Biomedical Sciences
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underpinning human health and disease. The course integrates foundational knowledge from areas such as biochemistry, genetics, cell biology, pharmacology, microbiology, and physiology to understand the mechanisms of disease, diagnostic techniques, and therapeutic interventions. Students gain both theoretical and practical skills through lectures, laboratory work, and research projects, preparing them for diverse careers in healthcare, research, biotechnology, and further studies in medical and allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Immunology for Pharmacy 1st Edition by Dennis Flaherty PhD
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26 Chapters
300 Verified Questions
300 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1356
Page 2
Chapter 1: Cells and Organs of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/27080
Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of _______________ is to ingest and destroy bacteria.
A) B cells
B) Eosinophils
C) Natural killer (NK) cells
D) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
Answer: D
Q2) B cells that are actively proliferating are located in the ________________ of the lymph node.
A) Mantle layer
B) Germinal center
C) Medullary region
D) Paracortical region
Answer: B
Q3) Phagocytosis is the main function of which of the following cell types?
A) NK cells
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Macrophages
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Innate Immunity
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/27081
Sample Questions
Q1) The main immune component mediating septic shock is:
A) TNF-a
B) Defensins
C) Complement
D) Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
Answer: A
Q2) Activation of a phagocyte by Toll-like receptors (TLRs) bound to a pathogen triggers what innate immune response?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Complement activation
C) Cathelicidin production
D) Decrease in body temperature
Answer: A
Q3) Which are the molecules that are common to many pathogens and are recognized by phagocytes and other innate immune cells?
A) PAMPs
B) Complement
C) Toll-like receptors
D) Mannose-binding lectin
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Immunogenicity and Antigenicity
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would you treat a mother with type A Rh-negative blood who is pregnant with a type O Rh-positive baby?
A) A dose of RhoGAM at 28 weeks and following delivery
B) A high dose of RhoGAM and then a low dose of RhoGAM
C) A dose of RhoGAM only if there is a trauma or premature termination of pregnancy
D) RhoGAM is not necessary in this situation because there is no compatibility issue
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following drugs can react with red blood cells (RBCs) to cause hemolysis?
A) Penicillin
B) Tetracycline
C) Tolbutamide
D) Procainamide
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Antigen Presenting Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) HLA class III genes produce:
A) Stress molecules
B) Complement components
C) Antigen presenting molecules
D) Receptors that activate natural killer (NK) cells
Q2) Individuals who express HLA-DR13:
A) Can more easily clear hepatitis B virus
B) Are more susceptible to tuberculosis infection
C) Are more susceptible to Candida albicans infections
D) Can more easily eliminate respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Q3) Why are HLA heterozygotes more resistant to disease than homozygotes?
A) They have more single nucleotide polymorphisms.
B) They have a more diverse range of minor HLA loci.
C) They have more diversity in the antibodies they produce.
D) They have a more varied repertoire of antigen-presenting HLA molecules.
Q4) Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class I molecules bind antigens:
A) At the ends and the antigens are larger than HLA class II antigens
B) At the ends and the antigens are smaller than HLA class II antigens
C) In the middle and the antigens are larger than HLA class II antigens
D) In the middle and the antigens are smaller than HLA class II antigens
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Chapter 5: Antigen Presenting Cells
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _________________ is the vacuole in a B cell where an endocytosed antigen is located.
A) Iccosome
B) Endosome
C) Phagosome
D) Phagolysosome
Q2) Which of the following cells are only able to present antigen under special circumstances, and as a result are called amateur antigen presenting cells (APCs)?
I. B cells
II. Dendritic cells
III. Endothelial cells
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Chapter 6: Surface Interactions Between T Cells and
Antigen-Presenting Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are the g/d T cells more similar to the innate immune response than the adaptive immune response?
A) They can present antigen to other T cells.
B) They are able to phagocytose pathogens.
C) They do not require activation to eliminate pathogens.
D) They recognize general features of pathogens rather than a specific epitope.
Q2) In the function of the TCR, the purpose of the CD3 complex is to:
A) Bind antigen
B) Transduce signals
C) Anchor the TCR in the membrane
D) Stabilize the interaction between the TCR and the APC
Q3) T cells with the g/d TCR are primarily located in the:
A) Bone marrow
B) Lymph nodes
C) Mucosal tissue
D) Peripheral blood
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8
Chapter 7: Intracellular Signaling and T Cell Activation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major defect in X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is:
A) Inability to produce IL-2
B) Lack of ZAP-70 protein kinase
C) Inability to produce B or T cells
D) Lack of g-chain in interleukin receptors
Q2) The activation of inositol-1,4,5-triphosphate (IP ) signaling results in:
A) Activation of NF-kB signaling
B) Release of intracellular calcium
C) Phosphorylation of downstream targets
D) Formation of the immunological synapse
Q3) Cyclosporine A binding to cyclophilin blocks T cell activation by:
A) Inhibiting calcineurin and NFAT
B) Inhibiting RAP by binding to FKBP-12
C) Inhibiting IL-2 binding to the IL-2 receptor
D) Inhibiting calcineurin and protein kinase C (PKC)
Q4) Which of the following is an example of autocrine signaling?
A) An NK cell responding to IL-12 produced by a macrophage.
B) A macrophage responding to TNF made by the same macrophage.
C) A T helper cell responding to IL-2 produced by a neighboring T cell.
D) A neutrophil responding to IL-1 produced by vascular endothelial cell.
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Chapter 8: B Cell Activation and Signaling
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are components of the BCR co-receptor complex?
I. CR2
II. CD19
III. CD22
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) The phosphorylated immuno-receptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (ITAMs) of the BCR serve as a docking site for what adaptor protein?
A) Syk
B) NFAT
C) ZAP-70
D) Src kinase
Q3) Most long-lived plasma cells reside in the:
A) Spleen
B) Thymus
C) Lymph node
D) Bone marrow
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Chapter 9: Antibodies
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An IgG2 subclass response is important for proper immunization with the meningococcal vaccine because:
A) IgG2 responds better to protein antigens
B) IgG2 responds better to carbohydrate antigens
C) Other IgG subclasses do not activate complement as efficiently
D) Other IgG subclasses are not always induced following vaccination
Q2) Which of the following antibody regions is involved in antigen binding?
I. Light chain variable region
II. Heavy chain variable region
III. Heavy chain constant region
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q3) Fab fragments can be used clinically to treat:
A) Job syndrome
B) Digoxin overdose
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
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Chapter 10: Antibody Diversity
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct order of the steps of light chain gene recombination.
A) Gene segments loop close together, signal joint removed, hairpins formed and opened, gene segments ligated together
B) Hairpins formed and opened, gene segments loop close together, signal joint removed, gene segments ligated together
C) Signal joint removed, hairpins formed and opened, gene segments loop close together, gene segments ligated together
D) Gene segments loop close together, gene segments ligated together, hairpins formed and opened, signal joint removed
Q2) What is the purpose of the recognition signal sequences (RSSs) in rearrangement of genes?
A) The RSSs are the coding regions of the DNA.
B) The RSSs are the enzymes that facilitate recombination.
C) The RSSs are spacers that align genes on the same side of DNA.
D) The RSSs are the areas that determine the antigen-binding pocket.
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Chapter 11: Complement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria lack which complement regulatory components on the host cell surfaces?
A) Factor H and Factor I
B) Decay accelerating factor (DAF) and CD59
C) Membrane cofactor protein (MCP) and C1INH
D) Homologous restriction factor (HRF) and properdin
Q2) What is the role of C9 in the complement pathways?
A) Creates pore
B) C3 convertase
C) C5 convertase
D) Binds to antibodies on microbe surface
Q3) Which component is common to all three complement pathways?
A) C1
B) C2
C) C3
D) C4
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Chapter 12: Phagocytosis and Intracellular Killing
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of complement receptor binding to complement fragments during phagocytosis?
A) Reduces production of ATP
B) Causes production of catalase
C) Triggers production of superoxide
D) Facilitates internalization of pathogen
Q2) Some bacteria can avoid oxygen-dependent phagocytic killing by producing:
A) Catalase
B) Defensins
C) Singlet oxygen
D) Superoxide dismutase
Q3) Which is a key component in oxygen-independent phagocytic killing?
A) Lysozyme
B) Myeloperoxidase
C) Hypochlorous acid
D) Superoxide dismutase
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Chapter 13: Antibodies and in Vivo Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bispecific antibodies can react with:
A) Two different antigens
B) Two of the same antigen
C) Antigen and T cell or NK cell
D) Four different antigens on the same cell
Q2) Low platelet count and antibodies to platelets are signs of:
A) Serum sickness
B) Kawasaki disease
C) Erythroblastosis fetalis
D) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Q3) A serious potential side effect of using antiserum therapy is the development of immune complexes that can lead to serious damage in the:
A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Muscles
D) Kidneys
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15
Chapter 14: Antibodies and in Vitro Research and Diagnostic Assays
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To identify different surface markers on a population of cells, flow cytometry requires the use of:
A) Enzymes
B) Colorimetric dyes
C) Radioactive isotopes
D) Fluorescent antibodies
Q2) When treating leukemias and lymphomas, flow cytometry can aid the physician in diagnosis and treatment by:
A) Identifying increases in cell growth rates
B) Identifying changes in signaling pathways
C) Identifying if a drug has entered a cancer cell
D) Identifying surface markers on cancerous cells
Q3) Western blots are used to identify:
A) Different cell populations
B) Proteins in a complex mixture
C) Pregnancy hormone found in urine
D) Granularity and size of a population of cells
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Immediate Allergic Reactions
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral allergy syndrome is caused by:
A) Food allergies
B) Overproduction of eosinophils
C) Bacterial infection that stimulates IgE production
D) Cross reaction between shared antigens on food and pollen
Q2) What is the difference between anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions?
A) Anaphylaxis causes more serious symptoms.
B) Anaphylactoid reactions do not involve mast cells or basophils.
C) Anaphylactoid reactions cannot be prevented and anaphylactic reactions are preventable.
D) Anaphylaxis is caused by IgE and anaphylactoid reactions are caused by complement.
Q3) The radioallergosorbent (RAST) assay is used to test which individuals for allergies?
A) All individuals get a RAST test
B) Individuals younger than the age of 12
C) Individuals who are at risk for anaphylaxis during other types of testing
D) Individuals who have had no response to previous allergy testing but still appear to have allergies
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17
Chapter 16: Autoimmunity
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a symptom of Graves' disease?
A) Bulging eyes
B) Double vision
C) Blurred vision
D) Drooping eyelids
Q2) Which of the following autoimmune disorders involves a complement defect?
A) Rheumatic fever
B) Goodpasture syndrome
C) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Q3) Epstein-Barr virus is associated with the etiology of which of the following autoimmune diseases?
I. Type 1 diabetes
II. Rheumatoid arthritis
III. Ankylosing spondylitis
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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Chapter 17: Transplantation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/27096
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient may have pre-existing antibodies to a major or minor HLA antigen caused by:
I- Medication
II- Pregnancy
III- Previous transplant
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) How is the T cell response during transplant rejection different from the response during an infection?
A) Few T cells are responding during rejection
B) No T cells respond during rejection, only B cells
C) The number of T cells responding is much higher during rejection
D) The same amount of cells respond, but the response is stronger during rejection
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Chapter 18: Antigen Presentation for Cell-Mediated Response
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As antigen is processed prior to loading onto MHC class I molecules, the antigens are degraded into smaller fragments by the:
A) Proteasome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Phagolysosome
D) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
Q2) MHC class I molecules present antigen to:
A) NK cells
B) CD8 T cells
C) CD4 Th1 cells
D) CD4 Th2 cells
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to generate a CD8 T cell response?
A) Tapeworm infection
B) Influenza virus infection
C) Fungal infection causing athlete's foot
D) Group A Streptococcus infection (Strep throat)
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Delayed Type Hypersensitivity Reactions
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage of in vitro testing over the PPD skin test for TB?
I. The test is more accurate
II. The test can be completed in 1 day
III. The test is not affected by prior TB vaccinations
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
Q2) Which of the following can be found inside a granuloma?
A) Basophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Macrophages
Q3) What is the cause of photo contact dermatitis?
A) Soap
B) Acids
C) Poison ivy
D) Drugs or drug metabolites
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Chapter 20: Cytotoxic T Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a method that tumors use to evade the immune response?
A) Producing IL-2 analogs
B) Reducing TAP function
C) Upregulating MHC class I molecules
D) Engaging Fas receptors on T cells to cause T cell death
Q2) Cytotoxic (CD8+) T cells (CTLs) are activated by:
A) Antigen presented on MHC class I molecules
B) Antigen presented on MHC class II molecules
C) Antigen presented on MHC class I or II molecules
D) CTLs do not require activation to kill
Q3) What role does perforin perform in the death of target cells?
A) Perforin activates caspases.
B) Perforin creates a pore in the host cell.
C) Perforin disrupts mitochondrial function.
D) Perforin cleaves and activates granzymes.
Q4) Patients have a high risk of losing all of their teeth due which disease?
A) Melanoma
B) Papillion-Lefèvre syndrome
C) Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome type 2
D) Familial erythrophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis type 2
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Chapter 21: Natural Killer Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) NK cells have cell surface receptors that contain immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motifs (ITIMs), which bind ligand and recruit which type of molecule to transmit the inhibitory signal?
A) cAMP
B) Kinase
C) ATPase
D) Phosphatase
Q2) NKT cells require antigen presentation by:
I- CD1
II- MHC class I molecules
III- MHC class II molecules
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) I, II, and III
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23
Chapter 22: Factors That Influence the Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immune responses to idiotypes located outside the complementarity-determining regions (CDRs) result in:
A) Increases in autoantibody production
B) Downregulation of autoreactive B cells
C) Increases in activated regulatory T cells
D) Downregulation of MHC class II molecules on APCs
Q2) What is the outcome of matrilysin cleaving FasL from an activated T cell?
A) Soluble FasL is degraded and the activated T cell survives.
B) Soluble FasL binds to Fas and triggers the death of the activated T cell.
C) Soluble FasL binds to Fas and triggers the death of the regulatory T cell.
D) Soluble FasL is disseminated and causes widespread cell death in both immune cells and infected host cells.
Q3) What is the difference between an idiotype and an idiotope?
A) Idiotopes are on the antibody and idiotypes are on the antigen.
B) Idiotopes can only react with T cells and idiotypes can only react with B cells.
C) Idiotopes are an amino acid sequence, and idiotypes are groups of idiotopes.
D) Idiotopes and idiotypes have the same sequence but in different locations on the antibody.
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24
Chapter 23: Cytokines and Biological Modifiers
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Sample Questions
Q1) NY-ESO-1 would be a beneficial addition to a cancer vaccine because:
A) It stimulates macrophages
B) It stimulates the production NK cells
C) It stimulates both CD4 and CD8 T cells
D) It stimulates a strong antibody response
Q2) Oprelvekin increases levels of:
A) Platelets
B) Neutrophils
C) Macrophages
D) Red blood cells
Q3) What is one role that type I interferons play in the eradication of viral infections?
A) Inhibit viral uncoating
B) Inhibit viral protein synthesis
C) Block viral entry into host cells
D) Block release of viral progeny from host cells
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25
Chapter 24: Vaccines in Theory and Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between Freund's Incomplete Adjuvant (FIA) and Freund's Complete Adjuvant (FCA)?
A) FIA does not contain water.
B) FIA does not contain mineral oil.
C) FIA does not contain killed mycobacteria.
D) FIA does not contain mannide monooleate.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of live, attenuated vaccination over other types of vaccination?
A) Inexpensive to make
B) One dose produces immunity
C) Always stimulate mucosal and systemic immunity
D) Pose no health risks to immunosuppressed individuals
Q3) Which type of vaccine may revert to a virulent form of the organism?
A) Cholera vaccine
B) Pertussis vaccine
C) Salk polio vaccine
D) Influenza vaccine (subcutaneous version)
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Chapter 25: Vaccine-Preventable Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What role does hemagglutinin have in the influenza viral lifecycle?
A) Virulence factor that facilitates viral assembly in the host cell
B) Virulence factor responsible for viral binding to mammalian cells
C) Virulence factor that facilitates release of viral progeny from host cells
D) Virulence factor responsible for increasing replication of viral nucleic acids
Q2) The role that herd immunity plays in vaccination is to:
A) To get 100% of people vaccinated
B) To stop person-to-person transmission
C) To reduce the need for vaccinations among family members
D) To completely eliminate an infectious agent from the population
Q3) What is the difference between the Zostavax and Viravax vaccines?
A) Zostavax has more strains of the virus than Viravax.
B) Zostavax has a higher concentration of virus than Viravax.
C) Viravax has killed virus and Zostavax has live, attenuated virus.
D) Viravax is a combination vaccine with Hib vaccine, and Zostavax is a single vaccine.
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Chapter 26: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of drug results in the formation of disorganized viral capsids that form noninfectious viral progeny?
A) Fusion inhibitors
B) Protease inhibitors
C) Integrase inhibitors
D) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Q2) After the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) binds to CD4 on a T cell, what other molecule does it need to bind for entry into the host cell?
A) H-1
B) H-2
C) CCR5
D) CXCR4
Q3) Proteins from _______________ genes combine with RNase to form the viral reverse transcriptase complex?
A) Tat and rev
B) Pol and vpr
C) Vpu and nef
D) Gag and env
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