Biomedical Science Exam
Review
Course Introduction
Biomedical Science explores the complex biological processes and mechanisms that underpin human health and disease. This interdisciplinary field integrates knowledge from biology, chemistry, and medicine to investigate how the human body functions at the molecular, cellular, and systemic levels. Students will develop a strong foundation in subjects such as genetics, biochemistry, physiology, microbiology, and immunology, which are essential for diagnosing, treating, and preventing medical conditions. Through laboratory work, research projects, and case studies, learners acquire practical skills and scientific reasoning necessary for careers in healthcare, biomedical research, diagnostics, and related industries.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the term 'de facto direct-to-consumer advertising'?
A) When a professional pharmacy body advertises in a popular magazine about a particular medicine.
B) When a professional nursing body advertises in a nursing journal about a particular medicine.
C) When a pharmaceutical company provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
D) When a professional pharmacy body provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following health professionals can decrease the incidence of polypharmacy?
A) Medical practitioner
B) Pharmacist
C) Nurse
D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Q1) When the drug order is unclear,the health professional should:
A) ask a colleague to interpret the writing.
B) check what other medications the patient is taking and have an educated guess.
C) question the prescriber about what was intended.
D) withhold the medication.
Answer: C
Q2) Pharmacy medicines are substances that:
A) are available for use but require restriction of manufacture, supply, distribution, possession and use to reduce abuse, misuse and physical or psychological dependence.
B) require professional advice from a pharmacist and should be available from a pharmacy or, where a pharmacy service is not available, from a licensed person.
C) are provided on the order of persons permitted by legislation to prescribe and should be available from a pharmacist on prescription.
D) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Q1) A client diagnosed with severe coronary artery disease intends to continue with sporting activities (including intense training for competition) without the knowledge or approval of family. Which ethical principles may conflict for health professionals?
Answer: The health professionals encounter conflict between the issues of autonomy and confidentiality.
Q2) Paternalism occurs when:
A) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to document this treatment in the client's medical history. B) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to inform the client about this treatment.
C) health care professionals do not carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client.
D) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to inform the chief executive officer of the institution.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q3) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher
Q2) Which of the following health professionals treat clients having temporary or permanent physical disability by physical treatment modalities (such as exercise,massage,splinting and electrical stimulation)that often require supplementary drug therapy?
A) Prescriber
B) Nurse
C) Physiotherapist
D) Paramedic
Q3) The evolution of nurses into practitioners with prescribing abilities is an example of how roles have changed in relation to drug therapy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shelf life of eye drops after opening the container is:
A) 12 days.
B) 24 days.
C) 28 days.
D) 36 days.
Q2) Suppositories,in general,when inserted into the lower third of the rectum:
A) always have a fast onset of action.
B) avoid the hepatic first pass.
C) are useful for ulcerative colitis.
D) are for laxative use only.
Q3) Drugs administered transdermally must be:
A) lipophilic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophobic.
D) amphipathic.
Q4) What is the rationale for lying down when inserting a pessary with an applicator and remaining in a supine position for approximately 20 minutes?
Q5) Nasal preparations are not absorbed systemically. A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q3) New Zealand is the only country worldwide that has a comprehensive medicinal policy at the Commonwealth level.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the first step in the clinical decision-making process?
A) evaluation
B) assessment
C) planning
D) prognosis
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
Q3) Only one registered nurse's signature is sufficient for checking of documentation procedures of the following EXCEPT for:
A) blood transfusions.
B) orally administered drugs and intermittent intravenous drugs.
C) intravenous fluids.
D) once-only or nurse-initiated drugs.
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q2) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug Reactions
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Q1) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A type A adverse drug reaction is:
A) a long-term effect that involves an interaction between circulating antibodies and a medication.
B) a delayed effect that occurs when a medication binds onto the surface of blood cells and induces an antibody reaction.
C) a predictable result based on the pharmacological profile of the medication.
D) an aberrant or idiosyncratic effect that is not predicted by the known pharmacology of a medication.
Q3) A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension.The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following EXCEPT:
A) -adrenoreceptor agonists.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) -adrenoreceptor antagonists.
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) An example of a medication that has been scrutinised for risk-benefit analysis is: A) insulin.
B) warfarin.
C) alendronate.
D) prednisone.
Q2) When comparing absolute risk reduction to relative risk reduction,one must consider: A) the incidence of an outcome event.
B) the incidence of a sentinel event.
C) That only the relative risk statistics are accurate.
D) that more weight is given to absolute risk data.
Q3) Although few,there are risk-free medications in use.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q2) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q3) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q2) Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier.Which of the following cannot cross the blood-brain barrier in normal circumstances?
A) Alcohol
B) Penicillin
C) Glucose
D) Antihistamines
Q3) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
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15
Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) To elicit a rapid systemic effect,the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral.
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q2) After a single dose of a drug with a half-life of 8 hours,how much of the drug remains after 16 hours?
A) 50 per cent
B) 12.5 per cent
C) 100 per cent
D) 25 per cent
Q3) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronidation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Q1) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
Q2) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q3) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about pharmacodynamics is true?
A) A partial agonist can be as effective as an antagonist.
B) Ion channels do not have receptors.
C) Second messenger systems always involve G-proteins.
D) The antiasthma agent theophylline acts via a tyrosine kinase-linked receptor.
Q2) Competitive inhibition slows down the rate of normal chemical reactions because:
A) the normal substrate is malfunctioning.
B) the target enzyme binds temporarily with a look-alike substrate rather than its actual substrate.
C) it takes a long time for the enzyme to develop memory or recognition of the competing substances.
D) it causes enzyme confusion.
Q3) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme,it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) Only a few medicines are excreted in breast milk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following tests characterises the drug screening process?
A) Testing for drug potency in humans
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after the drug is released into the marketplace
C) The identification of a chemical with potential therapeutic action
D) The assessment of drug toxicity in animals
Q3) Subacute toxicity tests are characterised by:
A) repeated drug doses over a period of days to reveal tissue targets for damage.
B) tissue targets for damage associated with high single drug doses.
C) repeated drug doses for a period of months in order to assess the toxic dose ranges.
D) the effects of the drug on fertility, implantation and the developing human.
Q4) The terms side effect and adverse effects are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Somatic gene therapy uses what form of cells?
A) Sperm cells
B) Psychosomatic cells
C) Somatic cells
D) Ovarian cells
Q3) If a person who has an inherited disorder wished to minimise the odds of passing that genetic materials to their offspring,germline therapy will be of no use.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following are ethical issues associated with pharmacogenetics? Select all that apply.
A) Keeping data secure
B) Insurance risk
C) Cost of therapy
D) Lack of data on effectiveness of treatment
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
Q2) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
Q2) Compared to a young adult,which of the following tends to increase in the elderly?
A) The rate of gastric emptying
B) Plasma protein concentration
C) Metabolic processes
D) Adipose tissue levels
Q3) In neonates and infants,drug absorption through the skin is:
A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
Q4) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following best characterises the main principles associated with the emergency management of poisoning?
A) Life support, clinical assessment, decontamination and detoxification, neutralisation and elimination of the poison
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after ingestion of the poison
C) The identification of the chemical associated with the poisoning and administration of decontaminating agents
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) For which principle associated with the management of clinical drug overdose is gastric lavage a component?
A) Client assessment
B) Life support
C) Drug decontamination and detoxification
D) Drug neutralisation and elimination
Q2) The passing of a patient's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
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Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q2) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q3) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q2) Which one of the following could be perceived as a benefit associated with anabolic-androgenic steroid use?
A) Mood swings
B) Premature completion of long bone growth
C) Increased skeletal muscle mass
D) An altered blood lipid profile
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation. A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q3) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) The second messenger system associated with \(\beta\) -adrenergic receptor stimulation involves the:
A) activation of inositol triphosphate production.
B) inhibition of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
C) inhibition of inositol triphosphate production.
D) activation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
Q2) Which of the following adverse events may occur with \(\alpha_{1}\) receptor stimulation?
A) Hypertension
B) Blurred vision
C) Constipation
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following adrenergic receptors are found abundantly in the myocardium?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C) <sub>1</sub>
D <sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following receptors are activated by acetylcholine?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C) <sub>1</sub>
D) Nicotinic
Q2) Which of the following agents can be used to reverse the effects of acetylcholine?
A) Cholinergic receptor stimulation
B) Suxamethonium
C) Tubocurarine
D) Atropine
Q3) Which of the following agent is used for the management of malignant hyperthermia?
A) Atropine
B) Suxamethonium.
C) Tubocurarine.
D) Dantrolene
Q4) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q2) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q3) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
Q3) Which route of administration is preferred is hypovolaemic shock occurs?
A) Intravenous
B) Oral
C) Rectal
D) Transdermal
Q4) Antihistamines are used for the treatment of:
A) allergies.
B) anaphylactic reactions.
C) depression.
D) both A and B.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q3) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q4) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for: A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q3) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q4) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum
Q2) The transmitter that is particularly associated with cognition,memory formation and skeletal muscle activation is:
A) dopamine.
B) noradrenaline.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
Q3) With which neurotransmitter system are NMDA receptors primarily associated?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Glutamate
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When switching from one antipsychotic medication to clozapine,the other antipsychotic medication is reduced over:
A) one day, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
B) two days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
C) four days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
D) seven days, and stopped for 24 hours before starting clozapine.
Q2) Which of the following describes extrapyramidal reactions associated with first-line antipsychotic therapy?
A) Lip smacking and rapid darting tongue movements
B) Facial grimacing, wry neck and limb spasticity
C) Tremor and rigidity
D) All of the above
Q3) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
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35
Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q2) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q3) Which one of the following anxiolytic/sedative drugs can directly activate GABA receptors,even in the absence of GABA itself?
A) Benzodiazepines
B) Buspirone
C) Barbiturates
D) Dexmedetomidine
Q4) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following practices is NOT associated with rational prescribing of antidepressants?
A) The use of a combination of antidepressant agents is the best way of treating depression.
B) When changing antidepressant agents, the patient should have a 'washout' period.
C) If one antidepressant does not work at therapeutic doses, the patient should be changed to another antidepressant.
D) Significant antidepressant benefit is not apparent immediately upon starting treatment. The prescriber should wait three to four weeks before assessing the benefit.
Q2) The psychological disorder characterised by persistent thoughts and repetitive,ritualistic behaviours is called:
A) endogenous depression.
B) panic disorder.
C) mania.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive glutamine repeats in the protein coded by the HTT gene is associated with:
A) motor neurone disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) Which one of the following drugs is NOT used in the management of multiple sclerosis to modify the immune response?
A) Baclofen
B) Glatiramer
C) Prednisone
D) Interferon \(\beta\)
Q3) Alzheimer's disease is characterised by the lack of which neurotransmitter in the higher centres of the brain?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) As well as an antiseizure agent,phenytoin is also used for treating:
A) dysrhythmia.
B) ADHD.
C) migraine.
D) Parkinson's disease.
Q2) Which of the following antiseizure drugs may cause gingivitis and gingival hyperplasia,therefore necessitating the need for meticulous dental care?
A) Phenytoin
B) Carbamazepine
C) Ethosuximide
D) Vigabatrin
Q3) The therapeutic action of spasmolytic agents for epilepsy management is:
A) to increase muscle tone.
B) to inhibit muscular spasms.
C) to initiate the efflux of sodium from within cells.
D) none of the above.
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes:
A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
Q2) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid:
A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
Q3) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of oxycodone?
A) It has less of a hepatic first pass than morphine.
B) It has a shorter half-life than morphine.
C) It comes as a suppository formulation, which is useful for overnight analgesia.
D) It comes as a scored tablet formulation, which can be crushed and given with water to clients who have difficulties in swallowing tablets whole.
Q2) What is the equivalent dose of pethidine when compared with 10 mg of morphine?
A) 25-50 mg of pethidine
B) 50-75 mg of pethidine
C) 75-100 mg of pethidine
D) 100-125 mg of pethidine
Q3) Somatic pain is defined as:
A) pain of sudden onset and short duration.
B) pain associated with the musculoskeletal system.
C) a reaction that avoids further tissue damage.
D) pain induced through remodelling of neural connections.
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Q1) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
Q2) The propionic acid derivatives ibuprofen and naproxen are useful for children suffering from inflammatory disease because they:
A) are not metabolised in the liver.
B) do not cause gastrointestinal problems.
C) are available as oral liquids so that the exact dose can be administered.
D) do not affect platelet aggregation.
Q3) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q4) Extreme diligence should be exercised in administering the correct dose of paracetamol to children because overdose can lead to:
A) gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) renal failure.
C) inhibition of the hypothalamic control on temperature.
D) liver damage.
Q5) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) In treating an acute migraine attack,sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because the combination may lead to:
A) excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) excessive diuresis.
Q2) Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:
A) ibuprofen and indomethacin.
B) aspirin and paracetamol.
C) piroxicam and sulindac.
D) propranolol and ketamine.
Q3) How does metoclopramide assist in the treatment of an acute migraine?
A) It decreases the incidence of nausea and vomiting.
B) It increases the absorption of ergotamine.
C) It decreases the rate at which ergotamine is excreted.
D) It inhibits the isoenzyme of the cytochrome P450 system that metabolises ergotamine.
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43
Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q3) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q2) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q3) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients on atorvastatin should avoid ________ during therapy because it may increase the amount of atorvastatin in their circulation and therefore increase the chances of adverse effects occurring.
A) alcohol
B) milk
C) grapefruit juice
D) leafy green vegetables
Q2) Which type of hyperlipidaemia is characterized by high VLDL and hypertriglyceridaemia?
A) Type I
B) Type IIa
C) Type IIb
D) Type IV
Q3) In considering therapy with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors,it is important for the client to have regular:
A) liver function tests.
B) renal function tests.
C) blood clotting tests.
D) respiratory function tests.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in a client with constipation?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Centrally-acting agents
C) Angiotensin II antagonists
D) ACE inhibitors
Q2) Which one of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasoconstriction?
A) Prostacyclin
B) Endothelin-1
C) Nitric oxide
D) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which antihypertensive drug group should be avoided when a person has a pre-existing respiratory condition such as asthma?
A) Diuretics
B) Calcium channel antagonists
C) ACE inhibitors
D) -blockers
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches,the patient should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a nitrate-free period from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.
Q2) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:
A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.
Q3) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a tissue is injured,the process of clotting begins.Which statement is true about that process?
A)Thrombin forms prothrombin.
B)The process is dependent on intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.
C)Potassium ions play a crucial role in clotting.
D)Fibrin forms fibrinogen.
Q2) After about ________ hours of oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin,the heparin can be withdrawn,as it takes this amount of time for the oral anticoagulant to exert its effect.
A) 2
B) 12
C) 24
D) 48
Q3) What is the haemostatic agent used in colposcopy procedures?
A)Monsel's solution
B)Calcium alginate
C)Eltrombopag
D)Octocog alfa
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolic imbalances associated with thiazides can be avoided by:
A) starting off with a small dose and titrating according to therapeutic response.
B) starting off with a high dose and gradually titrating according to therapeutic response.
C) administering the dose once a day.
D) administering the dose two times a day.
Q2) The hypokalaemia that may be induced by a loop diuretic can be lessened or prevented by concurrent use of:
A) potassium chloride.
B) an angiotensin II receptor antagonist.
C) an ACE inhibitor.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
Q4) Which of these diuretics promotes potassium retention?
A) Spironolactone
B) Frusemide
C) Chlorothiazide
D) Ethacrynic acid
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clients who have renal impairment are at risk of developing ________ during treatment with ACE inhibitors.
A) hypokalaemia
B) hyperkalaemia
C) hyponatraemia
D) hypernatraemia
Q2) Dopamine and dobutamine are examples of what class of cardiac drugs?
A)Inotropic agents
B)Cardiac glycosides
C)Inotropic antagonists
D)Angiotensin converting enzymes
Q3) Adverse effects such as an unproductive cough and taste disturbances may occur from which category of medicine frequently used for treatment of heart failure?
A) Diuretics
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Cardiac glycosides
D) ACE inhibitors
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51
Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atropine is especially useful in what sort of dysrhythmia?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Pre-ventricular contraction
D)AV conduction block
Q2) Which one of the following mechanisms describes the general action of antidysrhythmic agents?
A) Impeding the movement of ions across cardiac cell membranes
B) Enhancing cardiac automaticity
C) Shortening the cardiac action potential
D) Enhancing impulse conduction in the heart
Q3) Which electrolyte is not responsible for maintaining a normal heart rhythm?
A)Calcium
B)Potassium
C)Sodium
D)Magnesium
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
Q2) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
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53
Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
Q2) Treatment with iron supplementation is usually continued for about ________ to ensure replenishment of iron stores in iron deficiency anaemia.
A) two weeks
B) one month
C) two months
D) three months
Q3) High doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may cause
A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following actions will NOT reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride 0.9%
Q2) Drugs included in the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist include:
A)montelukast.
B)fexofenadine.
C)albuterol.
D) macular degeneration.
Q3) Premature babies receiving long-term oxygen therapy are at risk of:
A) otitis media.
B) ototoxicity.
C) retinal damage.
D) macular degeneration.
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyoscine is contraindicated in patients with:
A) glaucoma.
B) depression.
C) heart failure.
D) diabetes.
Q2) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
Q3) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
Q4) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause an increase in stomach acid secretion? Select all that apply.
A) Chocolate
B) Smoking
C) Citrus
D) Mild alcoholic drinks
E) Acetaminophen
Q2) Which of the following are considered adjuncts to peptic ulcer therapy? Select all that apply.
A) Belladonna alkaloids
B) Glycopyrrolate
C) Alginates
D) Ibuprofen
Q3) There have been no adverse effects reported with which medication?
A) Simethicone
B) Cisparide
C) Cimetidine
D) Nizatidine
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which topical preparation would help reduce the inflammation of haemorrhoids?
A) Polyethylene glycol
B) Witch-hazel
C) Benzocaine
D) Phenol
Q2) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q3) Sodium dioctyl sulfosuccinate is often used as a stool softener in young children.What would you advise the parents of a child who has been given this preparation about when they can expect to see results?
A) Two days
B) One day
C) 12-24 hours
D) Less than six hours
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A non-pharmacological treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (NVP)is:
A) blue vein cheese.
B) iced tea.
C) ginger.
D) eucalyptus.
Q2) Some antiemetics can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as oculogyric crisis.Which of the following medications would best treat those side effects?
A) An antimuscarinic, benztropine
B) A benzodiazapine, diazepam
C) An antipsychotic, olanzapine
D) A hypnotic, midazolam
Q3) Which is the most effective drug in treating severe nausea associated with chemotherapy?
A) Ondansetron
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Domperidone
D) Cisapride
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parenteral solutions are usually prepared:
A) by the health facility kitchen staff.
B) onsite in the ward or clinical area.
C) ideally by the dietetics department.
D) under sterile conditions in the pharmacy.
Q2) Which patient(s)might require enteral feeding? Select all that apply.
A) A patient with impaired consciousness
B) A patient with morbid obesity
C) A patient with severe burns
D) A patient with trauma to the face or jaw
Q3) A complication of bolus feeds compared to continuous infusion in individuals with a nasogastric tube is:
A) diarrhoea.
B) feed contamination.
C) ileus.
D) gastric bleeding.
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Somatropin is administered by daily subcutaneous injections to stimulate skeletal and cellular growth.What is a major reason why some individuals fail to respond to treatment?
A) The development of somatropin antibodies by the individual taking the somatropin
B) Use of somatropin extracted from the pituitary glands of human cadavers
C) Lack of rotation of injection sites
D) Use of different brands during a treatment regimen
Q2) Which of the following drugs stimulates gonadotrophin release?
A) The follitropins
B) Goserelin
C) Clomiphene
D) Tetracosactrin
Q3) When using desmopressin for renal function testing,effectiveness of treatment is determined by:
A) measuring blood levels of antidiuretic hormone.
B) measuring blood levels of potassium.
C) monitoring fluid balance.
D) measuring urinary levels of sodium.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
Q2) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
Q3) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:
A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of insulin preparation with an onset of action around 0.5-1 hour and a duration of action of 6--8 hours is:
A) neutral insulin.
B) isophane insulin.
C) ultralente insulin.
D) an insulin analogue.
Q2) The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with:
A) hyperinsulinaemia.
B) an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C) cellular insulin resistance
D) pregnancy.
Q3) A patient is newly diagnosed with borderline type 2 diabetes.Which steps would be appropriate?
A) A focus on diet and exercise
B) Starting insulin
C) Considering metformin
D) Both A and C
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
Page 63
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a long-acting corticosteroid?
A) Dexamethasone
B) Cortisone
C) Prednisone
D) Budesonide
Q2) Which one of the following effects is not associated with adrenocorticoid hormones?
A) An increase in blood glucose levels
B) Sodium and water retention
C) The enhancement of immune processes
D) The distribution of body hair
Q3) The glucocorticoids have a role in the therapy associated with:
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) osteoporosis.
C) hypovolaemic shock.
D) hypertension.
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64
Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adverse effect NOT associated with androgenic drug use is:
A) increased libido.
B) increased aggressiveness.
C) testicular hypertrophy.
D) liver disorders.
Q2) Hormone replacement therapy comprising an oestrogen-progestogen combination for menopausal and postmenopausal women has been found to:
A) be inappropriate for the short-term relief associated with the clinical manifestations of the menopause.
B) lower the risk of cardiovascular disease in postmenopausal women.
C) reduce the relative risk of osteoporosis and colon cancer but increase the risk of breast cancer and thromboembolism for postmenopausal women receiving therapy.
D) be safer than the use of a selective oestrogen receptor modulator in the management of osteoporosis.
Q3) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about vitamin D?
A) Deficiency in the vitamin leads to an increase in bone mineralisation.
B) It is absorbed via the gastrointestinal system from vegetable products and some fish.
C) It is essential in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous in the body.
D) It can be made as long as the skin has enough exposure to UV rays.
Q2) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q3) The mechanism of action of the bisphosphonates is to:
A) release calcium from bones.
B) inhibit bone breakdown and resorption.
C) increase the sensitivity of the calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid gland cells.
D) raise the blood levels of oestrogen.
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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66
Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
Q2) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
Q3) When commencing a uricosuric agent such as probenecid,the person should be advised to:
A) cease all other medications to reduce drug interactions.
B) ensure adequate fluid intake to reduce kidney stone formation.
C) avoid direct sunlight.
D) avoid urine alkalising preparations.
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) In humans,there are two feeding centres located in the:
A) brain stem.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pons.
Q2) When food intake equals energy consumed by the body's cells,the person is said to be in:
A) a malnourished state.
B) an obese state.
C) energy balance.
D) a sedentary state.
Q3) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
Q4) An overweight individual will have a BMI of:
A) 20-25.
B) 25-30.
C) 30-35
D) 35-40.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:
A) only a weak antibiotic action.
B) effectiveness against a relatively small number of microbes.
C) a low potency.
D) a narrow margin of safety.
Q2) An example of an antibacterial agent that attacks the cell wall is:
A) nitrofurantoin.
B) tetracycline.
C) neomycin.
D) penicillin.
Q3) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line agents for tuberculosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Sample Questions
Q1) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q2) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q3) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibacterial agent can cause permanent tooth discoloration in children?
A) Tetracycline
B) Erythromycin
C) Penicillin
D) Cephalosporin
Q2) What lab values should be monitored when daptomycin is prescribed?
A) Potassium
B) Creatinine kinase
C) Phosphorous
D) Glucose
Q3) Which serious adverse effect is associated with long term use of nitrofurantoin?
A) Iridescent yellow urine
B) Drowsiness
C) Paraethesia
D) Gastrointestinal upset
Q4) What is the indication for rifaxim?
A) Hepatic encephalopathy
B) Viral encephalitis
C) Hepatitis
D) Hepatic insufficiency
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs Debere,suffering from tuberculosis,noticed a deterioration in visual acuity.This was most likely related to:
A) ethambutol.
B) streptomycin.
C) isoniazid.
D) rifampicin.
Q2) In isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis,supplementation with ________ may be required:
A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) pyridoxine
Q3) An antituberculotic drug with a sterilising action is:
A) isoniazid.
B) ethambutol.
C) rifampicin.
D) gentamicin.
Q4) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q2) What is the indication of topical silver preparations?
A) Burns
B) Acne
C) Eczema
D) Warts
Q3) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
Q4) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Page 73
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) ________ should be assessed before and following a long-term course of therapy using chloroquine or its derivatives.
A) Liver enzyme levels
B) Visual acuity
C) Cardiac enzyme levels
D) Urea and creatinine levels
Q2) What should a woman who is pregnant be advised to do when taking atovaquone therapy?
A) Supplement with vitamin D.
B) Supplement with calcium.
C) Supplement with vitamin A.
D) Supplement with folic acid.
Q3) With which of the following antiparasitic agents should alcohol be strictly avoided in order to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction?
A) Paromomycin
B) Nitazoxanide
C) Metronidazole
D) Quinine
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The action of reverse transcriptase,the enzyme used by retroviruses,is:
A) transcription from DNA to RNA.
B) blockage of transcription.
C) increased transcription in the host cell.
D) lysis of the host cell.
Q2) The DNA polymerase inhibitor aciclovir can suppress the symptoms of several viral infections except:
A) chickenpox.
B) herpes type I.
C) measles.
D) Epstein-Barr infections.
Q3) What is a key difference between the common cold and influenza?
A) Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.
B) There is a vaccine for influenza.
C) The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.
D) The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.
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Page 75
Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the antifungal terbinafine is administered orally for more than six weeks for a fungal nail infection,the person should be advised to have:
A) blood cholesterol levels monitored.
B) liver enzyme levels and blood count monitored.
C) respiratory function monitored.
D) aural function monitored.
Q2) Systemic candidiasis can be treated with parenteral:
A) amphotericin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) itraconazole.
D) terbinafine.
Q3) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) In regard to the adverse effects associated with vaccination,a significant concern is:
A) that convulsions and brain damage are relatively common consequences.
B) there is no prophylactic treatment for the febrile state and local reactions that commonly develop.
C) the onset of anaphylactic reactions.
D) there is no information readily available to families about the risks of this treatment.
Q2) Anakinra is used in combination with what other medication for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) gold salts
B) methotrexate
C) NSAID
D) corticosteroids
Q3) Which types of white blood cells are involved in allergic reactions? Select all that apply.
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are NOT Classic cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Colony stimulating factors
C) Antibiotic-type cytotoxic agents
D) Cell cycle-specific agents
Q2) All vinca alkaloids are administered:
A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.
Q3) Tretinoin is closely related to which vitamin?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
Q4) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
Page 78
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children with eczema are more likely to develop:
A) skin cancer.
B) asthma.
C) verrucae.
D) alopecia.
Q2) For the treatment of scabies with crotamiton,application is required ________ until eradicated.
A) hourly
B) daily
C) twice weekly
D) weekly
Q3) Which non-drug product is considered the mainstay of eczema treatment?
A) Colloidal oatmeal
B) Coal tar
C) Emollients
D) Baking soda
Q4) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT an effective antibiotic for ophthalmic use?
A)Ciprofloxacin
B)Amoxicillin
C)Gentamicin
D)Sulfacetamide
Q2) For a drug to be absorbed into the eyeball through the cornea,it would need to be:
A) lipophilic only.
B) hydrophilic only.
C) hydrophobic only.
D) both lipophilic and hydrophilic.
Q3) Trachoma is associated with:
A) a chlamydial eye infection.
B) an impairment of aqueous humour drainage.
C) a form of cancer that affects the eyeball.
D) an ingrowing eyelash.
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of garlic as a herbal medication should be avoided in all of the following conditions EXCEPT in the:
A) person with atherosclerosis.
B) woman who is pregnant.
C) person on anticoagulant therapy.
D) person on hypoglycaemic therapy.
Q2) Red clover should be avoided in individuals with:
A) asthma.
B) breast cancer.
C) epilepsy.
D) clotting deficiency.
Q3) If a woman is using evening primrose oil for premenstrual syndrome,it should be consumed:
A) a few days before menstruation.
B) during menstruation.
C) all throughout the menstrual cycle.
D) the first four days following the onset of menstruation.
Q4) Powdered ginger is less effective than ginger ale.
A)True
B)False
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