Biomedical Sciences
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the principles underlying human health and disease by integrating knowledge from biology, chemistry, physics, and medicine. This course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the structure and function of the human body at molecular, cellular, and systemic levels. It covers topics such as genetics, physiology, pathology, microbiology, and pharmacology, with a focus on how these disciplines contribute to diagnosing and treating illnesses. Emphasis is placed on scientific methods, experimental design, and current biomedical research, preparing students for advanced study or careers in healthcare, research, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition by Harvey Lodish
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Chapter 1: Chemical Foundations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ultimate source of chemical energy for all cells is:
A)electricity.
B)heat.
C)light.
D)magnetism.
Answer: C
Q2) A nucleotide can vary in _____.
A)the base
B)the sugar
C)the phosphate group
D)the sugar and the base
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is the weakest interaction?
A)hydrogen bond
B)ionic bond
C)phosphoanhydride bond
D)van der Waals interaction
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Molecular Genetic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) To study the function of the essential cytosolic Hsc70 genes in yeast,researchers constructed a shuttle vector in which a copy of the Hsc70 gene was ligated to the GAL1 promoter.The vector was then introduced into haploid yeast cells in which all four copies of the Hsc70 genes had been disrupted.Following introduction of the vector,you would expect that
A)the yeast cells would grow on both glucose and galactose media.
B)the yeast cells would grow on glucose but not galactose medium.
C)the yeast cells would grow on galactose but not glucose medium.
D)on transfer to either glucose or galactose medium,the vector-carrying cells would eventually stop growing because of insufficient Hsc70 activity.
Answer: C
Q2) You want to amplify a region of yeast DNA using PCR so that this fragment can be cloned into a plasmid.Which of the following is needed for the PCR?
A)RNA polymerase
B)DNA ligase
C)DNA helicase
D)Taq polymerase
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) All the following statements about molecular chaperones are true EXCEPT:
A)they play a role in the proper folding of proteins.
B)they are located in every cellular compartment.
C)they are found only in mammals.
D)they bind a wide range of proteins.
Answer: C
Q2) Proteases that attack selected peptide bonds within a polypeptide chain are synthesized and secreted as inactive forms called: A)carboxypeptidases.
B)aminopeptidases.
C)zymogens.
D)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) In two-dimensional gel electrophoresis,proteins are first resolved by _____ and then by _____.
A)IEF;SDS-PAGE
B)SDS-PAGE;affinity chromatography
C)SDS-PAGE;ion exchange
D)IEF;gel filtration
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Culturing and Visualizing Cells
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Q1) Which one of the following is the best technique/approach to allow you to localize catalase in peroxisomes?
A)a catalase monoclonal antibody and transmission electron microscopy
B)platinum or gold and scanning electron microscopy
C)FRAP and FRET
D)all of the above
Q2) A myeloma cell is best described as:
A)a precursor cell that gives rise to gametes.
B)an immortal immune cell that cannot produce HYPERLINK "http://www.multiplemyeloma.org/about_myeloma/2.10.02.html" \l "immunoglobulin" antibodies.
C)a self-renewing stem cell.
D)The first and third answers are correct.
Q3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum can be separated from smooth endoplasmic reticulum by differential centrifugation.What is the basis for this fractionation?
Q4) Fixatives such as formaldehyde are routinely used in certain types of electron microscopy and light microscopy.However,fixatives may introduce complications in the analysis of the resulting images.What problems may result from using fixatives?
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Chapter 5: Fundamental Molecular Genetic Mechanisms
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Q1) In which of these polymers are the monomers added one at a time?
A)DNA
B)rRNA
C)protein
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following are removed from mRNAs during processing?
A)exons
B)noncoding sequences
C)RNA cap structure
D)poly(A)tail
Q3) Which of the following is not a recognized stage of protein synthesis in either prokaryotes or eukaryotes?
A)elongation
B)initiation
C)translation
D)termination
Q4) Polio virus affects only intestinal cells and motor neurons.By analogy to HIV,explain why only these particular cell types are susceptible to polio infection.
Q5) What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic bacteriophages?
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Chapter 6: Bio-membrane Structure
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Q1) Which of the cellular organelles are enclosed by two cellular membranes?
A)Golgi
B)lysosome
C)nucleus
D)endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) All the following statements describe biomembranes except:
A)Different biomembranes may contain different proportions of the same phospholipids.
B)The two leaflets of a biomembrane may contain different phospholipids.
C)Some biomembranes have free edges.
D)Some phospholipids and cholesterol may cluster to form lipid rafts.
Q3) The plasma membrane around a eukaryotic cell is composed of:
A)hydrophilic fatty acyl side chains.
B)hydrophobic phospholipids.
C)a phospholipid bilayer.
D)none of the above
Q4) There are several enzymes involved in cholesterol biosynthetic pathway.Which of these is subject to feedback regulation? How does this enzyme sense cholesterol levels?
Q5) What experimental evidence supports the fluid mosaic model of biomembranes?
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Chapter 7: Genes Genomics and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) "3C" or chromosome conformation capture methods,used to determine the three-dimensional spatial organization of chromatin within nuclei of interphase cells,rely on a series of steps where the end result is the sequence analysis of purified DNA fragments.Which one of the following presents the correct order of steps you as an investigator need to follow in a 3C method strategy?
A)shear DNA to 200-600 bp;cross-link proteins and DNA with formaldehyde
B)ligate linkers marked with biotin onto DNA fragments;dilute and ligate the fragments
C)cross-link streptavidin to DNA;purify and shear biotin-labeled fragments
D)none of the above
Q2) The karyotype for any particular species is characterized by
A)the number of metaphase chromosomes.
B)the size and shape of the metaphase chromosomes.
C)the banding pattern of the metaphase chromosomes.
D)all of the above
Q3) Why is there a need for a specialized structure at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes and for the enzyme telomerase?
Q4) Describe the two major pathways for transposition of mobile elements.
Q5) Give a functional definition of a gene.
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Chapter 8: Transcriptional Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is a fundamental difference between gene regulation in bacteria compared with eukaryotes?
A)In bacteria,but not eukaryotes,there is a specific sequence that specifies where RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.
B)In eukaryotes,but not bacteria,transcription can be influenced by how effectively the DNA sequence of a promoter region interacts with histone octamers.
C)Transcription regulation is the most widespread form of control of gene expression in bacteria but not in eukaryotes.
D)Gene regulation is readily reversible in eukaryotes but not bacteria.
Q2) What is the functional difference between enhancers and promoter proximal elements?
Q3) Which one of the following terms is used to describe the protein:DNA complex containing several transcription factors bound to a single enhancer?
A)nucleosome
B)chromosome
C)enhanceosome
D)proteasome
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Chapter 9: Post-Transcriptional Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthesis of pre-rRNA occurs in the A)nucleolus.
B)endoplasmic reticulum.
C)extranucleolar area of the nucleus.
D)cytosol.
Q2) Sequencing of small RNAs isolated from metazoan cells revealed low levels of short,capped RNAs transcribed from both the sense and antisense strands of DNA.What is the term used to describe the fact that the majority of the metazoan genome is transcribed?
A)permissive transcription.
B)persuasive transcription.
C)pervasive transcription.
D)progressive transcription.
Q3) Which type of RNA participates in nuclear export of mRNA?
A)snRNA
B)hnRNA
C)tRNA
D)rRNA
Q4) How do researchers visualize the cellular locations of specific RNA molecules?
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Chapter 10: Transmembrane Transport of Ions and Small
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why ATP-powered proton pumps cannot by themselves acidify the lumen of the lysosome.
Q2) The H /K ATPase on the apical surface of parietal cells exports H and imports K .How is the buildup of excess K ions in the parietal cell cytosol prevented?
Q3) The magnitude of the membrane electrical potential is calculated by:
A)the Nernst equation.
B)the Michaelis-Menten equation.
C)the Faraday equation.
D)the Bose-Einstein equation.
Q4) How does inhibition of the Na /K ATPase increase the force of heart muscle contraction?
A)It increases cytosolic Na and therefore decreases Ca² export.
B)It increases cytosolic K and therefore decreases Ca² export.
C)It decreases cytosolic Na and therefore decreases Ca² export.
D)It decreases cytosolic K and therefore decreases Ca² export.
Q5) Describe the patch-clamping technique.Why do investigators often use frog oocytes in their patch-clamping investigations?
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Q6) Calculate the G for the movement of Na from inside a typical mammalian cell to outside.
Chapter 11: Cellular Energetics
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Q1) Which of the following statement(s)regarding the origin of the mitochondria is(are)TRUE?
A)A bacterium invaded and established a symbiotic relationship with a eukaryotic host cell.
B)The outer mitochondrial membrane is derived from the bacterial plasma membrane.
C)The globular F domain points toward the mitochondria's intermembrane space.
D)all of the above
Q2) The "tail" of chlorophyll is hydrophobic,which is important for:
A)absorbing blue light.
B)anchoring it in the thylakoid membrane.
C)transferring electrons.
D)giving plants their green color.
Q3) ATP synthase is composed of two oligomeric proteins,F and F .What is the function of each protein complex and where is each found in mitochondria?
Q4) What is the role of quinone in generating the charge separation needed to remove electrons from H O for use in electron transport?
Q5) Which stages of photosynthesis can occur only in the light and which can also occur in the dark?
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Chapter 12: Moving Proteins Into Membranes and Organelles
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Q1) All the following proteins interact with exposed amino acids during protein folding in the ER,except:
A)BiP.
B)calnexin.
C)PDI.
D)prolyl isomerase.
Q2) How are proteins imported into the thylakoids of chloroplasts?
Q3) In the absence of targeting information,what is the default location of proteins synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes?
Q4) Unassembled or misfolded proteins in the RER can be damaging to the physiology of a cell and therefore are transported to the cytosol where they are degraded.This transport process is referred to as:
A)polyubiquitination.
B)disulfide isomerization.
C)dislocation.
D)O-linked glycosylation.
Q5) What is the meaning of "quality control in the ER?"
Page 14
Q6) What is meant by de novo formation of peroxisomes?
Q7) How does Ran·GTP participate in the nuclear export of the HIV Rev protein?
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Chapter 13: Vesicular Traffic, Secretion, and Endocytosis
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Q1) If Sar1 is inserted into the membrane:
A)it is bound to GTP and recruits COPII coat proteins.
B)it is bound to GDP and recruits COPII coat proteins.
C)it is bound to GTP and recruits cargo.
D)it is not bound to GTP or GDP.
Q2) Describe the types of mutations in the LDL receptor that would cause familial hypercholesterolemia.
Q3) An important molecule for generating fatty acids in the cell enters via receptor-mediated endocytosis.The complex formed between the receptor on the plasma membrane and the important molecule is stable only at neutral pH.Based on this knowledge,you would predict:
A)a COPII-coated vesicle will be required for import.
B)the important molecule enters the cell via a protein channel.
C)both the molecule and the receptor are degraded to release the molecule from the receptor.
D)the molecule is released from the receptor in the endosome.
Q4) Why is VSV G protein one of the more useful tools in analyzing membrane trafficking?
Q5) How are soluble,luminal ER proteins that "leak" out of the ER retrieved to the ER?
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction and G-Protein Coupled Receptors
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Q1) Which of the following statements about adenylyl cyclase stimulation/inhibition in adipose cells is TRUE?
A)Prostaglandin E1 stimulates adenylyl cyclase.
B)Glucagon inhibits adenylyl cyclase.
C)Epinephrine stimulates adenylyl cyclase.
D)Glucagon inhibits adenylyl cyclase and epinephrine stimulates adenylyl cyclase.
Q2) What experimental approach was used to identify functional domains of G protein-coupled receptors?
Q3) Describe experimental evidence supporting that intrinsic GTPase activity of the G subunit is important for terminating effector activation.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a common intracellular second messenger?
A)inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP )
B)1,2 diacylglycerol (DAG)
C)adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
D)3´-5´ cyclic guanine monophosphate (cGMP)
Q5) Describe the steps in the synthesis of 1,2-diacylglycerol (DAG)and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP )from phosphatidylinositol (PI).
Q6) Describe the differences between an agonist and an antagonist.
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Chapter 15: Signaling Pathways That Control Gene Activity
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Q1) Before ligand binding,receptor tyrosine kinases:
A)contain binding sites for SH2-domain containing proteins.
B)contain activation lip tyrosines within the kinase active site.
C)bind to GRB2 within the cytosolic domains.
D)have excellent tyrosine kinase activity.
Q2) Which of the following explains why Ras is activated quickly by RTKs?
A)RTKs phosphorylate Ras.
B)Ras changes conformation upon ligand binding to prepare for activation.
C)Ras binds phosphotyrosine residues on RTKs.
D)Ras is maintained at the plasma membrane through a lipid-mediated attachment.
Q3) How does activation of protein kinase B promote cell survival?
Q4) Which of the following signaling pathways can be activated by cytokines?
A)JAK/STAT
B)PI-3 kinase
C)Ras/MAP kinase
D)JAK/STAT and PI-3 kinase
E)all of the above
Q5) How can multiple MAP kinase pathways be segregated when they share a common component?
Q6) What feature allows TGF signaling molecules to be quickly mobilized?
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Chapter 16: Cell Organization and Movement I: Microfilaments
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Q1) Small G proteins,including Rho,Rac,and Cdc42,contribute to the coordinated movement and overall polarity of a migrating cell.Assuming that the cell is migrating in a left-to-right fashion,which of the following is correct?
A)active Cdc42 at the leading edge of the cell and active Rho at the back of the cell
B)active Rac at the back of the cell and active Cdc42 at the front of the cell
C)active Cdc42 at the back of the cell and active Rac at the leading edge of the cell
D)active Rac at the leading edge of the cell and active Rho at the back of the cell
Q2) Multinucleated cells may result from a defect in:
A)myosin V.
B)myosin I.
C)stress fiber formation.
D)myosin II.
Q3) What are the functions of the myosin head domain and tail domain,respectively?
Q4) What is the function of thymosin ?
Q5) Describe the functional properties of the head,neck,and tail domains of myosin.
Q6) How do cells grip the substrate to generate locomotion?
Q7) How do actin filaments appear when viewed by negative stain electron microscopy?
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Chapter 17: Cell Organization and Movement II:
Microtubules and Intermediate Filaments
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Q1) A microtubule protofilament is formed by the:
A)lateral association of only -tubulin subunits.
B)head-to-tail association of only -tubulin subunits.
C)lateral association of tubulin dimers.
D)head-to-tail association of tubulin dimers.
Q2) What are the effects of colchicine and taxol on cells?
Q3) What is a microtubule protofilament?
Q4) Why would neuronal vesicles probably contain both kinesin and cytosolic dynein?
Q5) Growing microtubule ends are normally stabilized by:
A)a GDP cap.
B)a GTP cap.
C)phosphorylation of tubulin subunits.
D) -tubulin.
Q6) During mitosis,the breakdown of the nuclear envelope depends on the disassembly of lamin filaments that form a meshwork supporting the membrane.How is that breakdown accomplished?
Q7) In most cells,where do all microtubules originate?
Q8) What happens to a microtubule that loses its GTP cap?
Q9) What is the role of the basal body in generating axoneme structure? Page 19
Q10) What role do astral microtubules play in spindle elongation?
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Chapter 18: Regulating the Eukaryotic Cell Cycle
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Q1) What is a cdc mutant? What protein is encoded by cdc2 in fission yeast?
Q2) Separase initiates sister chromatid segregation at anaphase by cleaving:
A)APC.
B)Cdc20.
C)cyclin B.
D)Scc1.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a way G1/S cyclin/cdks ensure progression through the cell cycle?
A)inactivate APC via Cdh1 phosphorylation
B)phosphorylate the S phase inhibitor (CKI)
C)activate SCF E3 ligase
D)activate expression of S-phase cyclins
Q4) Separation of spindle poles during spindle formation and anaphase B most likely depends on which of the following?
A)(+)end-directed microtubule motors at the cell cortex
B)(+)end-directed microtubule motors at the kinetochore
C)( )end-directed microtubule motors in the microtubule overlap zone
D)(+)end-directed microtubule motors in the microtubule overlap zone
Q5) What stimulus is required for quiescent cells to re-enter the cell cycle? What events occur after stimulation?
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Chapter 19: Integrating Cells Into Tissues
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Q1) Cellular responses to adhesion receptor signaling do NOT include:
A)cell proliferation.
B)cytoskeletal organization.
C)gene transcription.
D)all of the above
Q2) Proteoglycans are:
A)located exclusively at the cell surface.
B)located exclusively in the extracellular matrix.
C)highly positively charged.
D)glycoproteins that contain glycosaminoglycans.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a property of perlecan?
A)It contains laminin-like LG domains.
B)It is a proteoglycan.
C)It is only found in the basal lamina.
D)It is a glycoprotein.
Q4) What are the three unusually abundant amino acids in collagen?
Q5) Describe the importance of extravasation and how leukocytes use this mechanism to fight infection/inflammation.
Q6) What is the role of Ca² in NCAM-mediated homophilic cell-cell adhesion?
Q7) What is the oligomeric structure of integrins?
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Chapter 30: Cell Birth, Lineage, and Death
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Q1) Which of the following forms a dimer that gets displaced from the surface of the mitochondria by EGL-1?
A)CED-3
B)CED-4
C)CED-9
D)CED-8
Q2) How can somatic cell nuclear transfer be used to clone a mouse?
Q3) In mammalian development,which of the following is the correct chronological order of events?
A)blastocyst,zygote,four-cell,compacted morula,
B)zygote,four-cell,compacted morula,blastocyst
C)compacted morula,blastocyst,zygote,four-cell
D)four-cell,compacted morula,blastocyst,zygote
Q4) Apoptosis can be induced by a mitochondrial protein being released into the cytosol.This protein binds directly to what in the cytosol?
A)caspase 3
B)Bax
C)Bcl-2
D)Apaf-1
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Chapter 21: Nerve Cells
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Q1) Why are nongated channels important in the generation of an inside-negative electric potential (voltage)of 50-70 mV across the plasma membrane of cells?
Q2) Acetylcholine receptor loss is observed in people with:
A)schizophrenia.
B)drug addiction.
C)myasthenia gravis.
D)all of the above
Q3) How are neurotransmitters packaged at synaptic endings for quantal release?
Q4) Action potentials are propagated in only one direction,down the axon.Explain how the absolute refractory period of the voltage-gated Na channels and the brief hyperpolarization resulting from K efflux produces this outcome.
Q5) Action potentials:
A)vary in intensity
B)vary in frequency and timing
C)result in a decrease in resting potential
D)all of the above
Q6) Explain how the expression of the H /acetylcholine antiporter and the choline acetyltransferase enzyme are coordinated.
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Chapter 22: Immunology
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Q1) Tear fluids and other secretions are rich in:
A)IgA.
B)IgE.
C)IgG.
D)IgM.
Q2) When comparing transcytosis of IgA in tears and IgG in neonates,which of the following is NOT true?
A)Both processes involve transport into and back out of an epithelial cell.
B)Both processes require recognition of the immunoglobulin by a cell surface receptor.
C)Both processes result in cleavage by proteolysis to release the bound immunoglobulin.
D)Both processes rely on vesicle trafficking within a cell.
Q3) Somatic recombination is catalyzed by RAG1 and RAG2 recombinases.How does the RAG1-RAG2 complex recognize the cleavage site at the exact boundary of the coding and signal sequences in the variable regions of immunoglobulin genes?
Q4) Explain why Bence-Jones proteins are different for different B-cell tumors from different patients but identical when isolated from a single tumor.
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Chapter 23: Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following is a proto-oncogene?
A)APC
B)myc
C)ptc1
D)Rb
Q2) Burkitt's lymphoma results from the overproduction of:
A)Fos.
B)Myc.
C)Ras.
D)Src.
Q3) A patient with B cell leukemia donates some cancer cells for analysis.The cells do not contain the usual chromosomal translocations associated with leukemia.Instead,a sporadic mutation seems to have arisen in a certain gene,followed by loss of heterozygosity in the second copy.This gene product is most likely: A)Ras.
B)Rb.
C)VEGF.
D)telomerase.
Q4) Describe the Warburg effect and how it applies to cancer cells.
Q5) What is the multi-hit model of cancer? What data support this model?
26
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