Biomedical Science
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Science explores the biological principles underlying human health and disease, integrating knowledge from fields such as anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, microbiology, and pathology. Students gain foundational understanding of the molecular and cellular mechanisms that govern bodily functions and investigate how disruptions lead to illness. The course emphasizes laboratory skills, research methods, and diagnostic techniques essential for modern medical science, preparing students for careers in healthcare, research, and clinical laboratory settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology
12th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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25 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of A) homeostasis.
B) metabolism.
C) evolution.
D) reproduction.
E) organization.
Answer: C
Q2) Humans are part of the biosphere and must live in harmony with it if we are to survive as a species.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Organisms are composed of multiple cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) An important part of scientific research is repeatability.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our body is capable of converting starch into glycogen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) On a warm day in April,Tina jumped into the swimming pool.To her surprise the water was really cold.Which property of water did she discover?
A) Water molecules are cohesive.
B) The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly.
C) Water possesses hydrogen bonds.
D) Water is a polar molecule.
E) Frozen water is less dense than liquid water.
Answer: B
Q3) What passes through the digestive tract as fiber or roughage?
A) Chitin
B) Glucose
C) Glycogen
D) Starch
E) Cellulose
Answer: E
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
A) plasma membrane
B) nucleus
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi body
E) mitochondria
Answer: A
Q2) How large is a nuclear pore in the nuclear envelope?
A) larger than a ribosome
B) larger than the Golgi apparatus
C) larger than the endoplasmic reticulum
D) smaller than a ribosome
E) smaller than a protein
Answer: A
Q3) Only glucose can be used as an energy source in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stripes in skeletal muscle are due to the presence of
A) multiple nuclei per cell.
B) actin and myosin filaments.
C) intercalated discs.
D) the branching of the cells.
E) tendons connecting the muscle to bone.
Q2) Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities?
A) epithelial tissue
B) connective tissue
C) muscular tissue
D) nervous tissue
E) vascular tissue
Q3) Which layer of the skin is responsible for tanning?
A) epidermis
B) dermis
C) subcutaneous layer
Q4) Skin accounts for nearly 15% of the weight of an average human.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a city analogy,what is the cardiovascular system similar to?
A) roads
B) government building
C) grocery stores
D) waste recycling plant
E) power plant
Q2) What is a Jarvik 2000?
A) a cardioverter-defibrillator
B) a left ventricular assist device
C) a total artificial heart
D) a heart pump inserted inside the left ventricle
E) a form of coronary stent
Q3) What is considered the pacemaker of the heart?
A) medulla oblongata
B) the sinoatrial node
C) the atrioventricular node
D) Purkinje fibers
E) atrioventricular bundle
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) After blood clots,the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called
A) thrombin.
B) fibrinogen.
C) serum.
D) lymph.
E) plasma.
Q2) The two major components of blood are
A) red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) plasma and serum.
C) plasma and red blood cells.
D) formed elements and plasma.
E) platelets and plasma.
Q3) What gives rise to all the formed elements of the blood?
A) megakaryocytes
B) macrophages
C) reticulocytes
D) stem cells
E) erythroblasts
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Chapter 7: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) One set of the body's defenses are called "innate." In this context,this means
A) they act indiscriminately against all pathogens.
B) they work very, very quickly.
C) they only act internally.
D) phagocytosis is involved.
E) they are lost as we age.
Q2) The thymus cleanses the blood from the cardiovascular system of cellular debris and bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In what way are lymphatic vessels unlike veins in the cardiovascular system?
A) one-way system
B) contain valves
C) take up excess tissue fluid
D) dependent upon skeletal muscle contraction
Q4) The membrane attack complex of the complement system is not effective against viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diet rich in what vitamins may reduce the chance of free radicals that can cause health problems?
A) C and B<sub>12</sub>
B) C, E, and A
C) D and C
D) D, C, and E
E) B<sub>12</sub>, C, and E
Q2) The BMI is useful because it tells you how much of your weight is due to adipose tissue regardless of your fitness,bone structure,or gender.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chad was concerned about eating foods with a high glycemic index because these foods
A) can cause LDL levels to increase.
B) can cause HDL levels to decrease.
C) can cause fatty acids to build up.
D) can cause a rapid increase in blood glucose.
E) can cause a sudden drop in blood glucose levels.
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Chapter 9: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pharynx contains the vocal cords.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you force inspiration,how much more air can you breath in than the tidal volume?
A) two times
B) three times
C) four times
D) five times
E) six times
Q3) Where in the lower respiratory tract would you find goblet cells?
A) bronchial tree
B) trachea
C) lungs
Q4) Where is the respiratory control center located?
A) in the brain
B) in the bronchi
C) in the lungs
D) in the aorta
E) in the diaphragm
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Chapter 10: Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) ANH is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
A)True B)False
Q2) The urethra is controlled by two sphincters,one composed of smooth muscle and one composed of skeletal muscle.
A)True B)False
Q3) The kidneys help to maintain blood pressure by monitoring the pH of the blood. A)True B)False
Q4) Place the parts of the nephron in order.1.ascending limb of loop; 2.descending limb of loop; 3.proximal convoluted tubule; 4.glomerulus; 5.collecting duct; 6.distal convoluted tubule
A) 4,3,2,1,6,5
B) 1,2,3,4,5,6
C) 2,1,6,4,3,5
D) 1,2,4,3,6,5
E) 6,4,1,2,3,5
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Chapter 11: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many vertebrae are there?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 18
D) 24
E) 33
Q2) Which type of joints tend to be slightly movable?
A) fibrous
B) cartilaginous
C) synovial
Q3) Daniel has a very large deltoid tuberosity.This is probably because Daniel A) is a pianist.
B) spends a lot of time playing video games.
C) lifts heavy weights with his arms.
D) plays basketball.
E) is a runner.
Q4) Jeremy had a simple break of his tibia because the bone was broken clear through.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles,usually due to overuse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What do smooth,cardiac,and skeletal muscle all have in common?
A) They are all uninucleated.
B) They are all striated.
C) They are all found in the walls of blood vessels.
D) The cells of these muscles are all called muscle fibers.
E) They all interlock at intercalated disks.
Q3) What supplies the energy for muscle contraction?
A) actin
B) myosin
C) tropomyosin
D) ATP
E) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
Q4) Jillian is a cross country runner.She has predominantly slow-twitch muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is entirely located within the central nervous system?
A) sensory neuron
B) sensory receptor
C) motor neuron
D) effector
E) interneuron
Q2) The entire action potential (depolarization and repolarization)occurs in a matter of
A) milliseconds.
B) seconds.
C) minutes.
Q3) Which of the following is not a part of the brain?
A) corpus callosum
B) central canal
C) cerebrum
D) cerebellum
E) pons
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Chapter 14: Senses
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Q1) If you get seasick,the rotational equilibrium pathway is confused.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nearsighted people cannot see objects that are close.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nociceptors are a type of chemoreceptor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In what way are the senses of taste and smell different?
A) Taste buds are modified neurons and olfactory cells contain a pore with supporting cells and elongated cells.
B) Taste buds contain cilia while olfactory cells contain microvilli.
C) Taste depends on a "weighted average" of all the taste messages while smell depends on the signature of olfactory cells stimulated.
D) There are 100s of different tastes while only 5 different smell families.
E) The sensation of taste occurs in the spinal cord while the sensation of smell occurs in the cerebral cortex.
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Chapter 15: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are the posterior pituitary and anterior pituitary similar?
A) Both are controlled by the hypothalamus.
B) Both produce three or more hormones.
C) Both are connected to the hypothalamus via a portal system.
D) Both produce releasing and inhibiting hormones.
E) Both produce hormones that control other glands.
Q2) Where is the thymus gland located?
A) in the neck
B) in the brain
C) in the chest
D) near the ovaries/testes
E) on top of the kidneys
Q3) Which system does the hypothalamus belong to?
A) the nervous system
B) the endocrine system
C) both the nervous and the endocrine system
Q4) Both the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex are under control of hormones produced by the anterior pituitary hormone and hypothalamus.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the genitals?
A) produce gametes
B) transport gametes
C) protect zygote
D) produce FSH and LH
E) produce androgens/estrogens
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?
A) testes
B) bladder
C) epididymides
D) prostate gland
E) urethra
Q3) Which of the following are not found in the testes?
A) follicle
B) Sertoli cells
C) spermatozoa
D) seminiferous tubules
E) interstitial cells
Q4) In males,is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females?
Q5) Is bacterial vaginosis (BV)always a result of sexual transmission?
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Chapter 17: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the A) pronuclei.
B) zona pellucida.
C) corona radiata.
D) cortical granule cells.
E) outer cell mass.
Q2) When the uterus begins to contract,it is almost time for the baby to be born.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When does the heart begin to develop?
A) one week
B) three weeks
C) five weeks
D) seven weeks
E) nine weeks
Q4) The names of the extraembryonic membranes are derived from their function in animals that produce shelled eggs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Q1) In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis?
A) Both occur continuously from puberty on.
B) Both result in 4 daughter cells.
C) Both result in cells with half the chromosome number.
D) Both are arrested in prophase I.
E) Both result in 1 or 2 polar bodies.
Q2) If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized,it does not complete meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Independent alignment creates genetic variation.This is associated with which stage of meiosis?
A) prophase I
B) metaphase I
C) prophase II
D) metaphase II
E) anaphase II
Q4) Which comes first: mitosis or cytokinesis?
A) mitosis
B) cytokinesis
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Chapter 19: Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following is a side effect of radiation therapy that is not also a side effect of chemotherapy?
A) nausea, vomiting
B) dry, red, irritated skin and/or blisters
C) diarrhea
D) fatigue and weakness
E) weight loss and hair loss
Q2) Melacine,used against melanoma,is a type of cancer vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the case of a proto-oncogene like RET,both copies of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proto-oncogenes
A) code for proteins that promote the cell cycle.
B) promote apoptosis.
C) become tumor suppressor genes when mutated.
D) are considered "loss-of-function" mutations.
E) code for angiogenic growth factors.
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Chapter 20: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) In a pedigree,an affected male would be designated by
A) an open circle.
B) a shaded circle.
C) an open square.
D) a shaded square.
E) a square with a line through it.
Q2) Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons?
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree?
A) An affected son can have normal parents.
B) If a female has the trait, her father must also have it.
C) The characteristic often skips a generation.
D) More females than males are affected.
E) If a woman has the characteristic, all of her sons will have it.
Q4) There are two different alleles for the number of fingers on the hands: 5 finger allele and 6 finger allele.When both the 5 finger allele and the 6 finger allele are present in the same individual,the individual has 6 fingers on the hands.Which allele is dominant?
A) 5 fingers
B) 6 fingers
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Chapter 21: DNA Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The start codon for translation is a
A) UAG.
B) UAA.
C) AAA.
D) AUG.
E) AGU.
Q2) Mitochondria also contain DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Researchers found 3 genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that,when compared to our human genes,have given us insight into our evolution.What were those three genes?
A) genes for speech development, hearing, and smell
B) genes for chest size, cranial size, and leg length
C) genes for taste, opposable thumbs, and bipedalism
D) genes for speech development, opposable thumbs, and leg length
E) genes for food preference, bipedalism, and cranial size
Q4) More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Human Evolution
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Q1) According to the textbook,what evidence is the best evidence for biological evolution?
A) fossil record
B) biogeographical evidence
C) anatomical evidence
D) biochemical evidence
Q2) Which of the following is not a difference between the human skeleton and the chimpanzee skeleton?
A) The human foot has an arch while the ape foot does not.
B) The human's femur angles inward to the knees while the ape's femur angles out a bit.
C) The human spine is S-shaped while the ape spine has a slight curve.
D) The human knee can support more weight than the ape knee.
E) The ribs attach to the vertebral column in humans but are free-floating in apes.
Q3) Human characteristics did not evolve all at one time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Does the spine of both a human and chimpanzee exit the skull in the same manner?
Q5) Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish?
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Chapter 23: Global Ecology and Human Interferences
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Q1) Life on Earth is dependent on a continued input of energy from the sun.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cultural eutrophication can be caused by
A) respiration and transpiration.
B) mercury from industrial sources.
C) bacteria and viruses from sewage and barnyard waste.
D) detergents, fertilizers, and sewage treatment plants.
E) biological magnification.
Q3) The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle?
A) reservoir
B) exchange pool
C) biotic community
Q4) Decomposers perform a valuable service because they recycle nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Do all ecological pyramids actually look like a pyramid?
Q6) Most ecosystems contain quaternary consumers.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Q1) If each couple only has two children,zero population growth will take place immediately.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Decorative plants and exotic pets often suffer from overexploitation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a factor contributing to the loss of biodiversity?
A) alien species
B) increased carrying capacity
C) pollution
D) overexploitation
E) disease
Q4) What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why?
A) It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war.
B) It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war.
C) It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine.
D) It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II.
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Q5) Is it important to save the wild relatives of our current crop plants,even at great cost?
Chapter 25: Infectious Diseases Supplement
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Q1) Place the steps in the HIV life cycle in the correct order.1.Assembly; 2.Integration; 3.Entry; 4.Fusion; 5.Attachment; 6.Budding; 7.Biosynthesis and cleavage; 8.Reverse transcription
A) 1,3,2,4,5,7,6,8
B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
C) 8,1,7,2,6,3,5,4
D) 4,6,3,7,2,8,1,5
E) 5,4,3,8,2,7,1,6
Q2) There are normally 1-2 cases of measles per month in a particular city.However,in the month of September,there were 15 cases.Is this an epidemic?
Q3) How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread?
A) via airborne droplets
B) contaminated food or water
C) sexual intercourse
D) IV drug abuse
E) blood transfusions
Q4) There is no point in taking antibiotics for a cold.
A)True
B)False
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