during expiration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ECG is a recording of an action potential of a single cardiac muscle cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) Which artery transports blood from the brachial vein to the subclavian vein?
A)Axillary vein
B)Basilic vein
C)Cephalic vein
D)Median cubital vein
E)Thyrocervical vein
Q2) Which of the following veins has an artery with the same name that runs parallel to it?
A)Basilic vein
B)Hepatic portal vein
C)Cephalic vein
D)External iliac vein
E)Great saphenous vein
Q3) The first branches of the aorta are the
A)right and left subclavian arteries.
B)right and left pulmonary arteries.
C)common carotid arteries.
D)right and left coronary arteries.
E)brachiocephalic arteries.
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Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the effects of various factors on blood pressure?
A)An increase in cardiac output increases blood pressure.
B)An increase in peripheral resistance decreases blood pressure.
C)An increase in blood volume increases blood pressure.
D)An increase in vasoconstriction of blood vessels increases blood pressure.
E)All of these are true of the effects of various factors on the blood pressure.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the respiratory pump?
A)It is a mechanism that helps with venous return to the heart.
B)Contraction of the diaphragm causes an increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity, and a decrease in pressure.
C)Increased venous return to the heart causes the heart rate to increase.
D)More blood enters the heart during expiration than inspiration.
E)All of these are true of the respiratory pump.
Q3) Blood pressure would decrease if either the heart rate or stroke volume decreased.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the structure of a lymph node?
A)The hilum is the entry/exit point for blood vessels and (a)certain lymphatic vessel(s).
B)Trabeculae are inward extensions of the capsule, that provide physical support.
C)Lymphatic nodules are all located in the cortex of the node.
D)A lymph node typically has one afferent lymphatic vessel and several efferent lymphatic vessels.
E)All of these are true of the structure of a lymph node.
Q2) In the spleen, the white pulp contains ________ and the red pulp contains ________.
A)red blood cells; neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
B)neutrophils; monocytes
C)mostly macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
D)mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages; mainly lymphocytes
E)mainly lymphocytes; mostly red blood cells with some lymphocytes and macrophages
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52
Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) The paranasal sinuses open into the nasopharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood vessels, nerves and a main bronchus all enter each lung at the hilum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of epithelial tissue contains goblet cells and cilia, and lines the wall of the trachea?
A)Simple squamous epithelium
B)Simple columnar
C)Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D)Stratified squamous
E)Simple cuboidal
Q4) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the
A)cricoid cartilage.
B)corniculate cartilage.
C)epiglottic cartilage.
D)arytenoid cartilage.
E)thyroid cartilage.
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Which of the following is not a muscle of forced expiration?
A)Interosseous portion of the internal intercostals
B)Rectus abdominis
C)Pectoralis minor
D)External oblique
E)All of these are muscles of forced expiration.
Q2) The ________ can be calculated by multiplying breathing rate by tidal volume.
A)alveolar ventilation rate
B)anatomic dead space
C)inspiratory reserve volume
D)minute respiratory volume
E)inspiratory capacity
Q3) Which of the following muscles is mainly responsible for elevating the sternum during forced inspiration?
A)Sternocleidomastoid
B)Pectoralis minor
C)External oblique
D)Diaphragm
E)External intercostal
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following respiratory volumes and capacities has the lowest volume?
A)Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
B)Residual volume (RV)
C)Tidal volume (TV)
D)Functional residual capacity (FRC)
E)Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Q2) Total lung capacity (TLC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a tidal expiration is called the
A)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
B)residual volume (RV).
C)vital capacity (VC).
D)anatomic dead space.
E)functional residual capacity (FRC).
Q4) A respiratory capacity is the sum of two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) The central chemoreceptors for respiration are located in the ________; they monitor the blood concentration(s)of ________.
A)pons; oxygen
B)medulla oblongata; carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
C)aortic and carotid arteries; oxygen
D)pons; carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
E)medulla oblongata; oxygen
Q2) Muscles of inspiration include all of the following except the A)external obliques.
B)pectoralis minor.
C)scalenes.
D)external intercostals.
E)All of these are muscles of inspiration.
Q3) Which of the following is not detected by the peripheral chemoreceptors?
A)An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood
B)A decrease in the level of oxygen in the blood
C)An increase in the level of hydrogen ions in the blood
D)An increase in the level of sodium ions in the blood
E)The peripheral chemoreceptors detect all of these changes.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) All of the following organs are part of the alimentary canal except the A)pharynx.
B)pancreas.
C)large intestine.
D)mouth.
E)esophagus.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the anatomy of the stomach?
A)The muscularis contains three layers, whereas most tubular digestive organs contain two.
B)The greater curvature is on the lateral and inferior surfaces of the stomach.
C)The pyloric sphincter regulates the flow of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum.
D)The cardia is the region that lies superior to the opening of the esophagus into the stomach.
E)All of these are true of the stomach.
Q3) The splenic flexure of the large intestine is on the left side of the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) All digestive enzymes have the same optimum pH ranges.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pancreatic amylase has the same action as salivary amylase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction, it is consumed in the process, so it cannot be used repeatedly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Denaturation does not alter the primary structure of an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not true of amylase?
A)It breaks down starch into maltose.
B)It is produced by more than one organ of the digestive system.
C)Its optimum temperature is close to room temperature.
D)The optimum pH for amylase activity is 6.8 - 7.0.
E)All of these are true of amylase.
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Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) In which step(s)of the catabolism of nutrients is/are oxygen directly consumed?
A)Krebs cycle
B)Oxidative phosphorylation
C)Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
D)Glycolysis
E)Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
Q2) Urea is derived from the breakdown of
A)glycerol.
B)amino acids.
C)pyruvate.
D)fatty acids.
E)glucose.
Q3) Anabolic reactions release energy, while catabolic reactions use energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In general, a small, thin person has a higher metabolic rate than a large, heavy person.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of urine flow through the kidney?
A)The renal pelvis narrows down to become the ureter.
B)The renal pelvis receives urine directly from the minor calyces.
C)The minor calyces receive urine directly from papillary ducts in the renal papillae.
D)Major calyces receive urine from minor calyces.
E)All of these are true of urine flow through the kidney.
Q2) As tubular fluid flows through the nephron, fluid from the proximal convoluted tubule flows directly into the
A)distal convoluted tubule.
B)glomerular capsule.
C)nephron loop.
D)glomerulus.
E)minor calyx.
Q3) The kidneys are located inside the double-layered peritoneal membrane, just like most of the other organs of the abdominopelvic cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the sediments found in urine samples?
A)Normal sediments include mucus, particular crystals, and various cells.
B)Sediments are examined under a microscope.
C)Many types are casts are normal sediments found in the urine.
D)The presence of epithelial cells that line the urinary tract in urine sediment indicates a urinary tract infection.
E)All of these are true of the sediments found in urine samples.
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be a nitrogenous waste, and is normally found in urine?
A)Urea
B)Ketones
C)Glucose
D)Hemoglobin
E)Bilirubin
Q3) What effect would diabetes insipidus have on a person's urinalysis?
A)The specific gravity would be higher than normal.
B)The pH would be abnormally high.
C)The specific gravity would be lower than normal.
D)The glucose level would be higher than normal.
E)There would be no effect on the urinalysis.
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Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cilia of the pseudostratified columnar epithelium in the epididymis beat back and forth to transport mature sperm out of the epididymis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The spermatic cord contains all of the following except A)lymphatic vessels.
B)blood vessels.
C)the ejaculatory duct.
D)the ductus deferens.
E)nerves.
Q3) When sperm leave the epididymis, they are transported directly into the A)seminal vesicles.
B)ductus deferens.
C)prostate gland.
D)urethra.
E)ejaculatory duct.
Q4) The corpus spongiosum lies dorsal to the corpora cavernosa in the penis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Q1) The perimetrium is the outer layer of the uterine wall, and it is also called the serosa.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following ligaments is a cylindrical band that connects the ovary to the uterus?
A)Ovarian ligament
B)Short ligament
C)Round ligament
D)Broad ligament of uterus
E)Suspensory ligament of ovary
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the uterine tubes?
A)The infundibulum is the narrow portion close to the uterus.
B)They are the site of fertilization and early cleavage divisions.
C)The ampulla is the middle section.
D)They are also called oviducts or fallopian tubes.
E)All of these are true of the uterine tubes.
Q4) The fornices are thin folds of mucosa that partly close the vaginal orifice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Q1) During which phase of meiosis do the centromeres of double-stranded chromosomes divide, followed by the sister chromatids moving toward opposite poles of the cell, and now being called single-stranded chromosomes?
A)Anaphase I
B)Metaphase II
C)Anaphase II
D)Telophase II
E)Metaphase I
Q2) During cleavage divisions, there is an increase in both the number and size of the cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How long after fertilization does the blastocyst implant into the endometrium?
A)1 day
B)6-7 days
C)2-3 days
D)21 days
E)13-14 days
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Chapter 63: Genetics
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Q1) In sex-linked traits, the cells of all offspring contain two copies of the genes for these traits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In coin toss experiments, as well as in traits inherited by children in the same family, each event is independent of all others; in other words, chance does not have a memory of previous events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a husband and wife are both carriers of albinism, which is a recessive trait with two alleles, what is the probability that each of their children will be albino?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q4) Carriers of a recessive trait are always heterozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
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