Biomedical Sciences
Exam Review
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the fundamental principles underlying human health and disease, integrating core disciplines such as biology, chemistry, physiology, and pathology. This course examines the molecular and cellular mechanisms that drive normal bodily functions as well as those that contribute to illness. Students engage with topics including genetics, immunology, microbiology, and pharmacology, gaining hands-on laboratory experience and exposure to cutting-edge biomedical research techniques. The course prepares students for advanced studies or careers in medical research, healthcare, and related fields by fostering critical thinking, analytical skills, and a deep understanding of biomedical challenges and innovations.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 7th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb
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25 Chapters
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2904 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ankle lies ________ to the thigh.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) lateral
D) inferior
Answer: A
Q2) The peritoneal cavity is a serous cavity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which letter indicates the femoral region?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: D
Q4) Which of the organ systems found in the arm are not found in the leg?
Answer: None
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Chapter 2: The Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the three major types of cytoskeletal elements.
Answer: Microtubules are the largest in diameter and are formed by the protein tubulin. They are stiff, but bendable. Microtubules are important in the trafficking of organelles within the cytoplasm. Microfilaments are the smallest in diameter. They are strands of the protein actin, are contractile proteins, which are typically very labile. Intermediate filaments are of intermediate diameter. They are very stabile and permanent, functioning to resist shearing forces within and between adjacent cells.
Q2) Which letter indicates the chromatid?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: D
Q3) This is an inherited disease that leads to an accumulation of undigested glycolipids especially in the lysosomes of neurons.
Answer: Tay-Sachs disease
Q4) This is the diffusion of water molecules across a membrane. Answer: osmosis
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Chapter 3: Basic Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Implantation of the blastocyst on the uterine lining takes about A) 1 week.
B) 2 weeks.
C) 3 weeks.
D) 4 weeks.
Answer: A
Q2) Which characteristic is not true of a blastocyst?
A) It contains a fluid-filled cavity.
B) It develops 24-36 hours after conception.
C) It has an inner cell mass and an outer trophoblast.
D) It implants into the uterus.
Answer: B
Q3) The ________ is the embryonic stage that implants in the uterus.
Answer: blastocyst
Q4) This is the most common preventable cause of mental retardation in the United States.
Answer: fetal alcohol syndrome
Q5) Somites differentiate into dermatomes, myotomes, and ________.
Answer: sclerotomes
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Chapter 4: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain and spinal cord are composed primarily of this tissue type.
A) muscle
B) nervous
C) connective
D) epithelial
Q2) When cells from a cancerous tumor travel to other parts of the body, this process is called
A) carcinogenesis.
B) malignancy.
C) metastasis.
D) transformation.
Q3) Cancer can arise from each of the following except
A) induced apoptosis.
B) exposure to a carcinogen.
C) inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene.
D) turning on of oncogenes.
Q4) This is the sheet of tissue between the epithelium and the connective tissue below it.
Q5) Elastic fibers are comprised of the protein ________.
Q6) Describe the basal lamina, its location, composition, and function.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the thick skin of the palm, the layer of the epidermis directly deep to the stratum corneum is the stratum ________.
A) granulosum.
B) basale.
C) lucidum.
D) spinosum.
Q2) Which layer of the epidermis contains keratohyalin granules and lamellated granules?
A) stratum basale
B) stratum corneum
C) stratum granulosum
D) stratum spinosum
Q3) Which letter indicates a layer of cells that are derived from the epidermis?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) Keratinocytes produce keratin, as well as various enzymes and ________.
Q5) Mitosis primarily occurs in a layer of the epidermis, the stratum ________.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ________ growth, cartilage-forming cells from the perichondrium produce new cartilage tissue by actively secreting matrix.
Q2) A blow to the head results in a portion of the broken bone pressed inward; this type of fracture is known as ________.
Q3) The type of cartilage that can withstand the strongest compression and tension forces is
A) hyaline cartilage.
B) elastic cartilage.
C) fibrocartilage.
D) calcified cartilage.
Q4) Which letter indicates bone that is not arranged in osteons and is called spongy or trabecular bone?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q5) ________ is the term for pain in a bone, typical after bone grafting or bone removal.
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Chapter 7: Bones, Part 1: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones and parts of the temporal bone form from what type of embryonic tissue?
Q2) Swayback, which sometimes occurs in obese individuals, is also called
A) lordosis.
B) scoliosis.
C) kyphosis.
D) hunchback.
Q3) The head of a rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these bones has a foramen that encircles the superior aspect of the spinal cord?
A) mandible
B) sphenoid bone
C) occipital bone
D) temporal bone
E) ethmoid bone
Q5) The axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Bones, Part 2: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which letter indicates the gluteal tuberosity of the femur?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) The coracoid process of the scapula articulates with the clavicle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In anatomical position,
A) the head of the radius is medial to the ulna.
B) the radius is lateral to the ulna.
C) the styloid process of the radius is medial to the ulna.
D) the ulna is lateral to the radius.
Q4) Describe some of the anatomical characteristics of the female pelvis that are adaptations for childbearing.
Q5) The metacarpus is the palm of the hand.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ spine lies between the greater and lesser sciatic notches.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these joints is a hinge joint, primarily involved in articulation with the ulna rather than the radius?
A) elbow joint
B) shoulder joint
C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint
E) ankle joint
Q2) Synovial fluid is slippery because of glycoproteins that are secreted by fibroblasts located within the articular cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the
A) sagittal suture.
B) interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna.
C) pubic symphysis.
D) intervertebral discs.
Q4) Excessive dorsiflexion of the ankle can overstretch tibiofibular ligaments, resulting in a special type of injury known as a(n) ________ ankle sprain.
Q5) ________ causes the forearm to rotate laterally.
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Chapter 10: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which region of the sarcomere does not change in length during contraction?
A) A band
B) H zone
C) I band
D) Z disk to Z disk
Q2) Contraction of a muscle cell requires the influx of calcium into the sarcoplasm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ability of the sarcolemma of muscle cells to conduct an impulse is an example of
A) contractility.
B) excitability.
C) extensibility.
D) elasticity.
Q4) An aponeurosis
A) connects a muscle to underlying structures through a flat sheet or web.
B) consists of a neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.
C) is a type of direct attachment of muscle to bone.
D) is the junction between the axon terminus of a neuron to an individual muscle fiber.
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Chapter 11: Muscles of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marks the medial boundary of the biceps brachii
A) femoral triangle
B) posterior triangle
C) median bicipital furrow
D) cubital fossa
E) supracristal line
Q2) Intramuscular injections in adults are frequently given in this region to avoid the sciatic nerve.
A) posterior triangle
B) ventral gluteal site
C) gluteal fold
D) posterior median fossa
E) cubital fossa
Q3) With a flexed thigh, which landmark can be palpated along the superior medial aspect of the gluteal fold?
A) greater sciatic notch
B) greater trochanter
C) ischial spine
D) ischial tuberosities
Q4) The ________ and gluteus maximus muscles insert on the iliotibial tract.
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Chapter 12: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytoplasm, organelles, and neurotransmitters move through the cytoplasm of the axon by a mechanism called ________.
Q2) Motor neurons arise primarily from the A) alar plate.
B) basal plate.
C) ependyma.
D) neural crest.
Q3) A man walking barefoot stepped on a piece of glass. His foot jerked upward in which type of reflex?
A) somatic, polysynaptic withdrawal reflex
B) visceral, monosynaptic stretch reflex
C) somatic, monosynaptic withdrawal reflex
D) visceral, polysynaptic withdrawal reflex
Q4) Chemical signals diffuse between neurons at this location.
A) synapse
B) axon terminal
C) axon
D) cell body
E) dendrite
Q5) White matter is white in color because of ________.
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Chapter 13: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Posterior gray horns of the spinal cord consist of A) cell bodies of interneurons.
B) dorsal roots.
C) sensory ganglia.
D) motor neurons.
Q2) The fluid-filled ventricles within the cerebrum are similar in function to the ________ of the spinal cord.
A) subarachnoid space
B) central canal
C) pia mater
D) dura mater
Q3) The visual association area of the cerebral cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe.
B) insula.
C) parietal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
Q4) The white matter on both sides of the spinal cord is divided into three white columns, also known as ________.
Q5) Cerebrovascular accident is a long name for what type of brain injury?
Q6) Describe the three meninges of the brain.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abducens nerve (CN VI)
A) innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye.
B) relays sensory information from the taste buds on the tongue.
C) exits from the medulla.
D) if paralyzed, results in Bell's palsy.
Q2) Which cranial nerve pair is comprised of ventral rootlets from C -C ?
A) abducens
B) accessory
C) glossopharyngeal
D) hypoglossal
Q3) Motor neurons to skeletal muscle belong to the
A) somatic division of the nervous system.
B) autonomic nervous system.
C) afferent division of the autonomic nervous system.
D) visceral division of the nervous system.
Q4) The tibial and common fibular nerves branch from the ________ nerve.
A) sciatic
B) pudendal
C) axillary
D) femoral
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Sensory Neurons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements is not a characteristic of collateral ganglia of the sympathetic division?
A) They lie in the abdomen and pelvis.
B) They are paired and segmented.
C) They lie anterior to the vertebral column.
D) They are located mostly on the abdominal aorta.
Q2) This organ contains modified sympathetic postganglionic neurons that lack nerve processes.
A) adrenal medulla
B) collateral ganglia
C) stellate ganglion
D) sympathetic chain ganglia
Q3) Location in the brain of the cardiorespiratory and vasomotor control centers.
A) hypothalamus
B) medulla
C) medulla oblongata
D) rami communicantes
E) sympathetic trunk
Q4) Contrast the structure of the somatic and autonomic motor neurons.
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Q5) The primary integrating center of the ANS is the ________ of the diencephalon.
Chapter 16: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bony labyrinth is located in which portion of the temporal bone?
A) mastoid
B) petrous
C) squamous
D) tympanic
Q2) Identify the letter that indicates the structure that is important in equalizing air pressure on both sides of the eardrum.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Conduction deafness results from an inability of vibrations to pass to the inner ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the structure of photoreceptor cells and their arrangement within the retina.
Q5) The three ________ are bony structures involved in the sense of rotational equilibrium.
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Growth hormone is produced by ________ cells of the adenohypophysis.
Q2) Region of the hypophysis that releases hormones stored in neurosecretory bodies in axon terminals.
A) tuber cinerum
B) neurohypophysis
C) infundibulum
D) pars tuberalis
E) adenohypophysis
Q3) The thyroid gland is located
A) anterior to the aortic arch.
B) immediately inferior to the larynx.
C) on the superior aspect of the kidneys.
D) posterior to the sternum.
Q4) Which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta?
A) estrogens
B) testosterone
C) progesterone
D) hCG
Q5) The endocrine cells of the pancreas are located within spherical bodies called
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Chapter 18: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells lack mitochondria?
A) neutrophils
B) platelets
C) basophils
D) erythrocytes
Q2) Yellow bone marrow gets its color from
A) the bone trabeculae in the center of this colorless marrow.
B) the early stages of red blood cells being made there.
C) low densities of red blood cells.
D) fat cells.
Q3) What is the anatomical difference between T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes?
A) T cells are larger.
B) B cells are larger.
C) B cells have a darker-staining nucleus.
D) They are structurally identical.
Q4) Leukocytes, ordered from most to least abundant, are the
A) basophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, and neutrophils.
B) basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, and neutrophils.
C) neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils.
D) neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and lymphocytes.
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Chapter 19: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Death of heart musculature due to lack of oxygen.
A) cardiac tamponade
B) valve insufficiency
C) heart block
D) myocardial infarction
E) ventricular fibrillation
Q2) Identify the letter that indicates the left coronary artery.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) The artery that nourishes the walls of the left atrium is the
A) anterior interventricular.
B) circumflex.
C) posterior interventricular.
D) right coronary.
Q4) The first heart sounds of "lub-dup" are produced by the closing of the right and left
Q5) Inflammation of the heart's myocardium is called ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of ________ in the veins and the action of skeletal muscle pressing on the walls ensure that blood return to the heart is in one direction.
Q2) All types of blood vessels contain a tunica intima.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pulse of the posterior tibial artery is palpated behind the knee.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What prevents the backflow of blood in veins?
A) valves
B) the narrowed lumen
C) thick smooth muscle and elastic layers
D) increased blood pressure
Q5) What artery enters the skull through the foramen spinosum and supplies the inner surface of the parietal bone, dura mater, and parts of the temporal bone?
A) internal carotid artery
B) middle cerebral artery
C) middle meningeal artery
D) basilar artery
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphocytes attack antigens mostly in lymphoid organs (except the thymus) and in A) loose connective tissue.
B) the bloodstream.
C) cartilage.
D) the thyroid.
Q2) Lymphoid tissue contains all of the following elements except A) T cells.
B) B cells.
C) follicles.
D) thick collagen fibers.
Q3) Tumorlike lesions of the skin and some internal organs caused by a type of herpesvirus is called ________.
Q4) Identify the letter that indicates the unique arrangement of endothelial cells that comprise lymphatic capillaries.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q5) The ________ prevents premature activation of immature thymic lymphocytes.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The groove through which air passes between nasal conchae is called a choanae.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following changes does not occur as the conducting tubes of the respiratory tree become smaller?
A) Cartilage rings are replaced by irregular plates of cartilage.
B) The lining epithelium thins.
C) Elastin in the walls disappears.
D) Cartilage disappears in the bronchioles.
Q3) What type of epithelium occurs in the respiratory mucosa?
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
B) simple squamous epithelium
C) simple columnar epithelium
D) stratified squamous epithelium
Q4) The pleural cavities extend two ribs below the inferior border of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Gas exchange occurs across the bronchi and bronchioles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Describe the structure and function of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue.
Q2) In mastication, the relative roles of an incisor versus a molar are
A) piercing versus tearing.
B) chewing versus holding food in the mouth.
C) biting off pieces of food versus grinding.
D) only incisors function in mastication.
Q3) Smooth muscle constriction between the ileum and cecum.
A) splenic flexure
B) cecum
C) hepatic flexure
D) ileocecal valve
E) haustra
Q4) The vermiform appendix is suspended from the cecum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the structure of a mesentery, and then identify and describe the location of two ventral and two dorsal mesenteries.
Q6) The ________ is connective tissue whose capillaries nourish the epithelium of the mucosa.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) Venous structures of the kidney mirror those of the arterial circuit, except for the absence of segmental veins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the letter that indicates the major calyx.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) From which embryonic tissue layer(s) does the kidney arise?
A) ectoderm
B) mesoderm
C) endoderm
D) all three layers
Q4) Which of the following is not part of the filtration membrane?
A) basement membrane
B) capillary endothelium
C) filtration slit diaphragm
D) granular cells
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The seminal vesicles
A) store sperm.
B) are glands that secrete most of the volume of the semen.
C) secrete digestive enzymes when cancerous.
D) empty into the epididymis.
Q2) The function of the pampiniform plexus of veins is to
A) help prevent hernias.
B) help cool blood.
C) form the outer wall of the spermatic cord.
D) form hydroceles.
Q3) Which of the following is the primary sex organ in the male?
A) the prostate
B) the testis
C) the epididymis
D) the penis
Q4) In breast cancer, the cancer cells usually originate from the
A) lactiferous ductules.
B) cuboidal acinar cells.
C) fat cells in the breast.
D) endothelium of the lymph vessels in the breasts.
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