Biomedical Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that integrates biological and medical knowledge to understand the mechanisms of health and disease at the molecular, cellular, and systemic levels. The course covers fundamental topics such as human anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, genetics, microbiology, and pathology, providing students with a strong foundation in the science underlying clinical practice and medical research. Through lectures, laboratory sessions, and case studies, students develop problem-solving skills and gain insights into current advances in biomedical research, preparing them for careers in healthcare, diagnostics, pharmaceuticals, or further study in medicine and allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Beckers World of the Cell 8th Edition by Jeff Hardin
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Chapter 1: A Preview of the Cell
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Q1) Scanning electron microscopy (SEM)is especially suited to A)observe living specimens.
B)examine internal cellular structure.
C)create a sense of depth.
D)both choices A and C
E)choices A, B, and C
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is false of brightfield microscopy?
A)White light is utilized.
B)Light passes through the object being examined.
C)Phase-contrast microscopy is a variant of brightfield microscopy.
D)Specimens are always viewed without being stained.
E)Specimens usually must be fixed.
Answer: D
Q3) ________ is the ability to distinguish two objects that are close together as separate.When using a light microscope,this ability is determined by ________.
Answer: Resolution; lambda ( ,or wavelength)
Inquiry
Q4) The total protein content of the cell is called the ________.
Answer: proteome
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of the Cell
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Q1) The moon lacks life and varies dramatically in temperature.If we could keep a layer of water spread on the surface of the moon,what effect would it have?
A)Physical conditions would remain the same.
B)Because water has a high heat of vaporization, the temperatures would rise to the upper extremes.
C)The temperatures would drop to the lower extremes.
D)Water would absorb and hold heat and moderate the temperature extremes.
E)Life would be possible, but it would have to withstand these extremes in temperature.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following molecules is involved with assisted assembly?
A)water molecules
B)helper proteins
C)molecular chaperones
D)tobacco mosaic viruses
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) ________ aid in the assembly of some biomolecules.
Answer: Molecular chaperones
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Chapter 3: The Macromolecules of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a protein is being synthesized,the correct folding of the protein is aided by the movement of nonpolar amino acids toward the inner areas of the protein.How can this phenomenon be explained? How will this influence other levels of protein structure?
Answer: The exclusion of hydrophobic groups from the aqueous surface is called the hydrophobic effect.This then influences the other levels in orientation.(Many correct answers are possible.)
Q2) A ________,a ________,and a ________ are the major parts of a nucleotide,whereas a ________ and a ________ are the major parts of a nucleoside. Answer: Phosphate group,sugar (ribose or deoxyribose),base (in any order); sugar,base (either order)
Q3) Nucleotides are to nucleic acids as amino acids are to ________.
Answer: proteins
Q4) ________ and ________ are the scientists responsible for the concept of the DNA double helix.
Answer: James Watson; Francis Crick
Q5) Cellulose is a polymer of ________,a common monosaccharide.
Answer: glucose
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Chapter 4: Cells and Organelles
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Q1) Which of the following organelles is not part of the endomembrane system?
A)ribosome
B)endoplasmic reticulum
C)Golgi apparatus
D)lysosome
E)secretory vesicle
Q2) As a cell increases in size,the surface area ________ and the volume ________.
Q3) Intermediate filaments are
A)different in different cell types.
B)smaller than actin filaments.
C)composed of tubulin.
D)composed of globular proteins only.
E)none of the above
Q4) Prokaryotes have ________S ribosomes with ________S and ________S subunits,whereas eukaryotes have ________S ribosomes with ________S and ________S subunits.
A)80, 50, 30; 100, 60, 40
B)100, 60, 50; 90, 60, 40
C)70, 50, 30; 80, 60, 40
D)70, 40, 30; 80, 50, 30
E)80, 60, 40; 70, 50, 30
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Bioenergetics: the Flow of Energy in the Cell
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Q1) The steady state so vital to life is possible because
A)the cell cannot convert energy from one form to another.
B)all cells are autotrophic.
C)the cell continually takes up energy from the environment.
D)all reactions are at equilibrium.
E)all reactions are exothermic.
Q2) Which is true of heterotrophs?
A)They capture light energy.
B)They cannot be unicellular.
C)They store energy in the form of heat.
D)They can function as autotrophs in an emergency.
E)They can obtain energy from consuming phototrophs.
Q3) Animals that regulate their body temperature independently of the environment are called
A)heterotherms.
B)homeotherms.
C)poikilotherms.
D)biotherms.
E)abiotherms.
Q4) The total energy stored within a system is called the ________.
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Chapter 6: Enzymes: the Catalysts of Life
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Q1) ________ is a mechanism of lowering the activation energy barrier in some reactions,as with the detoxification of hydrogen peroxide.
Q2) Which of the following is/are means whereby a catalyst can lower the activation energy of a reaction?
A)decreasing the number of reactive molecules
B)altering the temperature within the cell to one appropriate for reactions to proceed
C)quantum tunneling
D)inefficient collisions
E)permanently binding substrates
Q3) An enzyme influences the structure of which of the following?
A)substrate
B)product
C)transition state
D)cofactor
E)intermediate
Q4) ________ inhibitors bind the enzyme at a location other than the active site but still interfere with product formation.
Q5) ________ inhibitors bind reversibly at the active site of an enzyme.
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Chapter 7: Membranes: Their Structure, function, and Chemistry
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Q1) To facilitate the regulation of membrane fluidity,E.coli has the enzyme A)bacteriorhodopsin.
B)desaturase.
C)fatty acid convertase.
D)gangliosidase.
E)unsaturase.
Q2) With respect to the outer and inner faces of the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane,the composition of lipids is A)asymmetrical.
B)identical.
C)not identical but symmetrical.
D)highly random and varies throughout the cell.
E)a mirror image.
Q3) Lipid rafts have been associated with which of the following?
A)responses to extracellular signals
B)transport of nutrients across cell membranes
C)immune responses
D)transport of cholera toxin into cells
E)all of the above
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Q4) ________ are organisms that are unable to regulate their body temperature.
Chapter 8: Transport Across Membranes: Overcoming the
Permeability
Barrier
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Q1) The movement of water through a membrane,from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration,is known as
A)active transport.
B)facilitated transport.
C)passive transport.
D)osmosis.
E)photolysis.
Q2) Pores of the outer membrane of bacteria,mitochondria,and chloroplasts that are less specific and are formed by multipass transmembrane proteins are called
Q3) One mechanism by which ions are specifically transported into the cell is the A)gated channel.
B)alternating conformation model.
C)carrier protein transport.
D)uniport transport model.
E)all of the above
Q4) In the capillaries of the lungs,O diffuses ________ and is bound to ________.
Q5) Receptor-mediated endocytosis involves vesicles with a special coat protein known as ________.
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Chapter 9: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
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Q1) In the first step of glycolysis,glucose can be phosphorylated because
A)a phosphoanhydride bond has higher energy of hydrolysis than a phosphoester bond.
B)the transfer of a phosphate from ATP to glucose is exergonic.
C)both the number 2 and 3 carbons can be spontaneously phosphorylated.
D)the ketosugar is rapidly phosphorylated at the carbon 1 hydroxyl group.
E)both choices A and B
Q2) You are studying carbohydrate metabolism in a newly identified bacterial species,which you note grows exclusively on carbohydrate sucrose. How would the sucrose (a disaccharide)be utilized exclusively in glycolysis?
Q3) Resonance ________ describes a condition in which extra electrons are delocalized over all possible bonds.
Q4) In glycolysis,the product(s)of the enzyme aldolase is (are)
A)beta-hydroxy carbonate.
B)dihydroxyacetone phosphate.
C)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
D)choices A and B only
E)choices B and C only
Q5) Compare and contrast ethanol and lactic acid fermentation pathways.
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Chapter 10: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Aerobic Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the major transport systems of the inner mitochondrial membrane?
A)sodium-potassium pump
B)dicarboxylate carriers
C)tricarboxylate carriers
D)pyruvate carrier cotransport
E)ATP-ADP carrier exchange
Q2) Explain how fatty acids are activated in the cytoplasm and ultimately transported into the mitochondrion to be oxidized.Why would the use of carnitine be an advantage for this process?
Q3) Of the following enzymes associated with the TCA cycle,which of the following enzymes is not under allosteric regulation?
A)isocitrate dehydrogenase
B) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
C)malate dehydrogenase
D)fumarate hydratase
E)pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
Q4) The ________ (TCA)cycle is also known as the ________ cycle after the individual whose laboratory elucidated the sequence in the 1930s.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Phototrophic Energy Metabolism:
Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding CAM plants is true?
A)Stomata are open during the day.
B)Malate is stored in large vacuoles.
C)CO is transported directly into mesophyll cells.
D)They assimilate 25% less CO than C plants.
E)both choices B and C
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describes the Calvin cycle?
A)It is a carbon assimilation process.
B)In this process, carbon dioxide is reduced to organic sugars.
C)It occurs in the chloroplast stroma.
D)The Calvin cycle is a means of carbon fixation.
E)all of the above
Q3) The regeneration of what CO acceptor molecule allows for continuous carbon assimilation in the Calvin cycle?
A)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
B)dihydroxyacetone phosphate
C)ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
D)glycerate-1,3-bisphosphate
E)3-phosphoglycerate
Q4) The light-dependent generation of NADPH is referred to as ________.
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Chapter 12: The Endomembrane System and Peroxisomes
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Q1) Uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)occurs by
A)simple diffusion.
B)bulk-phase endocytosis.
C)facilitated transport.
D)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
E)pinocytosis.
Q2) Microsomes are
A)too small to be seen with an electron microscope.
B)artifacts generated during homogenization of cells.
C)organelles through which electrons cannot pass.
D)organelles of eukaryotic cells.
E)structures observed in cyanobacteria.
Q3) Which of the following molecules stabilizes the cell membrane during coated pit formation?
A)mannose-6-phosphate
B)KDEL signals
C)clatherin
D)botulinum toxin
E)stabilin
Q4) Distinguish among the following: endocytosis,pinocytosis,and phagocytosis.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Ielectrical and Synaptic Signaling in Neurons
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Q1) An example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter is A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)dopamine.
D)GABA.
E)insulin.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false regarding the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor?
A)The actions of acetylcholine can be mimicked by nicotine.
B)It binds one molecule of acetylcholine for activity.
C)The open channel allows an influx of sodium ions.
D)Biochemical purification was aided by cobratoxin.
E)It is comprised of four large subunits.
Q3) The axon branches of a typical neuron terminate at structures called A)synapses.
B)boutons.
C)glia.
D)nodes of Ranvier.
E)myelin sheath.
Q4) The ________ receptor is a ligand-gated channel that carries chloride ions.
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Iimessengers and Receptors
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Q1) G protein-adenyl cyclase activity has been shown,in some cases,to be associated with certain diseases.In the case of cholera,which of the following is not correct?
A)Vibrio cholera bacteria colonize the gut.
B)Cholera toxin is secreted by Vibrio cholera bacteria.
C)The cholera toxin causes the cells of the gut to take in salts and fluids.
D)Cholera toxin alters Gs so that it no longer hydrolyzes GTP.
E)The toxin, by altering Gs, keeps intracellular cAMP levels high and doesn't allow them to decrease.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the Ras protein is false?
A)Ras is monomeric.
B)It is regulated by GTPase activating proteins.
C)The ligands are largely steroid hormones.
D)It is regulated by Sos, a guanine nucleotide exchange factor.
E)Ras activates a cascade of phosphorylation events.
Q3) Explain how caffeine,a methylxanthine,works to stimulate bronchodilation in asthma.
Q4) In situations where signaling pathway components need to be "fixed" in a particular position within the cell (e.g.,in the yeast mating pathway),they are associated with ________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cytoskeletal Systems
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Q1) The structure,function,and assembly of microtubules are regulated by ________ proteins (MAPs).
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the main structural forms of actin?
A)Actin filaments may form a filament network (gel).
B)Actin monomers may form actin filaments or G-actin protein complexes.
C)Actin filaments are severed to form filament bundles.
D)Capped filaments are made from actin filaments.
E)Actin filaments form filament bundles.
Q3) Rho GTPases have the all of the following effects on cytoskeletal actin except A)stress fiber formation.
B)formation of pseudopodia.
C)stabilization of neurons.
D)assembly of the cytokinetic furrow.
E)regulation of endocytosis and exocytosis.
Q4) All of the following are moved by molecular motors except A)secretory vesicles.
B)cytoskeletal filaments.
C)the Golgi complex.
D)glucose.
E)chloroplasts.
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Chapter 16: Cellular Movement: Motility and Contractility
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Q1) Compare the sustained contraction of muscle cells in rigor mortis with that which results from the action of tetanospasmin (tetanus toxin)on motor neurons.
Q2) Troponin is a complex of three polypeptide chains called ________,________,and ________.
Q3) Which of the following major protein components of skeletal muscle is incorrectly matched with its function?
A)titin-links thick filaments at Z line
B)nebulin-links thin filaments at Z line
C)myomesin-myosin binding protein present at M line
D)troponin-binds along the length of the thin filaments and covers myosin binding sites
E)actin-major component of thin filaments
Q4) In relaxed muscle,calcium is found in high concentration in the A)myofibril.
B)T tubules.
C)sacroplasmic reticulum.
D)sarcolemma.
E)neuromuscular junction.
Q5) ________ is a directional movement in response to a graded chemical stimulus.
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Chapter
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Q1) A person with neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in circulation has which of blood type?
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
Q2) Free ________ molecules have lubricating properties and are therefore abundant in the joints,for example.
Q3) Polarized cells are characterized by
A)random orientation within a tissue.
B)a polar flagellum.
C)random orientation within an organ.
D)distinct apical and basolateral sides.
E)both choices B and D
Q4) A collection of fibrous intracellular attachment proteins is called a(n)
A)annulus.
B)connexon.
C)plaque.
D)tonofilament.
E)both choices C and D
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Chapter 18: The Structural Basis of Cellular Information:
DNA, chromosomes, and the Nucleus
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Q1) Common SNPs may be important in causing ________ in humans or in ________ of disorders.
Q2) Which of the following is the correct order of the levels of DNA packaging in eukaryotic chromosomes?
A)nucleosome chromatin fiber looped domains heterochromatin
B)nucleosome looped domains chromatin fiber heterochromatin
C)heterochromatin nucleosome chromatin fiber looped domains
D)chromatin fiber heterochromatin nucleosome looped domains
E)chromatin fiber nucleosome looped domains heterochromatin
Q3) Because of its antiparallel nature,DNA is often referred to as a ________.
Q4) Restriction enzymes typically recognize
A)sequences in threefold symmetry.
B)single-stranded DNA only.
C)specific palindromic sequences.
D)several nucleotide sequences simultaneously.
E)all of the above
Q5) The protein ________ is very important for the investigation of protein products produced by an organism.
20
Q6) SNPs located near each other on chromosomes are inherited as blocks known as
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Chapter 19: The Cell Cycle, DNA Replication, and Mitosis
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Q1) Killer lymphocytes can elicit self-destruct mechanisms in target cells by interacting with
A)Fas ligand.
B)Fas receptors.
C)Ras ligand.
D)adaptor proteins.
E)procaspase.
Q2) Which of the following eukaryotic DNA polymerases replicates mitochondrial DNA?
A)alpha
B)beta
C)delta
D)epsilon
E)gamma
Q3) The ________ pathway uses a set of proteins that bind to ends of two broken DNA fragments and join them together.
Q4) Small pieces of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand are called ________.
Q5) ________ synthesis is a damage-tolerant mechanism that allows synthesis of a new DNA strand from a damaged template.
Q6) Proteins bound to CEN sequences form a complex known as the ________.
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Q7) The region of the centromere contains repeated DNA sequences known as
Chapter 20: Sexual Reproduction, meiosis, and Genetic
Recombination
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Q1) The DNA of gene X in humans has been isolated,cloned,and sequenced and is 8000 base pairs in length.From cells that were actively transcribing gene X,a cDNA library was made.In this case,gene X was found to produce from an mRNA that was 4200 bases in length.The most probable explanation of these results is that A)there was no mRNA in the cells of the mRNA used to make the cDNA library.
B)the DNA encoded introns that were excised during mRNA processing.
C)a mutation resulted in a large loss of this particular gene.
D)reverse transcription of the mRNA isolate was not complete.
E)none of the above
Q2) Describe,in detail,how you would obtain a gene from a tomato plant and express this protein in bacterial cells.BamHI sites at either end surround the tomato gene of interest.You may use any vector of your own design in the process.
Q3) Genetic variability in sexually reproducing organisms arises within
A)crossover events between nonsister chromatids.
B)crossover events between sister chromatids.
C)egg and sperm genetic recombination from distinct individuals.
D)egg and sperm genetic recombination from an individual.
E)both choices B and C
Q4) ________ chromosomes pair during ________ of meiosis.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Gene Expression: Ithe Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) If the genetic code required only two nucleotides for incorporation of amino acids,the amino acid sequence using this transcript would be
A)B-B-B-B-B-B.
B)B-D-B-D-B-D.
C)B-B-B-D-D-D.
D)B-D-E-F-G-H.
E)B-D-E-B-D-E.
Q2) Examine the following double-stranded DNA sequence:
Which strand is the coding strand,and where is the N-terminal end of the resulting peptide located?
A)The top strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the right.
B)The top strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the left.
C)The bottom strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the right.
D)The bottom strand is the coding strand, and the N-terminus is on the left.
E)Not enough information is given.
Q3) Explain how an electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)works.How might one use this technique?
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Gene Expression: Iiprotein Synthesis and Sorting
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Q1) Messenger RNAs that contain no stop codons due to a frameshift mutation are eliminated by
A)nonstop decay.
B)directed RNase activity.
C)nonsense-mediated decay.
D)error-mediated repair.
E)none of the above
Q2) Release factors of translation recognize the codon A)AUG.
B)GUA.
C)UGA.
D)GGA.
E)UUU.
Q3) The initial amino acid incorporated into a nascent peptide is N-formylated in A)eukaryotic translation.
B)prokaryotic transcription.
C)prokaryotic translation.
D)both choices A and C
E)both choices B and C
Q4) ________ degrades mRNAs that contain no stop codons.
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Chapter 23: The Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) In the lactose operon,a P mutant would have a mutation in the ________ region of the operon.
Q2) A transcriptional regulator that decreases transcription of a gene from a vast distance is known as a(n)
A)enhancer.
B)upstream control element.
C)regulator.
D)nonsense mutation.
E)silencer.
Q3) A certain gene is transformed into a plant cell for potential use as a vaccine delivery system.Upon performing a Northern blot,a good deal of mRNA for the gene is produced.However,the protein product for the gene is not observed.One explanation may be that the
A)plant cell recognizes and degrades the protein in the cytoplasm.
B)plant ribosomes are not recognizing the mRNA translational initiation sites.
C)mRNA is not stable in the plant cytoplasm.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) Discuss how DNA methylation is associated with genomic imprinting.Be sure to use examples.
26
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Chapter 24: Cancer Cells
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Q1) Using polyethylene glycol,a cancer cell and a normal cell are fused. The resulting hybrid behaves like a normal cell. The best reason for this observation is the A)recombination between cancer and normal chromosomes.
B)removal of environmental triggers.
C)presence of tumor suppressor genes and gene products.
D)exposure to polyethylene glycol.
E)both choices A and C
Q2) The most frequently encountered category of cancer is A)carcinoma.
B)sarcoma.
C)lymphoma.
D)leukemia.
E)both choices C and D
Q3) A cell that has lost its capacity to grow in vitro as a monolayer is now A)benign.
B)malignant.
C)transformed.
D)anchorage independent.
E)free ranging.
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