Biomedical Science
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Science is the study of human biology as it relates to medicine, health, and disease. This interdisciplinary field integrates principles from biology, chemistry, and physics to understand the mechanisms of disease, develop diagnostic tools, and discover new treatments. Students learn about the structure and function of the human body, genetics, immunology, pathology, microbiology, and pharmacology. The course emphasizes laboratory techniques, critical analysis, and research skills essential for careers in healthcare, medical research, and biotechnology. Through practical and theoretical study, students are prepared to contribute to scientific advances that improve human health and medical outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 3rd Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
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Chapter 1: Introduction and Natural Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered acute phase reactants EXCEPT:
A) fibrinogen
B) complement
C) C-reactive protein
D) TNF-alpha
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is part of the external defense system?
A) ceruloplasmin
B) skin
C) neutrophils
D) complement
Answer: B
Q3) The phagosome of a macrophage is a membrane-bound vesicle that contains:
A) enzymes
B) reactive oxygen intermediates
C) ingested bacteria
D) perforin and granzymes
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of T cells with CD4 antigen is which of the following?
A) to help B cells make antibody
B) to kill virally infected cells
C) phagocytosis
D) production of opsonins
Answer: A
Q2) Lymphocytes that mature in the thymus are involved in which immune response?
A) cytokine-mediated responses
B) antibody production
C) phagocytosis
D) any of the above
Answer: A
Q3) Which cell is capable of producing antibody?
A) plasma cell
B) CD4+ T cell
C) macrophage
D) neutrophil
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Nature of Antigens and Major Histocompatibility Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a determinant site on a molecule that stimulates antibody formation is produced by the folding of the primary chain,this is known as a:
A) conformational epitope
B) linear epitope
C) hapten
D) valence
Answer: A
Q2) Which MHC class of antigens is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells?
A) class I
B) class II
C) class III
D) No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition.
Answer: B
Q3) MHC class II antigens are recognized by which of the following cells?
A) CD4+ T cells
B) CD8+ T cells
C) B cells
D) macrophages
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Antibody Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are characteristic of secretory IgA EXCEPT:
A) It is found on mucosal surfaces.
B) It has a secretory component made in epithelial cells.
C) It occurs as a monomer.
D) It defends against pathogens in the respiratory tract.
Q2) Which of the following is true of coding for antibody molecules?
A) Heavy chains are coded for on chromosome 2.
B) V,D,and J code for heavy chain variable regions.
C) DNA coding for light chains are rearranged first.
D) V and D code for light chain variable regions.
Q3) The primary response is characterized by:
A) naive B cells recognizing antigens
B) memory B cells recognizing antigens
C) the production of large amounts of IgG
D) a very short lag period
E) a long duration of high titer
Q4) Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?
A) Fab
B) CL
C) CH
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cytokines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which acts as the best defense against gram-negative bacteria?
A) IL-1
B) TNF
C) IL-2
D) IL-5
Q2) A cytokine that is produced by TH2 cells and inhibits TH1 cells is:
A) IL-10
B) IL-4
C) IL-3
D) IFN-gamma
Q3) When multiple cytokines act on the same cell,by definition they have:
A) pleiotropy
B) redundancy
C) synergism
D) antagonism
Q4) Cytokines exhibit pleiotropy,which refers to:
A) multiple cytokines affecting the same cell
B) one cytokine inhibiting the activity of another cytokine
C) one cytokine affecting multiple cells
D) cytokines acting together to affect a cell
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Complement System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor must be associated with factor H to inactivate complement components?
A) C1INH
B) factor I
C) DAF
D) CR1
Q2) A system of serum proteins that interact to enhance the immune response by producing cytolytic,chemotactic,and other effects best describes:
A) complement
B) fibrinogen
C) haptoglobin
D) CRP
Q3) Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathway?
A) IgG
B) mannose-binding lectin
C) C3b
D) C1q
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Chapter 7: Safety and Specimen Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which series of dilutions would be best in order to make a 1:3000 dilution?
A) 1:10,1:3,1:10
B) 1:5,1:6,1:100
C) 1:3,1:100,1:100
D) 1:30,1:10,1:100
Q2) Which of the following should be part of a chemical hygiene plan?
A) appropriate work practices
B) engineering controls such as fume hoods
C) employee training
D) all of the above
Q3) When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent,what dilution does this represent?
A) 1:3
B) 1:4
C) 1:5
D) 3:1
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9
Chapter 8: Precipitation Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a qualitative precipitation procedure is:
A) Ouchterlony
B) radial immunodiffusion
C) rapid plasma reagin
D) complement fixation
Q2) In the Mancini endpoint method of RID:
A) The diameter is proportional to the log of the concentration of antigen.
B) The squared diameter is proportional to the concentration of antigen.
C) The squared diameter is proportional to the log of the concentration of antigen.
D) The diameter is directly proportional to the concentration.
Q3) Where does lattice formation occur to the greatest extent?
A) prozone
B) postzone
C) zone of equivalence
D) prezone
Q4) A situation in which antigen is in excess as compared to antibody is called:
A) prozone
B) postzone
C) equivalence zone
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Chapter 9: Agglutination
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Sample Questions
Q1) A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier,the antibody is soluble,and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically.What type of assay is described?
A) precipitation
B) agglutination
C) flocculation
D) neutralization
Q2) In performing blood typing using the tube method,if the red cell button is not resuspended properly,what are the most likely results?
A) false-positive
B) false-negative
C) doesn't affect the results
D) makes the reaction weaker
Q3) If a Coombs' test is positive,which of the following is true?
A) Antibody has coated patient red blood cells in vitro.
B) Antigen is reacting with patient antibody.
C) Antibody has coated patient red blood cells in vivo.
D) Antigen has coated patient red blood cells in vivo.
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11
Chapter 10: Labeled Immunoassays
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pregnancy testing is based on an early increase in which hormone?
A) human chorionic gonadotropin
B) luteinizing hormone
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) follicle-stimulating hormone
Q2) In an indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as the FTA confirmatory test for syphilis,all of the following are true EXCEPT:
A) A labeled antigen is used.
B) Washing is an important step.
C) Patient antibody is detected.
D) Antihuman globulin has a fluorescent tag.
Q3) In the following equation,what is the ratio of bound radioactive antigen to bound patient antigen? 8ag* + 4ag + 6ab ---> ag*ab + agab + ag* + ag
A) 1:6
B) 1:3
C) 2:1
D) 8:6
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12
Chapter 11: Molecular Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for a probe to hybridize to the target,which condition must be met?
A) The target must be double-stranded.
B) The target can only be RNA.
C) The target must have the same bases.
D) The target must have complementary bases.
Q2) Which is the correct conclusion if results of DNA restriction analysis by gel electrophoresis show a difference in one band?
A) The samples are the same.
B) The samples are not identical.
C) Gel electrophoresis should be repeated.
D) The wrong buffer was used in electrophoresis.
Q3) A short strand of DNA or RNA used to detect an unknown nucleic acid in a patient specimen best describes a:
A) nucleic acid probe
B) restriction enzyme
C) primer
D) restriction fragment length polymorphism
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13
Chapter 12: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
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Q1) Which of the following is an intrinsic parameter that can be measured by a flow cytometer?
A) surface expression of CD3
B) internal complexity
C) fluorescence intensity
D) nuclear morphology
Q2) The expression of cell surface markers is determined in the flow cytometer by which of the following?
A) chemiluminescence
B) fluorescence
C) optical density
D) radioactivity
E) scatter
Q3) A range of values that all produce a positive result is known as:
A) analytic sensitivity
B) reportable range
C) accuracy
D) precision
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14
Chapter 13: Hypersensitivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) buildup of IgE on Mom's cells
B) Rh- Mom's exposure to Rh+ baby cells
C) Rh+ Mom's exposure to Rh- baby cells
D) baby must be Rh negative
Q2) All of the following hypersensitivity reactions involve activation of complement
EXCEPT:
A) allergic reactions
B) hemolytic disease of the newborn
C) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D) serum sickness
Q3) Complement is responsible for tissue damage in which of the following reactions?
A) immediate hypersensitivity
B) type III hypersensitivity
C) delayed hypersensitivity
D) anaphylaxis
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Chapter 14: Autoimmunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies directed against thyroglobulin represent a significant finding in which of the following autoimmune diseases?
A) myasthenia gravis
B) multiple sclerosis
C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D) contact dermatitis
Q2) In the RF test for rheumatoid arthritis,what is being detected?
A) antinuclear antibody
B) antithyroglobulin antibody
C) IgM directed against IgG
D) IgG directed against IgM
Q3) Which of the following would be an indicator of systemic lupus?
A) anti-deoxynucleoprotein antibody
B) anti-EB antibody
C) anti-myelin basic protein antibody
D) anti-insulin antibody
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16
Chapter 15: Immunoproliferative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main difference between leukemias and lymphomas?
A) In leukemias,malignant cells are mainly located in the tissues.
B) Lymphomas are present mainly in peripheral blood.
C) Lymphomas arise due to a lack of response to stimulating antigens.
D) Lymphomas arise mainly in lymph nodes,the spleen,or other lymphoid tissue.
Q2) Which immunoproliferative disorder is a cancer of the plasma cells and results in secretion of light chains into the urine?
A) multiple myeloma
B) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
C) alpha heavy chain disease
D) DiGeorge syndrome
Q3) Which best describes the difference between chronic and acute lymphocytic leukemias?
A) Chronic lymphocytic leukemias are exclusive of T-cell origin.
B) Acute lymphocytic leukemias have a high response rate to chemotherapy.
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemias have a shorter survival time.
D) Acute lymphocytic leukemias progress more slowly.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Immunodeficiency Disease
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Q1) A 6-month-old baby has suffered from recurrent bacterial infections.Flow cytometry results indicate a lack of B cells but presence of normally functioning T cells.Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A) SCID
B) common variable hypogammaglobulinemia
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
Q2) Which of the following diseases results in an acquired or secondary immunodeficiency?
A) HIV infection
B) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
C) leukocyte adhesion deficiency
D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Q3) Decreased CD3-positive lymphocytes and a lack of responsiveness to phytohemagglutinin (PHA)in the circulation would typically be associated with:
A) inflammation
B) Bruton's hypogammaglobulinemia
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) chronic granulomatous disease
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Transplantation Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a complement-dependent cytotoxicity test was performed using standard antibodies to HLA A1,A3,B2,and B11,the following microscopic results were obtained: a majority of blue cells were seen with anti-A1,A3,and B11.Based on these results,what is the phenotype of the donor cells?
A) HLA A1,B11
B) HLA B2 only
C) HLA A1,A3,B11
D) cannot be determined from these results
Q2) Graft-versus-host disease results under which conditions?
A) when immunocompetent cells are placed in an immunocompromised host
B) when immunodeficient cells are placed in an immunocompetent host
C) any time tissue is not exactly matched in a transplant
D) only when adult cells are transplanted into a baby
Q3) Which term applies to the type of graft rejection that begins within a few weeks or months after transplantation of an organ and is due to CD8 reactive T cells?
A) acute rejection
B) hyperacute rejection
C) chronic rejection
D) accelerated rejection
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Page 19
Chapter 19: Tumor Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are tests used to identify Helicobacter pylori EXCEPT:
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) urease
C) enzyme immunoassay
D) DNase
Q2) An ASO test was performed on the serum from a 10-year-old female patient with the following results: no hemolysis in the 1:10,1:20,1:40,and 1:80 tubes; and hemolysis in the 1:160,1:320,and 1:640 tubes.What conclusion can you draw from these results?
A) The titer is 1:640,and the patient may have glomerulonephritis.
B) The titer is 1:160,and the patient may have rheumatic fever.
C) The titer is 1:80,and the patient is normal.
D) The test is invalid and must be repeated.
Q3) Organisms that are short rods or coccobacilli and obligate intracellular bacteria best describes:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Rickettsia prowazekii
D) Mycoplasma pneumonia
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Chapter 20: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
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Q1) All of the following may be drawbacks of antibody testing for fungal infections EXCEPT:
A) The patient is immunocompromised.
B) Serologic tests may not be positive at a particular stage of the disease.
C) Presence of antibodies may not indicate an active infection.
D) False-positive results occur often in patients with functioning immune systems.
Q2) A 25-year-old pregnant female has serologic testing to determine if she has a toxoplasmosis infection.A low level of both IgM and IgG is found.On repeat testing 2 weeks later,the results are the same.What can be concluded from these results?
A) She has an active infection.
B) The baby will have serious central nervous system damage.
C) She was exposed to toxoplasmosis at some time in the past.
D) She has never been exposed to toxoplasmosis.
Q3) Why is testing for Cryptococcal antigen preferred over testing for antibodies?
A) This is usually not a humoral response to infection.
B) Immunocompromised patients do not produce antibody.
C) Subclinical infection can be detected.
D) all of the above
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Chapter 21: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 32-year-old heterosexual male presents to the physician with a 3-day history of multiple skin lesions located all over his body and on his mucous membranes.He hasn't felt well and has a low-grade fever.The patient cuts down trees in Massachusetts for a living.He is single,has had multiple sex partners,and does not use condoms.Here are the results of his laboratory tests: rapid plasma reagin = reactive 1:128; Treponema pallidum-particle agglutination assay = reactive; Borrelia burgdorferi IgM = < 1:8; Rickettsia rickettsii IgM < 1:8.This patient has:
A) primary syphilis
B) secondary syphilis
C) lyme disease
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Q2) Lab results on a patient indicated a positive RPR and a negative FTA.The patient had no obvious sore,rash,or other symptoms.What is the most likely cause of these results?
A) primary syphilis
B) secondary syphilis
C) tertiary syphilis
D) another disease,such as mono
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Page 22
Chapter 22: Serology of Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) A patient has an antibody profile for Epstein-Barr virus performed with the following results: EBVCA IgM = pos; EBVCA IgG = pos; EBV-NA = neg; EBV-EA = neg.This patient has which of the following?
A) acute EBV infection
B) convalescent EBV
C) past exposure to EBV
D) lack of EBV infection
Q2) A patient has a hepatitis B profile performed and is positive for hepatitis B surface antibody only.This patient:
A) was vaccinated against hepatitis B
B) had a previous hepatitis B infection
C) is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B
D) has acute hepatitis B
Q3) Which of the following positive antibody tests may be an indication of recent vaccination or early primary infection for rubella in a patient with no clinical symptoms?
A) only IgG positive
B) only IgM positive
C) both IgG and IgA antibodies positive
D) fourfold rise in titer for IgG
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Spirochete Diseases
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Q1) A patient has serum tested for HIV antibodies by ELISA,and the test is positive.The patient's serum is retested in duplicate with two more positive results.What should be done next?
A) Patient is diagnosed with acute HIV infection.
B) Serum is tested for antibodies against hepatitis C virus.
C) HIV Western blot assay is performed on patient's serum.
D) Results mean that patient had HIV in the past but not now.
Q2) Which of the following HIV-encoded proteins/glycoproteins is the receptor for host cells?
A) p24
B) gp120
C) gp41
D) p31
Q3) All of the following conditions would indicate AIDS EXCEPT:
A) a CD4+ count of less than 200 cells/\(\mu\)L
B) Kaposi's sarcoma
C) esophageal candidiasis
D) infectious mononucleosis
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