Biomedical Science
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Biomedical Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underpinning human health and disease. The course covers key topics such as human anatomy, biochemistry, molecular biology, genetics, microbiology, immunology, and pathology, providing a strong foundation in the scientific methods and laboratory techniques used to diagnose, treat, and prevent medical conditions. Students will learn about the mechanisms of disease, the role of biomedical research in developing therapies, and the ethical considerations in healthcare. Through theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory experience, this course prepares students for careers in clinical laboratories, research, diagnostics, and further study in medical and health-related professions.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 3rd Edition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
22 Chapters
562 Verified Questions
562 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3821
Page 2
by Christine Dorresteyn
Chapter 1: Introduction and Natural Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76262
Sample Questions
Q1) Acquired immunity can be characterized by which of the following?
A) nonspecific
B) immediate response
C) depends on neutrophils and macrophages
D) involves memory
Answer: D
Q2) The function(s)of macrophages/monocytes in the host immune response is (are):
A) antigen presentation
B) phagocytosis
C) secretion of cytokines
D) all of these
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is considered part of the internal defense system?
A) cilia
B) mucous membranes
C) neutrophils
D) acidity of the skin
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Lymphoid System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76261
Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose or end result of negative selection of the T cell is to ensure:
A) MHC restriction
B) self-tolerance
C) T-cell receptor expression
D) expression of CD3
Answer: B
Q2) Antigen-independent differentiation of B cells occurs in the:
A) bone marrow
B) spleen
C) lymph node
D) Peyer's patches
Answer: A
Q3) The primary site of antigen trapping and presentation to immune cells is the:
A) spleen
B) thymus
C) bone marrow
D) brain
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: Nature of Antigens and Major Histocompatibility Complex
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76260
Sample Questions
Q1) If a mother is HLA A3A14/ B5B15/ Cw3Cw4,and her child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7,which of the following men is the most likely candidate for the father?
A) A5A9/B5B27/Cw3Cw7
B) A9A11/B15B21/Cw1Cw4
C) A4A15/B2B27/Cw1Cw5
D) A5A9/B17B27/Cw3Cw5
Answer: A
Q2) The ability to respond to antigen depends on which of the following factors?
A) age
B) proper nutrition
C) genetic predisposition
D) all of the above
E) all except one of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following best describes HLA class II molecules?
A) They interact with CD8+ T cells.
B) They have an alpha chain and beta-2 microglobulin.
C) They have alpha and beta chains of equal size.
D) They combine with antigen made inside the cell.
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Antibody Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76259
Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibody agglutinates and fixes complement best?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgG
D) IgE
Q2) The valence of an IgG antibody molecule is:
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) ten
Q3) Kappa or lambda light chains:
A) are encoded on the same chromosome
B) associate with only one type of heavy chain at a time
C) can be expressed by the same B cell
D) are expressed by a pre-B cell
Q4) What is the main function of IgD?
A) It helps in class switching.
B) It is a primary response antibody.
C) It protects mucous membranes.
D) It offers protection to newborns.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Cytokines
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76258
Sample Questions
Q1) Erythropoietin is classified as which of the following?
A) T-cell regulator
B) colony-stimulating factor
C) proinflammatory cytokine
D) regulator of the acute phase response
Q2) What is the function of TGF-\(\beta\)?
A) helps in antibody-mediated immunity
B) regulates cell growth and differentiation
C) inhibits IL-2
D) acts as an endogenous pyrogen
Q3) A cytokine that is produced by TH2 cells and inhibits TH1 cells is:
A) IL-10
B) IL-4
C) IL-3
D) IFN-gamma
Q4) Which acts as the best defense against gram-negative bacteria?
A) IL-1
B) TNF
C) IL-2
D) IL-5
Page 7
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Complement System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76257
Sample Questions
Q1) Lack of the complement components C5-C* may result in which disease?
A) hereditary angioedema
B) paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
C) atherosclerosis
D) meningitis
Q2) What is cleaved by C3bBb?
A) C3
B) C5
C) C6
Q3) Which complement factor polymerizes to cause lysis of a foreign cell?
A) C5
B) C6
C) C8
D) C9
Q4) A deficiency in complement component C2 would result in:
A) increased vascular permeability
B) hereditary angioedema
C) severe infections with encapsulated bacteria
D) immune complex disease
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Safety and Specimen Preparation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76256
Sample Questions
Q1) If you want to make 4 mL of a 1:20 dilution,how much serum would be needed?
A) 0.2 mL
B) 2 mL
C) 0.5 mL
D) 1 mL
Q2) Which series of dilutions would be best in order to make a 1:3000 dilution?
A) 1:10,1:3,1:10
B) 1:5,1:6,1:100
C) 1:3,1:100,1:100
D) 1:30,1:10,1:100
Q3) When a staphylococcal infection is passed between patients due to health-care workers not washing their hands,this represents an example of:
A) lack of chemical hygiene
B) a sharps hazard
C) the chain of infection
D) a specimen transport problem
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Precipitation Reactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76255
Sample Questions
Q1) Measurement of light scattered at an angle used to quantitate antigen-antibody complexes best describes:
A) nephelometry
B) turbidimetry
C) spectrophotometry
D) flow cytometry
Q2) Where does lattice formation occur to the greatest extent?
A) prozone
B) postzone
C) zone of equivalence
D) prezone
Q3) Which technique is best to determine if two fungal antigens are identical?
A) Ouchterlony immunodiffusion
B) serum electrophoresis
C) rocket electrophoresis
D) radial immunodiffusion
Q4) A situation in which antibody is in excess as compared to antigen is called:
A) postzone
B) prozone
C) equivalence zone
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Agglutination
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76254
Sample Questions
Q1) A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier,the antibody is soluble,and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically.What type of assay is described?
A) precipitation
B) agglutination
C) flocculation
D) neutralization
Q2) A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a method to detect patient antibodies against that exogenous antigen is called:
A) latex agglutination
B) hemagglutination
C) neutralization
D) complement fixation
Q3) Which of the following would enhance an agglutination reaction?
A) polyethylene glycol (PEG)
B) high ionic strength saline
C) running the reaction at 4C
D) running the reaction at a high pH
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 11
Chapter 10: Labeled Immunoassays
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76253
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of noncompetitive enzyme immunoassays?
A) Binding sites for patient antigen are limited.
B) Washing in between steps is not necessary.
C) All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites.
D) Color is indirectly proportional to the concentration.
Q2) An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to look for an Ag in the patient serum: Patient serum + labeled Ag + known Ab are added together and incubated.Unbound material is washed off.The amount of labeled Ag is then measured.What assay is performed?
A) homogeneous EIA
B) competitive EIA
C) sandwich EIA
D) ELISA
Q3) In the following equation,what is the ratio of bound radioactive antigen to bound patient antigen? 8ag* + 4ag + 6ab ---> ag*ab + agab + ag* + ag
A) 1:6
B) 1:3
C) 2:1
D) 8:6
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Molecular Techniques
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76252
Sample Questions
Q1) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Their DNA base sequences are the same.
B) Different DNA bases result in cleavage at different places.
C) They are detected by gel electrophoresis.
D) Different patterns can be used for identification purposes.
Q2) In which technique is the signal amplified instead of the actual target DNA?
A) branched DNA amplification
B) PCR
C) transcription-mediated amplification
D) solution hybridization
Q3) Which of the following steps are included in a Southern blot?
A) ligation of DNA probes by a DNA ligase
B) gel electrophoresis followed by transfer of the pattern to a membrane
C) denaturation of DNA followed by annealing of primers and bases
D) creating a nick in a DNA strand followed by amplification
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76251
Sample Questions
Q1) As measured in flow cytometry,cells that are the smallest and have the least granules would be identified as:
A) lymphocytes
B) granulocytes
C) monocytes
D) erythrocytes
Q2) In most flow cytometers,labeled cells:
A) scatter the light and absorb fluorescence
B) absorb fluorescence and emit electronic impulses
C) scatter the light and emit fluorescence
D) absorb both fluorescence and light
Q3) A mature cytotoxic T cell expresses which markers?
A) CD3,CD4,and CD8
B) CD4,CD3,and CD5
C) CD5,CD8,and CD3
D) CD8,CD3,and CD2
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Hypersensitivity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76250
Sample Questions
Q1) To determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts,the best test to perform is:
A) RAST
B) RIST
C) serum protein electrophoresis
D) RID to measure IgG
Q2) The principle difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions is the:
A) isotype(s)of antibody involved
B) complement-mediated lysis of host cells
C) whether the antigen is cellular or soluble
D) involvement of helper T cells and macrophages
Q3) Anaphylaxis is characterized by which of the following?
A) degranulation of mast cells
B) production of IgG
C) T-cell mediators
D) all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: Autoimmunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76249
Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old clinical laboratory sciences student complains of being tired,yet not able to sleep.The woman also states that her hair has been breaking off and she has lost 20 pounds over the last 2 months without trying.The woman's pulse and blood pressure are both elevated and her eyes seem to be bulging.Her CBC is normal,thyroid-stimulating hormone is decreased,and T4 is increased.Antimicrosomal and antithyroglobulin antibodies are each 1:400.This woman has:
A) Addison's disease
B) Graves' disease
C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D) type 1 diabetes
E) rheumatoid arthritis
Q2) An autoimmune disease characterized by pain and progressive destruction of the joints,weight loss,morning stiffness,and presence of an antibody directed against IgG best describes:
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) lupus
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn
D) hemolytic anemia
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Immunoproliferative Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76248
Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old male presents with symptoms that include weakness,loss of appetite,and anemia.Immunofixation electrophoresis reveals a heavy IgM band.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) SCID
B) multiple myeloma
C) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
D) DiGeorge syndrome
Q2) Which best describes the difference between chronic and acute lymphocytic leukemias?
A) Chronic lymphocytic leukemias are exclusive of T-cell origin.
B) Acute lymphocytic leukemias have a high response rate to chemotherapy.
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemias have a shorter survival time.
D) Acute lymphocytic leukemias progress more slowly.
Q3) What is the main difference between leukemias and lymphomas?
A) In leukemias,malignant cells are mainly located in the tissues.
B) Lymphomas are present mainly in peripheral blood.
C) Lymphomas arise due to a lack of response to stimulating antigens.
D) Lymphomas arise mainly in lymph nodes,the spleen,or other lymphoid tissue.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Immunodeficiency Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76247
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hereditary angioedema will present with swelling in the tissues and has which of the following deficiencies?
A) C5,C6,C7,C8
B) phagocytic cell function
C) mature B cells
D) C1 inhibitor
Q2) A 9-month-old boy was suspected of having an immune deficiency because he had many recurrent infections with Streptococcus pneumoniae.Laboratory tests revealed a normal percentage of T cells and T-cell subsets but a lack of mature B cells and immunoglobulins.This boy most likely has:
A) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
B) DiGeorge syndrome
C) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
D) chronic granulomatous disease
Q3) Which of the following is associated with DiGeorge syndrome?
A) small or missing thymus
B) missing B-cell precursors
C) inherited as X-linked recessive
D) M spike in the gamma region
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Transplantation Immunology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76246
Sample Questions
Q1) Transplantation of an individual's skin from one place to another is an example of a(n):
A) autograft
B) allograft
C) xenograft
D) heterograft
Q2) Which antigens are most important in matching for tissue transplants?
A) HLA A and B
B) blood group antigens A or B
C) HLA DR1 and DQ1
D) all of the above
Q3) When foreign HLA antigens are presented by antigen-presenting cells to T cells,this is known as:
A) direct allorecognition
B) indirect allorecognition
C) minor histocompatibility recognition
D) acute rejection
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 19: Tumor Immunology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76245
Sample Questions
Q1) An ASO test was performed on the serum from a 10-year-old female patient with the following results: no hemolysis in the 1:10,1:20,1:40,and 1:80 tubes; and hemolysis in the 1:160,1:320,and 1:640 tubes.What conclusion can you draw from these results?
A) The titer is 1:640,and the patient may have glomerulonephritis.
B) The titer is 1:160,and the patient may have rheumatic fever.
C) The titer is 1:80,and the patient is normal.
D) The test is invalid and must be repeated.
Q2) How does complement help in defense against bacterial invasion?
A) It promotes phagocytosis.
B) It neutralizes bacterial toxins.
C) It prevents bacteria from penetrating the skin.
D) It fuses lysosomal granules to bacterial cell walls.
Q3) Antibodies detected by reacting rickettsial antigens with specific antibody followed by use of an anti-immunoglobulin with a fluorescent tag could be used to diagnose:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) stomach ulcers
D) rheumatic fever
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
20
Chapter 20: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76244
Sample Questions
Q1) In an individual with AIDS,what is the most likely reason for a toxoplasmosis infection that invades the central nervous system?
A) The host produces a lot of antibody.
B) Cysts in the tissue become reactivated.
C) The individual ingests contaminated water.
D) The parasite has acquired new surface proteins.
Q2) Why is testing for Cryptococcal antigen preferred over testing for antibodies?
A) This is usually not a humoral response to infection.
B) Immunocompromised patients do not produce antibody.
C) Subclinical infection can be detected.
D) all of the above
Q3) A host's immunological response to parasites includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) formation of IgG,IgM,and IgA antibodies
B) production of cytokines
C) gamma-interferon production by natural killer cells
D) sequestering the parasite in host cells
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 21: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76243
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with personality changes,altered mental state,and delusions of grandeur.The patient is then diagnosed as having syphilis.In what stage of syphilis is the patient?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) latent
D) tertiary
Q2) A 30-year-old man presents to the physician with a painless ulcer on his penis.An RPR performed on the man is reactive 1:128,and the MHA-TP test is positive.This man has:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Mycoplasma hominis
Q3) Which of the following is a confirmatory test for syphilis?
A) rapid plasma reagin
B) fluorescent antibody (FTA)
C) VDRL
D) all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 22: Serology of Parasitic and Fungal Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76242
Sample Questions
Q1) In the slide test for infectious mononucleosis,what purpose do the guinea pig kidney cells serve?
A) absorb out mono antibody
B) absorb out Forssman antibody
C) enhance the agglutination reaction
D) serve as a positive control
Q2) A patient has the following hepatitis profile: anti-HAV IgM = not detected; HBsAg = not detected; anti-HBc IgM = not detected; anti-HBc total = not detected; anti-HBs = detected; anti-HCV = not detected.What is his diagnosis?
A) acute hepatitis A
B) acute hepatitis B
C) chronic hepatitis B
D) immune to hepatitis B
Q3) A patient with infectious mononucleosis would have what outstanding feature in the hematology evaluation?
A) decreased total white blood cells
B) presence of atypical lymphocytes
C) increased percentage of eosinophils
D) absence of neutrophils
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 23: Spirochete Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76241
Sample Questions
Q1) The Western blot test used to confirm HIV is an example of which of the following?
A) immunofixation
B) immunoelectrophoresis
C) double diffusion
D) passive agglutination
Q2) A 25-year-old male presents to the public health clinic complaining of flu-like symptoms.The man has been an IV drug user and prostitute for the last 5 years.HIV antibody screening is positive.Subsequently,antibodies are found to have specificity for p24,gp120,p31,and gp41.This patient has:
A) current HIV infection
B) indeterminate HIV infection
C) lack of HIV infection
D) infection with some other virus
Q3) Viral load testing is of most clinical utility in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
A) initial diagnosis of HIV infection when antibody tests are positive
B) monitoring patients during antiretroviral therapy
C) setting a baseline before antiretroviral therapy has begun
D) investigating a patient's sudden drop in T-cell count
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24