Biomechanics Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biomechanics is the study of the mechanical principles that govern the movement and structure of living organisms. This course explores the fundamental concepts of force, motion, and energy as they apply to biological systems, focusing on human movement and physiology. Students will examine the mechanics of muscles, bones, joints, and soft tissues, and how these elements interact to produce movement and maintain stability. The curriculum integrates principles from physics, engineering, and biology to analyze locomotion, injury mechanisms, and the impact of internal and external forces on the body. Practical applications in sports science, rehabilitation, ergonomics, and biomedical engineering are emphasized through both theoretical learning and hands-on activities.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 6th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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Chapter 1: Basic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a condition involves both of the legs,which of the following terms best describes this situation?
A) Unilateral
B) Ipsilateral
C) Bilateral
D) Contralateral
Answer: C
Q2) When a person grasps an overhead exercise bar and pulls it down,what type of motion is occurring at the shoulder joint?
A) Angular motion
B) Linear motion
C) Kinematic motion
D) Torque motion
Answer: A
Q3) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical
A) left rotation.
B) right rotation.
C) left lateral bend.
D) right lateral bend.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of bone that makes up most of the appendicular skeleton is the A) irregular bone.
B) flat bone.
C) long bone.
D) sesamoid bone.
Answer: C
Q2) How many bones make up the human skeleton?
A) 80
B) 126
C) 206
D) 217
Answer: C
Q3) A bone marking that consists of a hollow or depression is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Articular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two bones of a joint are held together and supported by which of the following structures?
A) Tendon
B) Bursa
C) Ligament
D) Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
Q2) A biaxial joint allows motion in how many directions?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q3) A broad,flat tendinous sheet is called
A) linea alba.
B) aponeurosis.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) labrum.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Arthrokinematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hip abduction is an example of which type of motion?
A) Arthrokinematic
B) Osteokinematic
C) Angular
D) Torque
Q2) According to the convex-concave law,the convex femoral head during hip flexion moves in which direction in relation to the direction the femur moves?
A) Same direction
B) Opposite direction
C) First the same direction,then the opposite direction at the end of the movement D) It depends on whether the person is standing or lying down.
Q3) The loose-packed position of the hip is best described as
A) 30 degrees flexion,30 degrees abduction,and slight external rotation.
B) full extension.
C) full extension and internal rotation.
D) full flexion.
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Chapter 5: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of a muscle to recoil or return to normal resting length after a stretching or shortening force is removed is called
A) irritability.
B) contractility.
C) elasticity.
D) extensibility.
Q2) The ability of a muscle to respond to a stimulus is referred to as which of the following?
A) Irritability
B) Contractility
C) Extensibility
D) Elasticity
Q3) What is the term for a muscle contraction in which the proximal end moves toward the distal end?
A) Irritability
B) Extensibility
C) Reversal of muscle action
D) Active insufficiency
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Chapter 6: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which level of the spinal column is damage to the spinal cord no longer a concern?
A) C7
B) T8
C) T10
D) L1
Q2) Sensory impulses from the peripheral nervous system (PNS)enter the cord through the anterior horn.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A common pathology of the PNS characterized by weakness of the long thoracic nerve is which of the following?
A) Scapular winging
B) Thoracic outlet syndrome
C) Bell's palsy
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome
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Chapter 7: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joining of vessels to provide alternate circulation in case of a blood vessel blockage is referred to as which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Anastomosis
C) Arteriole
D) Angion
Q2) A type of cerebral hemorrhage that occurs in a vein with symptoms that occur over time is which of the following?
A) Epidural bleed
B) Ischemic bleed
C) Varicose bleed
D) Subdural bleed
Q3) The outermost layer of a blood vessel is made up of which type of tissue?
A) Endothelium
B) Smooth muscle
C) Elastic fiber
D) Connective tissue
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9
Chapter 8: Basic Biomechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The state of equilibrium demonstrated when an object's COG is unchanged when it is disturbed is
A) stable equilibrium.
B) unstable equilibrium.
C) neutral equilibrium.
D) None of the above
Q2) Most concentric exercises done in the body are considered to be which type of lever?
A) First class
B) Second class
C) Third class
D) Fourth class
Q3) The type of machine that consists of a grooved wheel that turns on an axle with a rope or cable is a(n)
A) movable pulley.
B) wheel and axle.
C) fixed pulley.
D) inclined plane.
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Chapter 9: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acromioclavicular joint and the sternoclavicular joint contribute to scapular motions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If shoulder girdle retraction is the desired motion,which two muscles are agonists in this motion?
A) Pectoralis minor and pectoralis major
B) Levator scapula and upper trapezius
C) Middle trapezius and rhomboids
D) Serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi
Q3) An example of linear shoulder girdle motion is
A) upward rotation.
B) scapular protraction.
C) scapular depression.
D) B and C
Q4) What motion would the upper trapezius do in a reversal of muscle action?
A) Scapular elevation
B) Scapular depression
C) Head and neck extension
D) Head and neck flexion
11
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Chapter 10: Shoulder Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with specific point tenderness in the axillary region has involvement of which muscle?
A) Teres minor
B) Supraspinatus
C) Subscapularis
D) Pectoralis minor
Q2) Damage to which of the following nerves could result in weakness of the infraspinatus muscle?
A) Radial nerve
B) Musculocutaneous nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Suprascapular nerve
Q3) Damage to which of the following nerves could result in weakness of the coracobrachialis muscle?
A) Radial nerve
B) Musculocutaneous nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Suprascapular nerve
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12
Chapter 11: Elbow Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weakness of the biceps brachii muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Ulnar nerve
D) Radial nerve
Q2) Which of the following groups are the prime movers in elbow flexion?
A) Biceps,supinator,and brachialis
B) Brachialis,brachioradialis,and anconeus
C) Biceps,pronator teres,and supinator
D) Brachialis,biceps,and brachioradialis
Q3) The bony landmark located at the posterior lateral side of the radius at the distal end is called the
A) olecranon process.
B) radial tuberosity.
C) radial head.
D) styloid process.
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Chapter 12: Wrist Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the flexor carpi radialis and the extensor carpi radialis longus contract simultaneously,which motion results?
A) Supination of the forearm
B) Wrist extension
C) Wrist radial deviation
D) Wrist circumduction
Q2) The ligament that attaches to the styloid process of the radius and to the scaphoid and trapezium bones is the
A) radial collateral ligament.
B) ulnar collateral ligament.
C) dorsal radiocarpal ligament.
D) interosseous membrane.
Q3) Which wrist muscle is the direct antagonist of the palmaris longus?
A) Flexor carpi ulnaris
B) Extensor carpi ulnaris
C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Pronator quadratus
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Chapter 13: Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bony arch is formed by the heads of the metacarpals?
A) Lumbrical arch
B) Proximal carpal arch
C) Distal carpal arch
D) Longitudinal arch
Q2) The functional position of the hand includes all of the following joint positions EXCEPT
A) some wrist flexion.
B) flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
C) the thumb in slight opposition.
D) some wrist extension.
Q3) The structure that spans the posterior side of the wrist from the ulnar styloid process to the lateral radius is called the
A) flexor retinaculum.
B) extensor retinaculum.
C) extensor hood.
D) palmar carpal ligament.
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15
Chapter 14: Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bony landmark of the mandible that forms the posterior projection that articulates with the temporal bone is called the
A) angle.
B) styloid process.
C) condyle.
D) ramus.
Q2) Which muscle originates on the temporal fossa and inserts on the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Medial pterygoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
Q3) The TMJ motion named for opening of the mouth is which of the following?
A) Elevation
B) Depression
C) Lateral deviation
D) Retrusion
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16
Chapter 15: Neck and Trunk
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle that originates on the spinous processes of T3 through T6 and inserts on the transverse processes of C1 through C3 is the
A) scalene.
B) sternocleidomastoid.
C) splenius cervicis.
D) clavicular portion of the pectoralis major.
Q2) When you instruct a client in a "chin tuck" exercise,which of the following is occurring with the head muscles?
A) Head flexors and head extensors are being stretched.
B) Head flexors and head extensors are being strengthened.
C) Head flexors are being strengthened; head extensors are being stretched.
D) Head flexors are being stretched; head extensors are being strengthened.
Q3) Which cervical muscle,when contracted unilaterally,rotates the head to the opposite side?
A) Splenius capitis
B) Sternocleidomastoid
C) Erector spinae
D) Scalene
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17
Chapter 16: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients in hospitals will often use an instrument called an incentive spirometer to assist in fully expanding the lungs after surgery or prolonged bedrest.This has the patient focus on deep inspiration and activates all of the following muscles EXCEPT the A) diaphragm.
B) external intercostals.
C) scalenes.
D) rectus abdominis.
Q2) At rest,what is the shape of the diaphragm muscle?
A) Concave
B) Dome-shaped
C) Convex
D) The diaphragm doesn't change shape with rest or when contracted.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the xiphoid process,the ribs,and the lumbar vertebra and inserts on the central tendon?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoralis major
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18
Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normal finding for a lumbosacral angle would be which of the following?
A) 10 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 60 degrees
Q2) The pelvic force couple that combine to pull the pelvis into an anterior tilt are the
A) hip flexors and trunk flexors.
B) hip flexors and trunk extensors.
C) hip extensors and trunk flexors.
D) hip extensors and trunk extensors.
Q3) The bony landmark of the sacrum that makes up the lateral surface and articulates with the ilium is called the
A) ala.
B) auricular surface.
C) superior articular process.
D) pelvic surface.
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Chapter 18: Hip Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the hip adductors are innervated by which of the following nerves?
A) Sciatic nerve
B) Deep peroneal nerve
C) Obturator nerve
D) Femoral nerve
Q2) The ligament at the hip that lies within the capsule and contributes to the blood supply to the femoral head is called the
A) inguinal ligament.
B) acetabular ligament.
C) ligamentum teres.
D) pubofemoral ligament.
Q3) Trauma to the femoral nerve could impair any of the following muscles EXCEPT the A) sartorius.
B) pectineus.
C) gluteus maximus.
D) rectus femoris.
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Chapter 19: Knee Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient tells you that he is bowlegged.The proper medical terminology for this is
A) genu valgum.
B) genu varum.
C) genu recurvatum.
D) coxa vara.
Q2) Which muscles are prime movers in knee extension?
A) Rectus femoris,vastus medialis,vastus lateralis
B) Biceps femoris,semitendinosus,semimembranosus
C) Vastus medialis,plantaris,vastus intermedialis
D) Semitendinosus,gluteus maximus,semimembranosus
Q3) Which muscle has its origin at the anterior inferior iliac spine and its insertion at the tibial tuberosity?
A) Sartorius
B) Rectus femoris
C) Vastus intermedialis
D) Vastus medialis
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21
Chapter 20: Ankle Joint and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has suffered a sprain to the deltoid ligament,and you are asked to strengthen muscles on the same side of the ankle.Which of the following exercises would best achieve this?
A) Seated with cuff weight around dorsum of foot,evert foot
B) Seated with cuff weight around dorsum of foot,invert foot
C) Seated with cuff weight around dorsum of foot,dorsiflex foot
D) Seated with cuff weight around dorsum of foot,plantarflex foot
Q2) The toe pathology characterized by pain and numbness typically between the third and fourth metatarsals,is which of the following?
A) Turf toe
B) Metatarsalgia
C) Morton's neuroma
D) Hammer toe
Q3) Excessive wear and damage to the medial side of a person's shoe would be attributed to which positional fault of the ankle?
A) Calcaneal varus
B) Calcaneal valgus
C) Pes planus
D) Pes cavus
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Causes of poor posture can be which of the following?
A) Habit
B) Congenital malformation
C) Paralysis of key postural muscles
D) Any of the above can be a cause of poor posture.
Q2) For optimal lateral view standing posture,a plumb line should be aligned with all of the following landmarks except
A) through the earlobe.
B) through the acromion process of the shoulder.
C) the anterior to the greater trochanter.
D) the posterior to the patella.
Q3) Pressure on the vertebral discs is greatest in which of the following positions?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Seated
D) Standing upright
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Chapter 22: Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) The period of the stance phase when the body is directly over the weight-bearing limb and the vertical displacement of the pelvis is at its highest point is
A) initial contact.
B) loading response.
C) midstance.
D) terminal stance.
Q2) The term used to describe walking speed is
A) cadence.
B) stride length.
C) gait cycle.
D) period of nonsupport.
Q3) Which muscle group slows down the knee motion in terminal swing and prevents the knee from "snapping" into extension just prior to initial contact?
A) Hip flexors
B) Knee flexors
C) Hip extensors
D) Knee extensors
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