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Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological foundations of health and disease, integrating principles from biology, chemistry, physiology, and medical research. This course covers essential topics such as cellular and molecular biology, human anatomy and physiology, genetics, microbiology, and pathology. Students gain a comprehensive understanding of the mechanisms behind human health, the development of diseases, and current approaches to diagnosis, treatment, and prevention. Emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills, Biomedical Sciences prepares students for advanced studies or careers in medicine, healthcare, research, and related biomedical industries.
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Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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Q1) Chemical subunits called amino acids combine to make ____________________.
Answer: proteins
Q2) What is an example of basic research?
A) Developing a new diagnostic test
B) Synthesizing proteins for treating disease
C) Manufacturing a vaccine
D) Developing a new drug to treat diabetes
E) Learning how plants turn carbon dioxide into sugar
Answer: E
Q3) The decline of the eugenics movement in the U.S.in the early 20th century resulted from ____.
A) breakthroughs in genetic technology
B) violent protests by the medical community
C) the ability to manipulate gene expression
D) social outrage at the number of deaths caused by botched sterilizations
E) its misuse for social and political purposes by the Nazis
Answer: E
Q4) Transmission genetics studies the pattern of ____________________ as traits are passed from generation to generation.
Answer: inheritance

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Q1) The only cytoplasmic organelles in animal cells aside from nuclei that contain DNA are ____________________.
Answer: mitochondria
Q2) Autosomal chromosome pairs are identical,whereas the sex chromosome pair in males is not.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Mitosis is a process that is unique to humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) In meiosis of oogenesis,how many mature eggs result?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four E) five
Answer: A
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Q1) If a dihybrid cross is begun with a P1 generation of a true-breeding plant that produces smooth and yellow peas (smooth and yellow are both dominant traits),crossed with a plant that produces wrinkled green peas (wrinkled and green are both recessive traits),the F1 plants will all be smooth and yellow.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Mendel called crosses involving two traits ____________________ crosses. Answer: dihybrid
Q3) Pedigrees ____.
A) are usually constructed using the phenotypic information of one generation
B) cannot determine whether a trait has a dominant or recessive pattern
C) use squares to represent females and circles to represent males on their diagrams
D) are not useful in deducing the genotypes of parents
E) provide information on the patterns of inheritance of a trait
Answer: E
Q4) Pure-breeding individuals always have the ____________________ genotype. Answer: homozygous
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Q1) Summarize the arguments,both for and against,for the hypothesis that Abraham Lincoln had Marfan syndrome.
Q2) OMIM is an acronym that stands for ____________.
Q3) The basic method of genetic analysis in humans requires a(n)____________________ of several generations.
Q4) Genetic diseases transmitted only by a mother to both sons and daughters result from ____________________ genes.
Q5) Camptodactyly causes ____.
A) bent, immobile little fingers
B) breathing difficulties
C) loose joints
D) muscle deterioration
E) near-sightedness
Q6) Mitochondrial gene defects most often affect the ____________________ and the ____________________.
Q7) A mutation in the gene that codes for a connective tissue protein called fibrillin causes ____________________.
Q8) Define the term hemizygous and explain how the hemizygous condition relates to sex-linked inheritance.
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Q1) For threshold traits,the liability for a genetic disorder is distributed among individuals in a bell-shaped curve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dizygotic twins originate from two separate fertilization events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the breeding program initiated by King Frederick William of Prussia in the early 1700s to supply tall soldiers to the Potsdam Grenadier Guard.Was it successful? Why or why not?
Q4) The ____ model of genetic analysis of complex traits assumes that each gene involved has an equal effect on the phenotype.
A) cumulative
B) additive
C) epigenetic
D) polygenic
E) phenotypic
Q5) Complex traits are usually quantified by ____________________ rather than by
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Q1) The FRAX A site near the tip of the long arm of the X chromosome is associated with a form of intellectual disability known as Martin-Bell syndrome,or
Q2) If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I,____.
A) two gametes will be normal and two will be missing one chromosome
B) two gametes will be normal and two will have one extra chromosome
C) three gametes will be normal and one will have two extra chromosomes
D) all gametes will be normal
E) all gametes will be abnormal
Q3) A chromosome whose centromere is placed very close to,but not at,one end is called a(n)____________________ chromosome.
Q4) A deletion in the short arm of chromosome 5 is associated with ____ syndrome,which causes intellectual disability,defects in facial development,and an abnormal larynx.
A) Down
B) Klinefelter
C) Turner
D) cri du chat
E) XYY
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Q5) There are ____________________ chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell.

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Q1) Sex-influenced traits are expressed ____.
A) aftafter the formation of a Barr body
B) more in males than in females
C) as a result of hormone differences between males and females
D) only in males
E) only in females
Q2) The health effects of X-rays on a fetus depend on the amount of ____________________ and the ____________________ of the fetus.
Q3) The brain and nervous system of a developing embryo can only be damaged during the very early stages of development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The part of the male reproductive system where sperm mature is known as the ____.
A) epididymis
B) bulbourethral gland
C) testis
D) seminal vesicle
E) ejaculatory duct
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Q1) A(n)____________________ is made up of a sugar,a phosphate,and a nitrogenous base.
Q2) Explain why X-ray diffraction was important in the study of DNA structure and describe the procedure used in X-ray diffraction.
Q3) Nucleosomes are bead-like structures ____.
A) that form during interphase to assist with DNA uncoiling
B) that are a major class of proteins in chromatin
C) composed of histone wrapped with DNA
D) composed of linked homologous chromosomes
E) composed of pyrimidines and purines
Q4) If one strand of DNA has the sequence 5'-CCGTAGCA-3',the complementary strand would be written as ____________________.
Q5) ____________________ is spread by droplets produced when an infected person sneezes or coughs.
Q6) Summarize the process of DNA replication and outline the difference between how each strand replicates.
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Q7) The H5N1 influenza killed more than 50% of those infected. A)True B)False
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Q1) During processing in the nucleus,a(n)____________________ is added to the 3' end of mRNA molecules.
Q2) Proteins are composed of subunits called ____ linked together by chemical bonds.
A) nucleotides
B) polynucleotides
C) mRNAs
D) amino acids
E) proteasomes
Q3) Twenty different types of amino acids are used to make proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outline the series of steps that transfers genetic information from the linear sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule into the linear sequence of amino acids in a protein.
Q5) The primary structure of a protein is the ____________________ in a polypeptide chain.
Q6) A proteome is the set of ____________________ present in a particular cell at a specific time under a particular set of conditions.
Q7) Outline the three stages involved in the transcription of a DNA molecule.
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Q1) In the early years of the twentieth century,____ proposed that some genetic disorders and abnormalities of metabolism are related.
A) Sir Archibald Garrod
B) Francis Crick
C) Linus Pauling
D) Linda Bartoshuk
E) Gregor Mendel
Q2) The study of genetic variations that affect people's responses to environmental agents,including man-made chemicals,is called ____________________.
Q3) Supertasters for the chemical PTC are ____ for the trait.
A) homozygous dominant
B) heterozygous
C) homozygous recessive
D) either homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive
E) either homozygous dominant or heterozygous
Q4) The specific chemical compound that is acted on by an enzyme is called a(n)____________________.
Q5) Summarize the metabolic process represented in the accompanying diagram.
Q6) Hemoglobin is a(n)____________________-containing protein in red blood cells.
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Q1) Discuss how geneticists have concluded that the X-linked form of hemophilia that spread through the royal families of Western Europe and Russia in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries probably originated with Queen Victoria.
Q2) Sense mutations produce ____.
A) elongated proteins
B) shortened proteins
C) extra termination codons
D) frameshifts
E) cell death
Q3) Mutagenic chemicals that ____ and are incorporated into DNA or RNA during synthesis are called base analogs.
A) resemble nucleotides
B) resemble genes
C) resemble amino acids
D) cause deletion mutations
E) cause frameshift mutations
Q4) A cell that accumulates lots of mutational damage to its DNA may escape the normal controls of the cell cycle and become ____________________.
Q5) The epigenetic state of a cell is called its ____________________.
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Q1) List three properties that all forms of cancers share and summarize the origin of these properties.
Q2) Leukemia is a type of cancer that involves the uncontrolled division of ____________________ cells.
Q3) About one in three people will be diagnosed with cancer at some time in his/her life. A)True B)False
Q4) A characteristic of all cancers is that ____.
A) the cells divide continuously
B) they have a benign form and a deadly form
C) several mutations in several different genes are required in order for cancer to develop
D) they are always due to a chromosome disjunction mutation
E) the rapid proliferation of cells is required
Q5) One of the properties of cancer is its ability to spread,or ____________________,to other sites in the body.
Q6) One of the steps in converting normal cells into cancerous cells may be the ____________________ and silencing of both copies of the NOEY2 gene.
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Q1) Vectors can transfer ____.
A) DNA sequences into bacterial host cells for cloning
B) DNA sequences into viral host cells for cloning
C) cloned viral cells into a bacterial host for cloning
D) cloned mitochondria from donor cell to host cell
E) cloned chromosomes from the nucleus of a cell into its cytoplasm
Q2) To interpret microarray data,it is necessary to understand the significance of the color of each dot within the array.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genes isolated from mice or rats can often be used as ____________________ to identify and isolate the human version of the same gene.
Q4) Most often,genomic library screening uses ____.
A) a labeled, complementary single-stranded RNA or DNA molecule called a probe
B) colonies of vector bacteria on a Petri dish in order to replicate the desired genome
C) recombinant plasmids containing DNA and DNA ligase
D) cut plasmids containing recognition sites used to carry DNA molecules
E) tRNA polymerase copies with a truncated copy of a DNA template
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Q1) Do you think the widespread availability of human gene products,such as recombinant growth hormone,will lead to abuse in athletics? Why or why not?
Q2) Explain the advantages of using recombinant DNA technology to produce human proteins in transgenic plants,animals,or cultured cells.
Q3) Embryonic stem cells are harvested from the inner cell mass of an early stage embryo called a(n)____________________.
Q4) Why is the term GMO a misnomer for transgenic organisms?
Q5) Creating transgenic animal models for human disease research allows scientists to study new drugs and treatments in animals such as mice,before giving these drugs to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why are transgenic animals engineered as models of human disease,rather than studying the disease in humans?
Q7) Do you agree with the practice of engineering transgenic animals to be models of human disease? Why or why not?
Q8) Summarize the concerns related to the use of transgenic crops.
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Q1) The confirmed diagnosis that Baby T had Bartter syndrome was based on the use of ____,which sequenced only the protein coding regions of the genome.
A) whole genome sequencing
B) whole exome sequencing
C) whole introme sequencing
D) SNP analysis
E) whole proteome analysis
Q2) Since the whole genome sequencing method eliminates the need for constructing physical and genetic maps,this method is _____.
A) superior for linkage studies
B) the only sequencing method currently used in genomics research
C) faster than the map-based sequencing method
D) more accurate than the map-based sequencing method
E) less accurate than the map-based sequencing method
Q3) How is the field of bioinformatics indispensable for genomic research?
Q4) Genes on the same chromosome are said to show ____________________.
Q5) Explain how breast cancer diagnosis and treatment has benefited from proteomics and genomic analyses.
Q6) ____________________ molecules are responsible for the phenotype of an organism.
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Q1) Should legal restrictions limit the application of gene therapy to only correcting genetic defects? Should enhancement gene therapy and/or gene doping be illegal? Do you think such a law would be enforceable? Explain your reasoning.
Q2) _____ corrects the genetic defect in an individual with a genetic disorder by _____.
A) Enzyme replacement therapy; delivery of a normal gene to affected cells in the body
B) PGD; removing affected cells from an early stage embryo
C) Gene therapy; PGD
D) Gene therapy; delivery of a normal gene to affected cells in the body
E) Chorionic villus sampling; constructing karyotypes from affected cells
Q3) The most common cause of low sperm count in males is _____.
A) varicocele
B) undescended testicles
C) testicular failure
D) semen disorders
E) obstructions
Q4) Explain why infertility in women increases with advancing age,and how ART methods can overcome this problem in older women.
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Q1) A protein that interacts with an antibody is called a(n)____________________.
Q2) The chemical defense system that complements the immune system and supplements the inflammatory response is known as the ____________________ system.
Q3) ____________________ result from immunological hypersensitivity to what should be harmless substances.
Q4) Receptors on the surface of ____________________ T cells recognize the antigens displayed on the surface of an infected cell.
Q5) What is the underlying molecular cause of Crohn's disease?
A) B cells are mutated and do not release antibodies.
B) Receptor proteins are mutated and cause an abnormal immune response.
C) Helper T cells are inactivated.
D) Mucus is not released from epithelial tissues.
E) Antigen-presenting cells are absent.
Q6) The process by which an antigen binds to a specific antibody on a naïve B cell,thereby triggering mitosis and the build-up of a large population of antibody-secreting plasma cells (also known as effector B cells),is called
Q7) Disease-causing infectious agents are known as ____________________.
Q8) Once formed,B cells mature in the _____,while T cells mature in the _____.
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Q1) The only gene that has been positively identified with the onset of Alzheimer disease encodes a protein that _____.
A) is involved in cholesterol metabolism
B) breaks down neurotransmitters
C) maintains the health of striatum cells
D) attaches amino acids to tRNA molecules
E) breaks down fatty deposits around neurons
Q2) It is difficult to assign a precise phenotypic definition to alcoholism because _____. A) not enough volunteers agree to participate in genome wide association studies
B) alcoholism does not have environmental components
C) alcoholism is an innate behavior
D) genetic testing for alcoholism is not available
E) excessive consumption of alcohol is subjective
Q3) The _____________________ movement overemphasized the role of genetics in human behavior,leading to the forced sterilization of those who were considered genetically inferior based on personality traits.
Q4) Someone who steps on a sharp nail will quickly lift their foot away. This quick reaction is known as a(n)_____________________.
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Q1) Compare and contrast the out-of-Africa model and multiregional theories of the origin of modern man.Which theory is supported by the preponderance of genetic evidence? What type of evidence supports the other theory
Q2) A(n)_____________________ depicts the evolutionary relationships between related species.
Q3) One would think that deleterious genes would be eliminated by natural selection,yet we have two human genetic disorders with a high carrier frequency,sickle-cell anemia and cystic fibrosis.Why has this high frequency for these conditions remained in the population?
Q4) The Hardy-Weinberg law can be used to calculate allele and genotype frequencies without genetic testing.
A)True B)False
Q5) The measure of differential survival and reproductive success is termed _____________________.
Q6) Heterozygotes for the Tay-Sachs disease allele appear to have greater than normal resistance to _____________________,which supports the theory that _____________________ explains why this harmful allele persists in the gene pool.
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