Biomedical Sciences
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underlying human health and disease. The course integrates knowledge from anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, cell biology, genetics, microbiology, and pharmacology to provide a comprehensive understanding of the human body and its functions. Emphasizing both theoretical foundations and practical laboratory techniques, students develop critical thinking and analytical skills essential for medical research, clinical diagnostics, and healthcare innovation. This foundational knowledge prepares students for careers in medicine, biomedical research, biotechnology, and related health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by Gerard
J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body fluid fills the narrow spaces between cells and tissues?
A)lymph
B)blood plasma
C)interstitial fluid
D)intracellular fluid
E)vitreous body
Answer: C
Q2) Mammography and bone densitometry are good examples of which medical imaging?
A)computed tomography
B)magnetic resonance imaging
C)ultrasound scanning
D)radionuclide scanning
E)low-dose radiography
Answer: E
Q3) If blood concentrations of thyroid hormones increase above a certain level,Thyroid releasing hormone (TRH)neurons in the hypothalamus are inhibited and stop secreting TRH.This is an example of
A)negative feedback
B)positive feedback
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organic compound is lacking the human digestive system that makes it unable to digest cellulose?
Answer: Human digestive system lacks the enzyme to recognize the structure and break the bonds that hold this polysaccharide together.
Q2) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element nitrogen in the human body?
A)The ionized form makes body fluids acidic.
B)The ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid.
C)The ionized form is needed for action of many enzymes.
D)It is a component of all proteins and nucleic acids.
E)The ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid.
Answer: D
Q3) The number of protons in an atom is represented by an element's
A)mass number.
B)atomic number.
C)atomic mass.
D)valence number.
E)None of these choices.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to hormones and neurotransmitters?
A)transporters
B)receptors
C)enzymes
D)linkers
E)cell identification markers
Answer: B
Q2) Which cellular organelle is comprised of a pair of centrioles and the surrounding pericentriolar material.
A)cytoskeleton
B)cilia
C)centrosome
D)flagella
E)peroxisomes
Answer: C
Q3) Define homologous chromosomes.
Answer: Homologous chromosomes contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same)order.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which membrane lines freely moveable joints?
A)Mucous membrane
B)Serous membrane
C)Cutaneous membrane
D)Synovial membrane
Q2) The _______ component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers,and functions to support and bind cells in the tissue together?
A)matrix
B)formed elements
C)ground substance
D)basement membrane
Q3) Mesenchyme will differentiate into all EXCEPT
A)osteoblasts
B)Erythrocytes
C)chondroblasts
D)fibroblasts
E)keratinocytes
Q4) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium composes the A)epidermis.
B)dermis.
C)hypodermis.
D)subcutaneous layer.
E)superficial fascia.
Q2) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.
Q3) Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for.
Q4) How do nutrients reach the epidermis?
A)absorbing material applied to the surface layer of the skin.
B)utilizing the products of merocrine glands to nourish the epidermis.
C)the outer layer of the skin does not require nutrients because the external layer of cells is not living.
D)diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis.
Q5) Albinism is the inherited inability to produce A)melanin.
B)carotene.
C)both melanin and carotene.
D)keratin.
E)melanocytes.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mechanical stress [dropdown 1] osteoblast activity in bone,and removal of mechanical stress [dropdown 2] osteoblast activity in bone. Optional answers for dropdown Decreases Increases Maintains
Q2) If collagen is removed from bone,what happens to the bone? Choose the best answer.
A)The bone becomes stiff and brittle.
B)The bone becomes soft and flexible.
C)The bone shows no noticeable difference.
D)The bone will break into numerous pieces.
Q3) The ______is composed of hyaline cartilage and allows the diaphysis to grow in length.
A)periosteum
B)distal epiphysis
C)epiphyseal line
D)articular cartilage
E)epiphyseal plate
Q4) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
A)hyoid
B)ribs
C)vertebrae
D)carpals
E)sternum
Q2) The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _____ of the temporal bone.
A)mastoid process
B)styloid process
C)occipital condyle
D)zygomatic process
E)superior nuchal line
Q3) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the
A)thoracic and sacral curves.
B)lumbar and sacral curves.
C)cervical and lumbar curves.
D)cervical and thoracic curves.
E)cervical and sacral curves.
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System:
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following carpal bones is named for its large hook-shaped projection on its anterior surface?
A)lunate
B)scaphoid
C)triquetrum
D)hamate
E)pisiform
Q2) Shoulder (glenohumeral)dislocations are very common in emergency care.Which statement best describes an anterior shoulder dislocation?
A)Humeral head is in front of the glenoid cavity
B)Humeral head is below the acromion process
C)Humeral head is above the coracoid process
D)Humeral head is below the glenoid cavity
Q3) In comparison to the male pelvis,the female pelvis is NOT
A)wider.
B)shallower.
C)larger in the pelvic inlet.
D)larger in the pelvic outlet.
E)larger in the acetabulum.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a body builder flexes their biceps brachii,what motion is occurring?
A)an increased angle between articulating bones
B)a decreased angle between articulating bones
C)movement away from midline
D)movement in a circle
E)a superior movement
Q2) Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid.
Q3) Forming a fist,requires the fingers to perform what motion?
A)Opposition
B)Extension
C)Dorsiflexion
D)Flexion
E)Rotation
Q4) The epiphyseal plate in a growing long bone is an example of a
A)gomphosis
B)suture
C)symphysis
D)synostosis
E)synchondrosis
Q5) Describe the general effects that aging has on joints.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which region of a sarcomere contain thin filaments?
A)I band
B)A band
C)H zone
D)Both I band and A band.
Q2) )Skeletal muscle contraction is triggered to begin when calcium is released from
A)myofibrils
B)mitochondria
C)terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
D)T-tubules
Q3) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?
Q4) Which type of muscle tissue contracts when excited by their own autorhythmic muscle fibers?
A)cardiac muscle
B)slow twitch oxidative skeletal muscle
C)multi-unit smooth muscle
D)fast twitch glycolytic skeletal muscle
Q5) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.
Q6) In embryonic muscle development,what happens to the somites?
Q7) What is the major difference between the two types of smooth muscle tissue?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This muscle,which is found in the neck,functions to elevate the hyoid bone and help press the tongue against the roof of the mouth during swallowing.
A)mylohyoid
B)sternothryroid
C)sternocleidomastoid
D)digastric
E)masseter
Q2) "How much wood would a woodchuck chuck if a woodchuck could chuck wood" is difficult to say.What muscles work together to allow this to be spoken?
A)masseter,buccinators,temporalis,platysma
B)palatoglossus,styloglossus,genioglossus,hyoglossus
C)risorius,zygomaticus minor,zygomaticus major
D)mentalis,orbicularis oris,levator labii superioris
E)sternohyoid,omohyoid,sternothyroid
Q3) Name and describe the locations and actions of the muscles typically used in breathing.
Q4) With reference to the effort and load,describe the main difference between a lever operating with a mechanical advantage versus a lever operating at a mechanical disadvantage.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the events that occur with the voltage-gated sodium channel during the depolarizing phase of an action potential.
Q2) The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into
A)somatic and sympathetic divisions.
B)somatic and parasympathetic divisions.
C)enteric and somatic divisions.
D)sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
E)voluntary and involuntary divisions.
Q3) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q4) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Q5) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.
Q6) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q7) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body?
A)Cervical
B)Thoracic
C)Lumbar
D)Thigh
E)Arms
Q2) The nerves that supply the thigh and calf of leg emerge from the
A)lumbar enlargement
B)filum terminale
C)cauda equina
D)conus medullaris
E)cervical enlargement
Q3) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would be represented by the contraction of the gastrocnemius muscle or the radial iris muscles?
A)Sensory receptor
B)Sensory neuron
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Integrating center
Q4) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spinocerebellar tract axons carry sensory information into the cerebellum by the
A)Inferior cerebellar peduncle
B)Middle cerebellar peduncle
C)Superior cerebellar peduncle
D)Anterior lobe
E)Posterior lobe
Q2) Which functional area of the cerebrum is responsible for the ability to form words?
A)Broca's area
B)Primary visual area
C)Common integrative area
D)Primary olfactory area
E)Primary somatosensory area
Q3) Which of the following conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum?
A)Association tracts
B)Basal nuclei
C)Projection tracts
D)Septum pellucidum
E)Commissural tracts
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a doctor administers atropine IV,a muscarinic antagonist,followed by a high dose of ACh,you still see an increase in heart rate.Where is the ACh acting?
A)Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic sympathetic neuron causing NE release to the heart,increasing heartrate.
B)Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron causing ACh release to the heart,increasing heartrate
C)Nicotinic receptors of the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron preventing ACh release to the heart,increasing heartrate
D)Muscarinic receptors of the postganglionic sympathetic neuron causing NE release to the heart,increasing heartrate.
Q2) In a sympathetic division motor pathway,which neurotransmitter is released at the kidney?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Acetylcholine
C)Epinephrine
D)Dopamine
E)Serotonin
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor, and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Corticospinal pathways that decussate in the [dropdown 1] form the [dropdown 2].Corticospinal pathways that do not decussate form the [dropdown 3]?
Dropdown 1 choices:
Medulla oblongata
Pons
Thalamus
Midbrain
Dropdown 2&3 choices:
Anterior corticospinal tract
Indirect motor pathway
Lateral corticospinal tract
Q2) If an individual decided to perform a back flip,which area organizes the necessary motor functions?
A)direct motor pathways
B)primary motor area
C)premotor area
D)primary somatosensory area
E)visual association area
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18
Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pink eye is an infection of the thin mucous membrane that protects the inner aspect of the eyelids and the anterior portion of the sclera.What membrane is involved?
A)Palpebral fissure
B)Conjunctiva
C)Lateral commissure
D)Cornea
E)Choroid
Q2) Which is the transparent layer on the anterior of the eyeball through which the iris can be observed?
A)Retina
B)Choroid
C)Sclera
D)Ciliary body
E)Cornea
Q3) Explain what happens when rods are exposed to light.
Q4) Differentiate between linear and rotational acceleration and deceleration.Describe the inner ear structures involved in receiving and transducing sensations involved in maintaining both types of equilibria.
Q5) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differences between endocrine and exocrine glands include
A)endocrine glands secrete hormones while exocrine glands secrete non-hormonal substances
B)exocrine glands secrete their contents into ducts;endocrine glands have no ducts
C)products of exocrine glands work at sites distant from the actual glands
D)choices a and b
E)choices b and c
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland aging effect?
A)Rise in the blood levels of PTH
B)Less cortisol and aldosterone production
C)Decreased levels of gonadotropins
D)Decreased levels of calcitriol and calcitonin
E)Increase in thymus size
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A)Increased lipolysis
B)Increased glycogenesis
C)Increased gluconeogenesis
D)Increased digestive activities
E)Increased breakdown of proteins
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is
A)4 to 5 years.
B)4 to 5 hours.
C)5 to 9 days.
D)120 days.
E)120 weeks.
Q2) Imagine that you are a doctor and your patient appears to have an infection.You are not sure if the infection is bacterial,viral,fungal or parasitic.Which blood test would you order and how would you determine the causative agent of the infection?
Q3) During hemopoiesis,some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into A)proerythroblasts.
B)T lymphoblasts.
C)B lymphoblasts.
D)NK lymphoblasts.
E)all of these choices.
Q4) Kwashiorkor,a protein deficiency disease typically seen in young children living in developing tropical nations,will have an effect on three different main areas of health related to the blood.Explain why the three areas are effected and which proteins are involved in these functions.
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparison to skeletal muscle fibers,the contractile fibers of the heart are depolarized for [___] period of time.
Dropdown Choices: a longer a shorter a variable the same
Q2) Two hormones that increase heart rate are [dropdown 1] and [dropdown 2].
Dropdown 1 Choices: adrenocorticotropic hormone
growth hormone
testosterone thyroid hormone
Dropdown 2 Choices: acetylcholine epinephrine
insulin melatonin
Q3) Why is the myocardium of the left ventricle thicker than the myocardium of the right ventricle?
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a contribution of the cardiovascular system to other body systems?
A)Blood delivers clotting factors and WBCs that aid in hemostasis when skin is damaged.
B)Blood delivers calcium and phosphate ions that are needed for building bone extracellular matrix.
C)Blood carries carbon dioxide to body tissues and removes oxygen for use by other organs.
D)Blood carries newly absorbed nutrients and water to the liver.
E)Blood circulates cells and chemicals that carry out immune functions.
Q2) The right common carotid artery branches directly off the
A)left common carotid artery
B)left subclavian artery
C)brachiocephalic trunk
D)right subclavian artery
E)right coronary artery
Q3) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
Q4) What is the main difference between the pulmonary and systemic circulations with respect to their autoregulatory response to a drop in blood O<sub>2</sub> level?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Naturally acquired passive immunity is associated with which of the following?
A)Vaccination
B)Exposure to a microbe resulting in antibody formation
C)Receiving booster shots
D)Transfer of IgG from mother to fetus
E)Intravenous injection of antibodies
Q2) In which part of the thymus are T cells thought to die?
A)Capsule
B)Trabeculae
C)Epithelial cells
D)Thymic (Hassall's)corpuscles
E)T cells do not die in the thymus
Q3) What is the major difference between lymph and interstitial fluid?
A)Composition of electrolytes
B)White blood cells are present in lymph
C)Location
D)Types of proteins present
E)Red blood cells are present in interstitial fluid
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
Q5) Describe the ways to acquire adaptive immunity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?
A)Nose
B)Oral cavity
C)Pharynx
D)Trachea
E)Nasal meatuses
Q2) If an individual experiences a broken rib which is displaced sufficiently to puncture a lung,even though the outer skin is not punctured,he will most likely develop
A)pneumothorax
B)hemothorax
C)atelectasis
D)bronchiectasis
E)cachexia
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a conducting zone action?
A)Clean air of debris
B)Conduct air into the lungs
C)Add water to air
D)Warm air
E)All of these are actions of the conducting zone.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of hydrochloric acid?
A)Neck cell
B)Chief cell
C)G cell
D)Chyme cell
E)Parietal cell
Q3) Which major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions?
A)Pancreatic duct
B)Hepatopancreatic duct
C)Cystic duct
D)Bile duct
E)Hepatic duct
Q4) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the terminal phosphate is cut off of ATP what is formed?
A)Adenosine diphosphate
B)GTP
C)Adenosine monophosphate
D)Metabolic water
E)Glucose
Q2) Where does glycolysis take place?
A)Cytosol
B)Plasma membrane
C)Nucleus
D)Mitochondria
E)Golgi Apparatus
Q3) The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is
A)Decrease in the formation of ketone bodies
B)Increase in ATP production
C)Inhibition of insulin
D)Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure
E)Increase in lipolysis
Q4) Which vitamins are considered "antioxidant vitamins?" Why is this role so important?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Increased secretion of hydrogen ions would result in a(n)______________ of blood ____________?
A)increase,pressure
B)decrease,volume
C)increase,sodium levels
D)decrease,pH
E)increase,urea
Q2) What type of cells are found in the proximal convoluted tubule?
A)simple squamous
B)simple columnar
C)simple cuboidal
D)stratified squamous
E)stratified cuboidal
Q3) This is a test to measure kidney function.
A)Plasma creatinine
B)Renal study
C)Kidney assay
D)Dialysis
E)Hilus study
Q4) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Homeostasis
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Q1) Describe the negative feedback loop that stimulates thirst as a result of dehydration.
Q2) Which of the following is the most plentiful buffer in the tubular fluid of the kidney collecting duct?
A)Bicarbonate ion
B)Monohydrogen phosphate ion
C)Ammonium ion
D)Dihydrogen phosphate ion
E)None of these
Q3) Natriuresis
A)Is decreased Na<sup>+</sup> levels in urine
B)Is decreased Cl<sup>-</sup> levels in urine
C)Is increased K<sup>+</sup> levels in urine
D)Is increased PO<sup>-</sup> levels in urine
E)None of these choices
Q4) Describe the fluid and electrolyte disorders to which the elderly are particularly susceptible.
Q5) Why is a small amount of table salt (NaCl)included in intravenous or oral rehydration therapy?
Q6) Explain why infants suffer dehydration far more easily than adults.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which hormone promotes the final step of spermatogenesis?
A)Relaxin
B)Testosterone
C)Inhibin
D)Estrogen
E)Aldosterone
Q2) Menarche is
A)the first menses
B)the permanent cessation of menses
C)the first sign of sperm production
D)the time of first ovulation
E)a type of vaginal contraceptive
Q3) The male reproductive system arises from
A)paramesonephric (Mullerian)ducts
B)mesonephric (Wolffian)ducts
C)spermatic ducts
D)oviducts
E)none of these
Q4) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q5) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67083
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the portion of the endometrium that lies between the embryo and the stratum basale?
A)Decidua basalis
B)Decidua capsularis
C)Decidua parietalis
D)Lamina propria
E)Adventitia
Q2) Which of the following is the connection between the placenta and the embryo?
A)Amnion
B)Chorion
C)Umbilical cord
D)Placenta
E)Capillary beds
Q3) A deficiency in corticotropin-releasing hormone could lead to the development of _____ in the newborn.
A)liver disease
B)respiratory distress syndrome
C)cretinism
D)cardiovascular distress
E)hemolytic disease of the newborn
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