Biomedical Sciences
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the scientific principles underpinning human health and disease, integrating knowledge from fields such as anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, genetics, microbiology, and pharmacology. This interdisciplinary course examines the structure and function of the human body, the molecular and cellular mechanisms of disease, diagnostic methods, and therapeutic strategies. Students will develop an understanding of how biomedical research drives advancements in medicine, biotechnology, and public health, preparing them for careers in healthcare, research, or further study in medical and allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4302 Verified Questions
4302 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common name for the patella is the ________. Answer: kneecap
Q2) While standing erect,the direction of caudal is
A)toward the head.
B)toward the heel.
C)lateral to the trunk.
D)medial to the sides.
E)posterior to the head.
Answer: B
Q3) The thoracic cavity contains the A)coelom.
B)pericardial cavity.
C)pelvic cavity.
D)pleural cavities.
E)pericardial and pleural cavities.
Answer: E
Q4) The common term for the buccal region is the ________. Answer: cheek
Q5) The common name for the pollex is the ________. Answer: thumb
3
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites.
A)amino
B)active
C)carboxyl
D)reactant
E)neutral
Answer: B
Q2) The alpha-helix and pleated sheet are examples of ________ protein structure.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
E)pentanary
Answer: B
Q3) The molecule DNA contains a five-carbon sugar called ________. Answer: deoxyribose
Q4) A(n)________ is a covalent bond that stores an unusually large amount of energy. Answer: high-energy bond
Q5) Chemical reactions that release energy are called ________. Answer: exergonic
4
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase,it could not
A)form protein.
B)form complementary sequences of DNA.
C)link segments of DNA together.
D)form spindle fibers.
E)form a new nuclear membrane during telophase.
Answer: B
Q2) A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called
A)active transport.
B)passive transport.
C)facilitated transport.
D)osmosis.
E)diffusion.
Answer: A
Q3) Permanent alterations in a cell's DNA that affect the nucleotide sequence of one or more genes are called ________.
Answer: mutations
Q4) A malignant neoplasm is often called a(n)________.
Answer: cancer
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epithelia that line body cavities and blood vessels are classified as
A)simple squamous.
B)stratified squamous.
C)simple cuboidal.
D)stratified cuboidal.
E)transitional.
Q2) A biology student accidentally loses the labels of two prepared slides she is studying.One is a slide of an intestine,the other of an esophagus.You volunteer to help her sort them out.How would you decide which slide is which?
Q3) Transitional epithelium is found
A)lining the urinary bladder.
B)lining the ducts that drain sweat glands.
C)lining kidney tubules.
D)lining the stomach.
E)at the surface of the skin.
Q4) Epithelia and connective tissues combine to form ________ that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body.
Q5) The body's first tissue response to any injury is ________.
Q6) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The highest concentration of merocrine sweat glands is found
A)in the axillae.
B)on the chest.
C)on the palms of the hands.
D)on the upper back.
E)surrounding the genitals.
Q2) The two components of the integumentary system are the
A)epidermis and dermis.
B)cutaneous membrane and hypodermis.
C)cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
D)integument and hypodermis.
E)epidermis and superficial fascia.
Q3) Thin skin contains ________ layer(s)of keratinocytes,and thick skin contains ________ layers.
A)1; 2
B)2; 3
C)3; 4
D)4; 5
E)5; 6
Q4) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the
A)diaphysis
B)epiphysis
C)osseophysis
D)metaphysis
E)medullary cavity
Q2) Put the following steps of bone repair in correct sequence: 1. Cartilage in the external callus is replaced by bone.
2) A hematoma occurs.
3) An internal callus forms at the site of injury.
4) Osteoclasts remodel the bone at the site of repair.
A)1,2,3,4
B)2,1,3,4
C)3,1,4,2
D)4,2,3,1
E)2,3,1,4
Q3) During the process of ________,an existing tissue is replaced by bone.
Q4) The adult skeleton contains ________ major bones.
Q5) The process of depositing calcium into a tissue is called ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many bones make up the axial skeleton?
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
E)90
Q2) You witness one of your friends in a fight.Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him,his face looks misaligned.You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken
A)temporal bone.
B)zygomatic bone.
C)mandible.
D)external auditory meatus.
E)clavicle.
Q3) The hyoid bone is suspended by ________ ligaments.
A)sutural
B)styloid
C)hyoid
D)stylohyoid
E)sternocleidomastoid
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hand has 15 phalangeal bones; the foot has 14 phalangeal bones.
A)The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
B)The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
C)The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
D)The first statement is false and the second statement is false.
E)too much anatomical variability to be sure
Q2) Which of the following is not a lower limb bone?
A)fibula
B)ulna
C)metatarsal
D)patella
E)femur
Q3) A ligament attaches the acetabulum to the femur at the ________,a small pit in the center of the femoral head.
Q4) Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton?
A)closure of the fontanels
B)bone remodeling
C)reduction in mineral content
D)appearance of major vertebral curves
E)fusion of the coxal bones
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a synchondrosis is the articulation of the
A)ribs with the sternum.
B)radius and the ulna.
C)femur with the acetabulum.
D)atlas and the axis.
E)navicular bone with the cuniform bones.
Q2) Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension?
A)opening the mouth
B)turning the hand palm upward
C)extreme bending of the head backwards
D)moving the hand toward the shoulder
E)spreading the fingers
Q3) Complete dislocation of the knee is rare because
A)the knee is protected by the patella.
B)the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee.
C)the knee contains seven major ligaments.
D)the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks.
E)the knee is extremely resilient.
Q4) Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages,but the specific cause can vary.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this drug's effect on skeletal muscle contraction?
A)increases tone in the muscle
B)causes a strong contraction similar to a "charlie horse" cramp
C)increases the muscle's excitability
D)produces a strong,continuous state of contraction
E)reduces the muscle's ability for contraction
Q2) Each thin filament consists of
A)two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other.
B)chains of myosin molecules.
C)six molecules coiled into a helical structure.
D)a rod-shaped structure with "heads" projecting from each end.
E)a double strand of myosin molecules.
Q3) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
A)muscle fatigue.
B)the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
C)muscle contraction.
D)muscle relaxation.
E)the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the musculoskeletal system,levers are formed by ________.
Q2) The vastus lateralis,vastus medialis,and vastus intermedius muscles originate on the ________ of the femur.
A)greater trochanter
B)medial epicondyle
C)lesser trochanter
D)linea aspera
E)capitulum
Q3) Identify the muscle labeled "3."
A)rhomboid major
B)supraspinatus
C)infraspinatus
D)deltoid
E)teres minor
Q4) Muscles visible at the body surface are often called A)internus.
B)extrinsic.
C)profundus.
D)intrinsic.
E)superficialis.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue
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168 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
A)norepinephrine.
B)adrenalin.
C)serotonin.
D)acetylcholine.
E)GABA.
Q2) Which of the following is true about threshold for an action potential?
A)It is more positive than the resting potential.
B)Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to close.
C)Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to open.
D)The membrane begins to hyperpolarize.
E)Threshold for a typical neuron is approximately -30 mV.
Q3) The basic functional unit of the nervous system are cells called ________.
Q4) The axon is connected to the soma at the
A)telodendria.
B)synaptic terminal.
C)collaterals.
D)axon hillock.
E)synapse.
Q5) The ________ division carries motor commands to muscles and glands.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs do not rejoin the spinal nerve but form
A)dorsal rami.
B)ventral rami.
C)white rami.
D)gray rami.
E)sympathetic nerves.
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "8."
A)peripheral nerve
B)dorsal ramus
C)spinal nerve
D)ventral root
E)dorsal root
Q3) Where do somatic motor neurons reside?
A)10
B)12
C)13
D)14
E)15
Q4) The dura mater tapers inferiorly to form the ________.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the
A)prefrontal cerebral cortex.
B)occipital association cortex.
C)reticular formation.
D)temporal lobe.
E)cerebral ganglia.
Q2) As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum,the functions of each successive level become
A)more complex.
B)simpler.
C)better understood.
D)more crucial to visceral functions.
E)critical to reflexes.
Q3) The dural sinuses are located in the
A)paranasal cavity.
B)arachnoid.
C)pia mater.
D)dural folds.
E)tentorium cerebelli.
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Chapter 15: Neural Integration I: Sensory Pathways and the
Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A receptor potential may
A)increase neurotransmitter release.
B)decrease neurotransmitter release.
C)be a hyperpolarization.
D)be a depolarization.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The cerebellum relies on information from
A)the eyes.
B)the inner ear as movements are underway.
C)proprioceptive sensations.
D)motor commands from upper motor neurons.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as ________.
Q4) While playing lacrosse,Frank took a blow to the back of his neck.This caused swelling of the posterior spinal cord at C ,T .What tract lies in this area? What signs might you expect Frank to show while the swelling persists?
Q5) A(n)________ is a depolarization of a sensory dendrite that can lead to an afferent nerve impulse if strong enough.
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Chapter 16: Neural Integration Ii: the Autonomic Nervous
System and
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Sample Questions
Q1) A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n)________ neuron.
A)upper motor
B)lower motor
C)preganglionic
D)postganglionic
E)somatomotor
Q2) Which of the following visceral reflexes is not coordinated by the medulla oblongata?
A)swallowing reflex
B)vasomotor reflex
C)coughing reflex
D)cardioacceleratory reflex
E)pupillary reflex
Q3) Which of the following is not a parasympathetic ganglion?
A)ciliary ganglion.
B)pterygopalatine ganglion.
C)submandibular ganglion.
D)otic ganglion.
E)celiac ganglion.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause
A)contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles.
B)contraction of the radial pupillary muscles.
C)conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal.
D)a decrease in the size of the pupil.
E)parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil.
Q2) An adult has approximately ________ taste buds.
A)30
B)3,000
C)300,000
D)300
E)30,000
Q3) A typical gustatory cell survives for only about ________ days before it is replaced.
Q4) Photoreceptor cells that are most useful in dim light are ________.
Q5) Gustatory receptors are clustered in individual ________.
Q6) Modified sebaceous glands located along the margin of the eyelid that secrete a lipid-rich product are called ________ glands.
Q7) The olfactory receptors are highly modified ________.
Q8) Where the eyelids join at the medial or lateral edge is called the ________.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus controls secretion by the adenohypophysis by
A)direct neural stimulation.
B)indirect osmotic control.
C)secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system.
D)altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary.
E)gap synaptic junctions.
Q2) If the adenyl cyclase activity of liver cells were missing,which of these hormones could no longer stimulate release of glucose?
A)insulin
B)glucagon
C)cortisol
D)thyroxine
E)leptin
Q3) Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry.These categories include
A)peptides.
B)steroids.
C)eicosanoids.
D)amino acid derivatives.
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot.Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)lymphocytes
E)monocytes
Q2) The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells.
Q3) In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated?
A)during coagulation
B)an alcoholic with a damaged liver
C)iron-deficient diet
D)low hematocrit
E)low blood volume
Q4) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?
Q5) The most abundant plasma protein is ________.
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons.
A)The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false.
B)The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true.
C)Both parts of the statement are true.
D)Both parts of the statement are false.
E)Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of heart rate.
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A)cusp of tricuspid valve
B)pulmonary semilunar valve
C)aortic semilunar valve
D)bicuspid valve
E)ligamentum arteriosum
Q3) What occurs at "A" on the graph?
A)semilunar valve opens
B)semilunar valve closes
C)AV valve opens
D)AV valve closes
E)end systolic volume
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Edema may occur (only)when
A)the plasma concentration of protein is reduced.
B)capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated.
C)capillary endothelium permeability goes up.
D)the plasma concentration of protein is reduced and capillary endothelium permeability goes up.
E)the plasma concentration of protein is reduced,capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated,and the capillary endothelium permeability goes up.
Q2) The ________ receives blood from the suprarenal gland.
Q3) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following,except the A)length of a blood vessel.
B)osmolarity of interstitial fluids.
C)turbulence.
D)blood viscosity.
E)blood vessel diameter.
Q4) The pressure difference between the base of the aorta and the right atrium is the
Q5) The inferior portion of the spinal cord and the abdominal wall receive blood from the
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity.
A)active
B)natural passive
C)passive
D)auto
E)innate
Q2) The thoracic duct originates from an expanded chamber called the ________.
Q3) Lymphocytes may be found in which of the following tissues or organs?
A)tonsils
B)spleen
C)lymph nodes
D)thymus
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with A)hyaline cartilage.
B)blood vessels.
C)adipose tissue.
D)sensory nerve endings.
E)both blood vessels and adipose tissue.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
A)40 mm Hg.
B)45 mm Hg.
C)50 mm Hg.
D)70 mm Hg.
E)100 mm Hg.
Q2) Air entering the body is filtered,warmed,and humidified by the
A)upper respiratory tract.
B)lower respiratory tract.
C)lungs.
D)alveoli.
E)bronchioles.
Q3) The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.
A)three lobes; two lobes
B)two lobes; two lobes
C)two lobes; three lobes
D)three lobes; three lobes
E)four lobes; three lobes
Q4) A unique feature of the left lung is the ________.
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brunner glands are characteristic of the A)stomach.
B)duodenum.
C)jejunum.
D)ileum.
E)colon.
Q2) The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the gut tube.These include
A)epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous.
B)epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar.
C)muscularis externa may be striated muscle.
D)epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous and simple columnar.
E)epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.
Q3) Upon swallowing,food moves from the mouth into the ________.
Q4) The gas produced by bacteria in the colon as they metabolize indigestible carbohydrates is called ________.
Q5) A viral infection that often involves the parotid glands,which swell noticeably,is
Page 26
Q6) The technical term for chewing is ________.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrogen atoms from one FADH from the citric acid cycle produce how much ATP in the Electron Transport System?
A)32 ATP
B)2 ATP
C)3 ATP
D)4 ATP
E)1 ATP
Q2) The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolized are A)carbohydrates.
B)proteins.
C)fats.
D)nucleic acids.
E)vitamins.
Q3) What is the molecule labeled "7" ?
A)hydrogen atoms
B)citric acid
C)4 carbon molecule
D)NADH
E)FADH
Q4) The transfer of heat energy by emission of photons is called ________.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In glomerulonephritis,the normal filtration barrier is damaged and becomes far more permeable to plasma proteins,such as albumin along with other solutes.How would that affect glomerular filtration?
Q2) Which of the following substances undergo tubular secretion:
A)water
B)glucose
C)hydrogen ions
D)sodium ions
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries within the cortex called the ________ capillaries.
A)peritubular
B)glomerular
C)vasa recta
D)cortical
E)efferent
Q4) Nephrons located close to the medulla with long nephron loops are called
Q5) Urine is temporarily stored in the ________.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on a ventilator subjected to excessive minute volume is at risk for
A)respiratory acidosis.
B)respiratory alkalosis.
C)metabolic acidosis.
D)metabolic alkalosis.
Q2) Hypoventilation leads to
A)respiratory acidosis.
B)respiratory alkalosis.
C)metabolic acidosis.
D)metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Secretion of potassium into the urine is
A)increased by ADH.
B)associated with the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubules and collecting ducts.
C)minimal because the human diet includes very little potassium.
D)an indication of dehydration.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) A ________ acid is an acid that cannot leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
Q5) A ________ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
Page 29
Q6) When the pH rises above 7.45,a state of ________ exists.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inferior portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina is the A)isthmus.
B)fornix.
C)fundus.
D)body.
E)cervix.
Q2) The ________ is the portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina.
A)body
B)cervix
C)myometrium
D)fundus
E)internal os
Q3) The reproductive system
A)produces gametes.
B)stores gametes.
C)transports gametes.
D)nourishes gametes.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) The ________ ligament extends from the uterus,near the attachment of the uterine tube,to the medial surface of the ovary.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
140 Verified Questions
140 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34538
Sample Questions
Q1) Which embryonic germ layer forms the brain and spinal cord?
A)ectoderm
B)endoderm
C)trophoderm
D)epiderm
E)mesooderm
Q2) The ________ chromosomes determine gender.
Q3) Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of A)estrogen.
B)progesterone.
C)oxytocin.
D)relaxin.
E)chorionic gonadotropin.
Q4) Identify the structures labeled "4."
A)zygotic twins
B)morula
C)blastomere
D)trophoblast
E)polar bodies
Q5) How many chromosomes do human gametes contain?
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