Biomedical Laboratory Technology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Biomedical Laboratory Technology is a multidisciplinary course that introduces students to the principles and practices essential for effective work in modern biomedical laboratories. The course covers foundational topics such as laboratory safety, specimen collection and processing, analytical techniques, and quality control. It also explores advanced diagnostic methods including molecular biology, immunology, clinical chemistry, hematology, and microbiology. Students gain hands-on experience with sophisticated laboratory instruments, data analysis, and interpretation, preparing them to support medical research, diagnosis, and treatment in clinical settings. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, regulatory compliance, and effective communication within the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology 4th Edition by Connie R. Mahon
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41 Chapters
1460 Verified Questions
1460 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of chromosomal DNA is found in eukaryotic cells.
A) Linear
B) Circular
C) Plasmid
D) Colloid
Answer: A
Q2) The nuclear membrane in prokaryotes is:
A) Missing
B) Impenetrable
C) A classic membrane
D) A lipid bilayer membrane
Answer: A
Q3) What structure is a phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins and cholesterol that regulates the amount of chemicals that pass in and out of a cell?
A) Cell wall
B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D) Plasma membrane
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Host-Parasite Interaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferon is a substance produced by the body that inhibits viral replication.Interferon accomplishes this task by:
A) Digesting the virus that is attempting to attach to the host cell
B) Destroying the host cell before the virus can attach and replicate
C) Binding to surface receptors that stimulate the cell to synthesize enzymes that inhibit viral replication over several days
D) Stimulating platelets to produce b-lysins
Answer: C
Q2) The stomach can be considered the first line of defense against microbial infections because:
A) Most microorganisms are susceptible to the antibiotics and alkaline pH present in the stomach.
B) Most microorganisms are killed by the liver enzymes that are emptied into the stomach during a meal.
C) The stomach produces lipase, which attacks the lipopolysaccharide cell wall of the organisms.
D) Most microorganisms are susceptible to the acid pH of the stomach.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Laboratory Role in Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients in both extended care facilities and home care settings are frequently immunosuppressed by disease or therapy and often need intravascular or other device-related care.The microbes identified in these patients are often opportunistic pathogens and include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Neisseria meningitis
C) Candida
D) Acinetobacter
Answer: B
Q2) An outbreak occurs when:
A) Numbers of isolates or infection rates increase significantly above the baseline.
B) Numbers of isolates or infection rates decrease significantly below the baseline.
C) Many people in a community are infected with a particular organism.
D) The mortality rate from a particular organism increases above 2%.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Control of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) This topical antiseptic disrupts the microbial cell membrane and precipitates the cellular contents.
A) Chlorhexidine gluconate
B) Povidone-iodine
C) 95% ethanol
D) 60% isopropyl alcohol
Q2) All of the following are examples of personal protective equipment (PPE)EXCEPT:
A) Gloves
B) Lab coats
C) Safety glasses
D) Prescription glasses
Q3) The most concentrated forms of ethanol and isopropyl alcohol are less bactericidal than the diluted forms of these alcohols.Why?
A) No free radicals are present in solution to kill the bacteria.
B) Only the dilutions can dissolve the lipopolysaccharide cell walls.
C) Proteins are not denatured readily in the absence of water.
D) Killing bacteria also requires the solution be heated, and it is difficult to heat concentrated alcohols because they are flammable.
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6
Chapter 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology
Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Usually,negative test results are more reliable in predicting:
A) The absence of disease
B) The presence of disease
C) The sensitivity of a test
D) The specificity of a test
Q2) Popular media choices for maintaining stock cultures include:
A) TSA deeps
B) Cornmeal
C) Sabouraud dextrose
D) CTA with glucose
Q3) An unlabeled specimen is sent from the intensive care unit to the laboratory.When the specimen arrives in the laboratory,the laboratory manager decides that correct action needs to occur.What can be constructed to evaluate and correct the problem?
A) Find fault with the nurse causing the problem.
B) Provide training for the nurse responsible for the problem.
C) Empower a facilitator.
D) Make a cross-functional team.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Specimen Collection and Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help the microbiologist report microbiology results to the physician in a timely fashion to ensure the appropriate treatment,the tech may use this report.
A) Antibiogram
B) Infection control summary
C) Preliminary
D) Final
Q2) Aerobes are bacteria that grow:
A) In low oxygen tension
B) In high carbon dioxide concentrations
C) In high nitrogen concentrations
D) In ambient air
Q3) When plating a nonroutine culture on primary culture media,the tech should ask all the following questions EXCEPT:
A) What anaerobic bacteria will be present in this specimen?
B) Is the specimen likely to contain low numbers or high numbers of organisms?
C) Are the organisms to be found in this specimen likely to be fastidious or nonfastidious?
D) Are any normal florae presently associated with the specimen?
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Chapter 7: Microscopic Examination of Infected Materials
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common causative agent of pyoderma?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Neisseria gonorrhea
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Haemophilus influenzae
Q2) The direct microscopic examination of infected materials,along with specimen site and historical information,may suggest modifications in routine culture techniques to allow the isolation of a suspected pathogen.Common modifications include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Ordering other culture tests
B) Adding special media
C) Changing incubation temperature or atmosphere
D) Changing the amount of humidity in the incubator
Q3) Some pathogens will not grow in culture and are usually unsuspected.This pathogen can be seen in the sputum and bronchoalveolar fluid of patients with a hyperinfestation syndrome.The name of this pathogen is:
A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Giardia lamblia
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
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Chapter 8: Use of Colonial Morphology for the Presumptive
Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relative concentration of bacteria on culture plates is directly proportional to:
A) The amount of nutrients in the culture plates
B) The environment in which the bacteria is grown
C) The concentration in which they are present in the clinical specimen
D) The amount of bacteria isolated from the initial inoculation on the plate
Q2) Streptococcus pneumoniae typically produces colonies that are said to resemble coins.The technical term for this colony shape is:
A) Umbonate
B) Flat
C) Umbilicate
D) Raised
Q3) Colonies of Bacillus anthracis are described as:
A) Curschmann's spiral
B) Mickey Mouse ears
C) Medusa's heads
D) Flower like
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Chapter 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tech is reading the biochemical tests for identifying a particular gram-negative rod.The organism has produced acid,indicated by a color change,in the closed tube only.This indicates that the organism is:
A) An oxidizer
B) A fermenter
C) Both an oxidizer and a fermenter
D) A reducer
Q2) What advantage do the methods based on enzyme substrates have over conventional methods?
A) They use filter paper as the structure to hold the bacteria.
B) They reduce the amount of substrate needed for the reactions.
C) They use fluorogenic substrates.
D) They do not require growth of the organism in the system.
Q3) What two reagents can be used to visualize indole in the broth?
A) Indole and xylene
B) 40% sodium hydroxide and a-naphthol
C) 10% ferric chloride
D) Ehrlich's and Kovac's
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Chapter 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) John goes to his physician complaining of a high fever (38.2° C [102° F]),muscle aches,cough,and a headache.These symptoms came on suddenly,and his physician thinks John may have the flu.What kind of antibody is his body producing against the virus?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgD
Q2) What is the principle of direct antigen testing?
A) A clinical specimen is mixed with an antigen, then a labeled antibody is added. If the antigen is present, a complex will form.
B) It is a process by which microbial antigens are identified in patient specimens by combining specifically with antibody molecules to form stable complexes.
C) A fluorescent antigen is added to a specimen, then an antibody to form sandwich complexes.
D) Labeled antigen is added to a specimen, and the specimen is read for fluorescence.
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Chapter 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)includes all the following steps EXCEPT:
A) Denaturation
B) Primer annealing
C) Primer extension
D) Amplification
Q2) The principle of in-solution hybridization is:
A) The hybridization between a labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells
B) The hybridization between an immobilized labeled probe and target nucleic acids in a liquid solution in tubes or in microtiter wells
C) The hybridization between a labeled probe in solution and immobilized target nucleic acids
D) When two solutions are combined and hybridization occurs between the probe and the target, then the tube is centrifuged to detect the precipitated hybridized target and probes
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13
Chapter 12: Antibiotic Mechanisms of Action and Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) -Lactamases hydrolyze b-lactam antibiotics using two distinct mechanisms: those having a metallo-based mechanism of action and those with:
A) Ring-specific enzymes
B) A serine-based mechanism of action
C) A chromosomal mechanism of action
D) A transporter mechanism of action
Q2) Antimicrobial agents include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Plant extracts
B) Antibiotics
C) Preservatives
D) Antiseptics
Q3) How do the b-lactamase inhibitors work?
A) By structurally rearranging the b-lactamase molecule so that it loses specificity for the b-lactam antibiotic
B) By competing with the antibiotic for porin sites on the outer membrane
C) By acting as substrates for the b-lactamase and reducing their effect on the antibiotic
D) By acting as transport molecules to transport the antibiotic into the bacterial cell
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should antimicrobial susceptibility testing be performed on a bacterial isolate from a clinical specimen?
A) When the isolate is determined to be a probable cause of the patient's infection
B) When the susceptibility of the isolate to particular antimicrobial agents cannot be reliably predicted
C) a and b
D) None of the above
Q2) Other important factors must be considered when determining whether antimicrobial susceptibility testing is warranted,including:
A) The body site from which the organism was isolated
B) The presence of other bacteria and the quality of the specimen from which the organism was grown
C) The host's status
D) All the above
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Chapter 14: Staphylococci
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Sample Questions
Q1) This staphylococcus produces wide zones of beta hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar.
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) S. aureus
C) S. intermedius
D) S. saprophyticus
Q2) Staphylococci are catalase-positive,gram-positive cocci that resemble other bacteria that are members of this family.
A) Micrococcaceae
B) Streptococcus
C) Escherichia
D) Enterococcus
Q3) This staphylococcal species is associated with urinary tract infections in young,sexually active females.
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) S. intermedius
C) S. epidermidis
D) S. saprophyticus
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Chapter 15: Streptococcus, enterococcus, and Other
Catalase-Negative Gram-Positive Cocci
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin or pyodermal infections with group A streptococci result in all the following syndromes EXCEPT:
A) Impetigo
B) Bullous impetigo
C) Cellulites
D) Erysipelas
Q2) Two serious complications of an infection with group A streptococcal disease are:
A) Toxic shock syndrome and scarlet fever
B) Gangrene and rheumatic fever
C) Acute glomerulonephritis and necrotizing fasciitis
D) Acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever
Q3) What organism on sheep blood agar (SBA)has grayish white colonies surrounded by a small zone of b-hemolysis?
A) Viridans strep
B) Enterococcus
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Streptococcus agalactiae
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the genus whose members are called nocardioforms?
A) Gordonia
B) Weimeronia
C) Rhodococcus
D) Tsukamurella
Q2) All of the following are commonly encountered Nocardia spp.EXCEPT:
A) Nocardia asteroides
B) N. brasiliensis
C) N. transvalensis
D) N. nova
Q3) Infections caused by Tsukamurella paurometabola include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Chronic lung infection
B) Brain abscesses
C) Knee prosthesis infection
D) Conjunctivitis
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18
Chapter 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the specimen of choice in males for genital infections?
A) Urine
B) Throat culture
C) Purulent discharge
D) Stool
Q2) What Neisseria spp.can be found as part of the transient flora of the upper respiratory tract?
A) Neisseria gonorrhea
B) N. catarrhalis
C) N. sicca
D) N. meningitidis
Q3) How should a specimen for Neisseria gonorrhoeae be transported to the laboratory?
A) Placed in the paper swab cover and transported to the laboratory at the end of the day
B) Placed in a bacterial transport and transported to the laboratory at the end of the day
C) Placed in a tube of broth and transported to the laboratory immediately
D) Placed in Amies with charcoal transport system and transported to the laboratory immediately
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19
Chapter 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture when she notices tiny,translucent colonies growing closely around a b-hemolytic colony on sheep blood agar (SBA).In fact,the colonies are growing in the area where the blood has been hemolyzed.What is the probable identity of the organism that is growing closely to the b-hemolytic organism,and why are they growing in the hemolyzed area?
A) Neisseria spp., because they need the factor X in this area
B) Haemophilus spp., because they need the factor V in this area
C) Acinetobacter spp., because they need the factors X and V
D) Alcalgenes spp., because they require antibiotics be added to the media
Q2) All the following organisms are associated with human illness EXCEPT:
A) Brucella melitensis
B) B. ovis
C) B. suis
D) B. canis
Q3) What organism causes the disease called whooping cough?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Legionella pneumoniae
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organism is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)in humans?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Klebsiella oxytoca
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Enterobacter cloacae
Q2) A microbiologist is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar.What is the most likely organism?
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus vulgaris
D) Acinetobacter
Q3) What two bacteria produce swarming colonies on nonselective media such as sheep blood agar (SBA)?
A) Enterobacter aerogenes and Serratia marcescens
B) Proteus pannier and Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis
D) Proteus mirabilis and Escherichia coli
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Chapter 20: Vibrio,aeromonas,plesiomonas and
Campylobacter Species
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the organism that causes the disease cholera?
A) Vibrio furnissii
B) V. cholerae
C) V. vulnificus
D) V. parahaemolyticus
Q2) What Vibrio species is most infrequently isolated in the laboratory?
A) Vibrio alginolyticus
B) V. parahaemolyticus
C) V. cholerae
D) V. vulnificus
Q3) Infections with Vibrio spp.can be contracted in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
A) Increased travel to either coastal or cholera-endemic areas
B) Increased consumption of seafood (particularly uncooked)
C) Greater numbers of Vibrio spp. in the environment
D) Increased use of recreational water facilities
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22
Chapter 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous
Gram-Negative Bacilli
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organism is an opportunistic pathogen that strikes the immunocompromised patient with neutrophil deficits and produces a violet pigment on nonselective agar?
A) Psychrobacter immobilis
B) Chromobacterium violaceum
C) Chryseomonas luteola
D) Paracoccus phenylpyruvicus
Q2) What biochemical test will differentiate nonfermenters from Enterobacteriaceae (except Plesiomonas)?
A) Oxidase
B) Indole
C) Citrate
D) Voges-Proskauer (VP)
Q3) Which of the following is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) Endotoxin
B) Exotoxins
C) Capsule
D) All of the above
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an obligate anaerobe?
A) An organism that requires some oxygen but moderate concentrations of CO to live
B) An organism that requires small amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide to live
C) An organism that grows only in the absence of molecular oxygen
D) An organism that can live with very little oxygen
Q2) Bacterial growth requirements for oxygen and carbon dioxide can be divided into all the following categories EXCEPT:
A) Ambient air (95% O and 5% CO )
B) Microaerophilic (5% O )
C) Anaerobic (0% O )
D) Capnophilic (about 15% O and 5% to 10% CO )
Q3) Bacterial vaginosis is a synergistic infectious process involving all the following bacteria EXCEPT:
A) Eubacterium
B) Bacteroides
C) Gardnerella
D) Peptostreptococcus
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Chapter 23: Spirochetes
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Q1) What organism causes relapsing fever?
A) Borrelia recurrentis
B) B. burgdorferi
C) Leptospira interrogans
D) C. psittaci
Q2) Where is the unusual rash seen in secondary syphilis?
A) Chest and back
B) Back and soles
C) Buttocks and palms
D) Palms and soles
Q3) All of the following diseases are produced by Treponema EXCEPT:
A) Syphilis
B) Elephantiasis
C) Yaws
D) Pinta
Q4) What is the primary method used to diagnosis syphilis infections?
A) Serologic
B) Microscopy
C) Culture
D) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
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Chapter 24: Chlamydia and Rickettsia
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Q1) What organism causes epidemic louse-borne typhus?
A) Rickettsia typhi
B) R. canada
C) R. rickettsii
D) R. prowazekii
Q2) What organism causes the human ehrlichiosis that occurs mostly in Japan and a fish trematode is the vector?
A) Neorickettsia sennetsu
B) Ehrlichia chaffeensis
C) Anaplasma phagocytophilum
D) Leptotrombidium deliensis
Q3) What disease does Chlamydia psittaci cause in humans?
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Endocarditis
C) Parrot fever
D) Bird flu
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Chapter 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) What time frame is suitable for blood draws to diagnose Mycoplasma infections?
A) Onset of symptoms and 2 to 3 weeks later
B) Week after symptoms start and 2 months later
C) Weeks after symptoms start and 3 months later
D) Onset of symptoms and 2 months later
Q2) Mycoplasma organisms will grow in which of the following atmospheres?
A) Ambient
B) Capnophilic
C) Anaerobic
D) All of the above
Q3) When Mycoplasma hominis invades the upper genitourinary tract,it can cause the following?
A) Salpingitis
B) Pyelonephritis
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) All of the above
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Chapter 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Other
Nontuberculosis Mycobacteria
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Q1) What is the single most important piece of equipment in a mycobacterial laboratory?
A) Ultraviolet lights
B) Covered centrifuge
C) Biologic safety cabinet
D) CO incubator
Q2) What is the definition of a multidrug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) Organisms resistant to at least isoniazid and rifampicin
B) Organisms resistant to isoniazid, rifampicin, ethambutol, and streptomycin
C) Organisms resistant to streptomycin and rifampicin
D) Organisms resistant to ciprofloxacin and imipenem
Q3) All of the following are common extrapulmonary infection sites for tuberculosis EXCEPT:
A) Lymph nodes
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Genitourinary tract
D) Abdominal cavity
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Medically Significant Fungi
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Q1) For potassium hydroxide (KOH)to work properly,what is done to speed up the dissolution of the keratin and skin layers?
A) Mix gently.
B) Let the slide sit for 30 minutes before reading.
C) Heat gently, then cool.
D) Let sit under an ultraviolet light for 20 minutes.
Q2) What organism is found in the San Joaquin Valley region of California?
A) Sporothrix schenckii
B) Penicillium marneffei
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Q3) What organism frequently presents in fungus balls?
A) Fonsecaea compacta
B) Penicillium marneffei
C) F. pedrosoi
D) Aspergillus fumigatus
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Chapter 29: Clinical Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are direct methods for diagnosing viral infections EXCEPT:
A) Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)
B) Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
C) Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
D) Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
Q2) What are continuous cell cultures?
A) This is where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and very little cell division occurs.
B) It is a culture that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations.
C) It often has variable numbers of chromosomes and indefinite passage.
D) This describes the only cells the specimen will be plated on.
Q3) What is a prion?
A) A virion
B) A viroid
C) A proteinaceous infectious particle
D) A lipopolysaccharide infectious particle
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Chapter 30: Agents of Bioterror
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Q1) What organism causes glanders?
A) Francisella tularensis
B) Brucella abortus
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Burkholderia mallei
Q2) Viral hemorrhagic fevers include all the following EXCEPT:
A) Ebola
B) Crimean-Congo
C) Lassa fever
D) Black fever
Q3) What is characteristic of smallpox?
A) The pustules penetrate deeply into the tissue.
B) Infections also occur on the palms and the soles of the feet.
C) The synchronous progression of the lesions.
D) All of the above.
Q4) What is ricin?
A) A potent biological toxin that disrupts native DNA strands
B) A potent biological toxin that stops cell wall synthesis
C) A potential biological toxin that inhibits protein synthesis
D) All of the above
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Chapter 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is stage V of biofilm development?
A) Spreading phase
B) Multiplication phase
C) Cell dispersion
D) Layering phase
Q2) What is stage III of biofilm development?
A) Irreversible binding phase
B) Layering phase
C) Attachment phase
D) Multiplication phase
Q3) What is stage I of biofilm development?
A) Multiplication phase
B) Irreversible binding phase
C) Layering phase
D) Attachment phase
Q4) What types of cells in a biofilm are viable but nonculturable?
A) Phagocytes
B) Persister
C) Attachment cells
D) Layering cells
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Chapter 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are virulence factors that allow microorganisms to produce disease,EXCEPT:
A) Adherence
B) Toxin elaboration
C) Mucus production
D) Host evasion
Q2) All of the following are complications of acute sinusitis EXCEPT:
A) Acute pharyngitis
B) Meningitis
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Orbital cellulitis
Q3) What is the most common complication of pertussis?
A) Otitis media
B) Pneumonia
C) Acute sinusitis
D) Streptococcal pharyngitis
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Chapter 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes scarlet fever?
A) S. aureus
B) Endotoxin
C) Proteases
D) Erythrogenic toxin
Q2) What causes rubeola?
A) Calicivirus
B) Herpesvirus
C) Paramyxovirus
D) Torovirus
Q3) What is river blindness?
A) Infection with Naegleria fowleri
B) Infection with Onchocerca volvulus
C) Infection with Strongyloides stercoralis
D) Infection with Entamoeba histolytica
Q4) What causes rubella?
A) Calicivirus
B) Herpesvirus
C) Paramyxovirus
D) Togaviridae
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Chapter 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following organisms invade the bowel mucosal surface to produce diarrhea
EXCEPT:
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Campylobacter spp.
D) Shigella spp.
Q2) What type of diarrheal illness has no fever and no blood or pus in the stool?
A) Diarrhea where the mucosal surface is invaded
B) Diarrhea where the full bowel thickness is invaded
C) Diarrhea caused by endotoxins
D) Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins
Q3) What diarrheal illness occurs when organisms invade through the bowel wall,cause bacteremia,and also cause a mesenteric lymphadenitis that may be confused with appendicitis?
A) Diarrhea in which the mucosal surface is invaded
B) Diarrhea in which the full bowel thickness is invaded
C) Diarrhea caused by endotoxins
D) Diarrhea caused by enterotoxins
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35
Chapter 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following viruses can resist inactivation by gastric acid EXCEPT:
A) Enteroviruses
B) Adenoviruses
C) Parvovirus
D) Herpesvirus
Q2) What is the first step in developing meningitis?
A) A cold that compromises your immune system
B) Living in close quarters, like military barracks or a college dorm
C) Poor sanitary conditions
D) Nasopharyngeal colonization by a meningeal pathogen
Q3) What enterovirus is commonly associated with neurologic illness?
A) Coxsackievirus B
B) Parvovirus
C) Herpesvirus 1
D) Calicivirus A
Q4) What fungus causes chronic meningitis in HIV patients?
A) Cryptococcus neoformans
B) Coccidioides immitis
C) Candida albicans
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
Page 36
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Chapter 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can happen when a transient bacteremia is produced from a dental procedure or a superficial skin infection?
A) Hepatitis can result.
B) Pneumonia can result.
C) Deep vein thrombosis can result.
D) Cardiac valves can be seeded with bacteria.
Q2) What is the principle of a continuous monitoring blood culture system?
A) The amount of ¹ CO produced is measured as a growth index and compared with a threshold.
B) The amount of increased lipopolysaccharide is measured and compared against the null value.
C) The pH of the media is continuously measured to check for bacterial metabolic by-products.
D) An optical monitor records the number of bacteria and records the growth.
Q3) Where does secondary bacteremia arise from?
A) An infected cardiac valve
B) The lung
C) An infected intravenous catheter
D) The bone marrow
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Chapter 37: Urinary Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because urine is an excellent supportive medium for bacteria growth,how must urine specimens be handled after collection?
A) Store at room temperature for up to 24 hours.
B) Process the refrigerated specimen within 24 hours.
C) Store in the refrigerator for 48 hours.
D) Immediately refrigerate.
Q2) In what patient population is a colony count on a urine culture significant?
A) Young, sexually active women with cystitis
B) Elderly men with prostatitis
C) Asymptomatic individuals with pyelonephritis
D) Elderly women with candiduria
Q3) What do specimens with multiple uropathogens (i.e.,three or more)indicate?
A) Probable contamination
B) Polymicrobial infection
C) Bacteremia
D) Septicemia
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Chapter 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a symptom for secondary syphilis?
A) Chancre
B) Purulent discharge
C) Petechiae
D) Perianal condylomata-lata
Q2) Many women who have bacterial vaginosis (BV)complain of a fishy odor from vaginal secretions.What causes the odor?
A) Carbolic acid
B) Amines
C) Urea
D) Alcohols
Q3) What organism causes chancroid?
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Mobiluncus
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
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Chapter 39: Infections in Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is usually the leading cause of death in immunocompromised patients?
A) HIV
B) Hepatitis C
C) Infections
D) Congestive heart failure
Q2) What two parasitic agents commonly affect patients with malignancy?
A) Giardia lamblia and Listeria monocytogenes
B) Strongyloides stercoralis and Giardia lamblia
C) Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) and Toxoplasma gondii
D) Toxoplasma gondii and Wuchereria bancrofti
Q3) In what disease do we see a decrease in the number of neutrophils,inadequate neutrophil function,including the inability to migrate to sites of inflammation,impaired phagocytosis,and reduced killing of ingested organisms that lead to a predisposition to infection?
A) Anemia
B) Hypogammaglobulinemia
C) Hodgkin's disease
D) Hypergammaglobulinemia
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Chapter 40: Zoonotic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacillus anthracis produces all the following virulence factors EXCEPT:
A) The lethal factor
B) Lipopolysaccharide
C) Glutamic acid
D) The edema factor
Q2) What are the natural hosts for the plague-causing organism,Yersinia pestis?
A) Birds
B) Deer
C) Monkeys
D) Rats
Q3) What disease is known as the woolsorter's disease?
A) Glanders
B) Venezuelan equine encephalitis
C) West Nile disease
D) Anthrax
Q4) What is another name for brucellosis?
A) Glanders
B) Anthrax
C) Lyme disease
D) Undulant fever
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Chapter 41: Ocular Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do bacteria cause keratitis associated with contact lenses?
A) Biofilm formation
B) Growth in the contact lens
C) Attachment to the lens
D) Contamination of the fluid coating the lens
Q2) A layer of tears blankets the cornea to provide all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Waste elimination
B) Optical clarity
C) Lubrication
D) Nutrition
Q3) Microorganisms can gain entry into orbital tissue in all the following ways EXCEPT:
A) Surgery
B) Eyelid infections
C) Dental caries
D) Carrying organisms in the nasopharynx
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