Biology with Physiology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Biology with Physiology is an in-depth exploration of the structural and functional aspects of living organisms, with a focused study on physiological processes at the cellular, organ, and system levels. This course covers foundational topics such as cell biology, genetics, and evolution, before delving into key physiological systems, including the nervous, muscular, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems. Students will gain an understanding of how organisms maintain homeostasis, respond to internal and external stimuli, and adapt to their environments. Laboratory sessions complement theoretical knowledge by providing practical experience in experimental techniques and data analysis related to physiology.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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25 Chapters
1631 Verified Questions
1631 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19878
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a standard probability that is accepted by most researchers as statistical significance?
A) 10%
B) 5%
C) 0.05%
D) 0.01%
Answer: B
Q2) Why are correlations less convincing than controlled experimental results?
A) Correlations are subject to greater bias than experimental results.
B) Correlations cannot be observed outside the laboratory.
C) Correlations cannot be statistically significant.
D) Correlations do not eliminate as many alternative hypotheses.
Answer: D
Q3) Which statement would be correct if an inductively reasoned hypothesis makes sense, based on all available and historical observations?
A) The hypothesis must be true.
B) The hypothesis cannot possibly be true.
C) The hypothesis must be tested.
D) Experimentation is not necessary.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and
Pseudoscience:
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53 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic necessary for life would exclude zombies from being a living thing?
A) consumption of energy-containing molecules
B) fully functioning homeostatic abilities
C) reproduction of more zombies
D) response to external stimuli
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an element?
A) water
B) methane
C) hydrogen
D) carbon dioxide
Answer: C
Q3) Which feature is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A) mitochondrion
B) Golgi body
C) DNA
D) centriole
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
Performance and Health
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elodea is a freshwater aquatic plant that is often used as aquarium vegetation. How would an Elodea plant be affected by immersion in a saltwater aquarium?
A) The cells of the plant would burst as water from the aquarium moved into the plant.
B) The cells of the plant would shrink as water from the plant moved into the aquarium.
C) The solution inside each cell would get salty as the saltwater moved into the plant.
D) The saltwater would not affect the plant in any way.
Answer: B
Q2) Which substance requires sunlight for its synthesis?
A) cholesterol
B) vitamin D
C) vitamin K
D) amino acids
Answer: B
Q3) Inside a eukaryotic cell, what is the watery matrix where the organelles are found?
Answer: cytosol
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Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the human body, which substrate would protease act upon?
A) protein
B) lipids
C) lactose
D) sucrose
Q2) What does recent research suggest about the relationships between weight and health risks?
A) People of normal weights have the lowest health risks.
B) People who are moderately obese have the highest health risks.
C) People who are slightly overweight have the lowest health risks.
D) People who are underweight have the highest health risks.
Q3) What actually happens when pyruvic acid loses a carbon dioxide molecule after glycolysis?
A) The pyruvic acid is denatured.
B) The pyruvic acid is phosphorylated.
C) The pyruvic acid is decarboxylated.
D) The pyruvic acid is oxidated.
Q4) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23?
Page 6
Q5) What 3-carbon molecules are produced when a 6-carbon glucose is broken down during glycolysis? (two words)
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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change
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70 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which process does water vapor exit plant stomata?
A) condensation
B) combustion
C) evaporation
D) transpiration
Q2) What energy molecule is produced during the light reactions and helps to power the Calvin cycle?
A) ATP
B) glucose
C) sucrose
D) NADP
Q3) What is the abbreviated name of the enzyme ribulose biphosphate carboxylase oxygenase that catalyzes the reaction between carbon dioxide and ribulose bisphosphate?
Q4) What unconsumed macromolecule from dead organisms eventually formed fossil fuels?
Q5) What cells regulate gas exchange by opening and closing the stomata?
Q6) What does the glucose molecule supply to cells?
Q7) Inside which specialized organelle does photosynthesis occur?
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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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58 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tetraploid organisms have four copies of each chromosome instead of the two copies that humans have. How many copies of each chromosome end up in a gamete produced by a tetraploid organism?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) Which phase occurs during mitosis?
A) first gap phase
B) metaphase
C) second gap phase
D) S phase
Q3) What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor?
A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) metastatic
Q4) What are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction?
Q5) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome? (two words)
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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71 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which description applies to typical quantitative traits?
A) Such traits are easy to follow using Punnett squares.
B) Such traits are not affected by the environment.
C) Such traits are usually influenced by only one gene.
D) Such traits show continuous variation.
Q2) If you're interested in studying one gene within a human, and each gene has two alleles, then how many boxes would be used in the Punnett square to predict the inheritance of the alleles?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
Q3) Which structure would be expected in normal eye cells but not in normal heart cells?
A) the protein rhodopsin
B) light-detecting mitochondria
C) the protein troponin
D) genes for the production of rhodopsin
Q4) What term refers to the genetic makeup of an organism?
Q5) What type of genetic cross involves two traits?
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
Dna Profiling
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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait in humans. If phenotypically normal parents have children without hemophilia, what information could be determined by a pedigree analysis?
A) Neither parent carries the hemophiliac allele.
B) None of their children is a carrier of the hemophilia allele.
C) None of their children could have hemophiliac children.
D) The exact genotypes of the parents or children
Q2) What are the chances that a hemophiliac male and an unaffected female could have a baby that is a hemophiliac male?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q3) What pattern of inheritance results in Type AB blood?
A) polygenic inheritance
B) simple dominance
C) codominance
D) sex-linked recessive inheritance
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation,
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66 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a DNA sequence of a gene reads, in part, TAACAGGTCA, what is the sequence of the complementary strand of DNA?
A) ATTGTCCAGT
B) AUUGUCCAGU
C) UUACAGGUCC
D) CTTGTGGACC
Q2) Which molecule is not directly involved in the process of translation?
A) ribosome
B) tRNA
C) mRNA
D) DNA
Q3) Which structure could be incorporated into a protein?
A) alanine
B) ribonucleic acid
C) thymine
D) uracil
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a biologist is looking for a suitable organism in which she can study the process of evolution in a laboratory setting, what would be an important consideration?
A) The organism should be large.
B) The organism should have a short generation time.
C) The organism should produce relatively few offspring.
D) The organism should have a complete fossil record of its ancestry.
Q2) You discover a primate fossil while on an expedition in Africa. Which part of the skeleton should be examined to classify this fossil as a human or a nonhuman primate?
A) the hand bones
B) the base of the skull
C) the ribs
D) the backbone (vertebrae)
Q3) Which observation was most influential to Charles Darwin?
A) the wide variety of living things in South America
B) the difference between organisms of South America and organisms of Europe
C) the similarity between organisms of South America and organisms of Europe
D) the slight differences between organisms on nearby islands
Q4) What is the main mechanism that results in evolution?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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70 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process could result from the natural selection explained by Darwin in his book The Origin of Species?
Q2) If you wanted to see natural selection working in a population of mosquitoes in response to pesticide, how much pesticide should you use?
A) enough to kill most but not all the mosquitoes
B) enough to kill all the mosquitoes
C) just enough so that the mosquitoes will be exposed but not enough to kill any of them
D) enough to kill the weakest 1% of the mosquitoes
Q3) You notice that some squirrels in your neighborhood have a much darker coat color than most of the other squirrels. Is this darker color an adaptation?
A) Yes, all variations are adaptations.
B) No, adaptations are traits developed when they're needed to help an organism survive.
C) You can't know unless you can know the coat color of the dark squirrel's parents.
D) The trait is only an adaptation if it gives the squirrels an advantage in their habitat.
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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races
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Sample Questions
Q1) You read that two populations of hyena are different subspecies. How would these populations compare?
A) They could produce fertile offspring together.
B) One group would be much larger than the other group.
C) Their mating behavior would be quite different.
D) They would have different diets.
Q2) Which situation occurs after the creation of a new allele?
A) The gene pool becomes more diverse.
B) The gene pool becomes less diverse.
C) The gene pool fragments into smaller groups.
D) Reproductive isolation always occurs in the group where the mutation occurred.
Q3) True or false: When a founder population has a small gene pool, evolutionary change is more likely to be rapid than if the founder population has a large gene pool. A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of reproductive isolation would include closely related species of orchids that never mate in the wild because they bloom at different times?
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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification
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61 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What significant event occurred during the Cambrian explosion in Earth's history?
A) life first appeared
B) eukaryotes first appeared
C) plants first appeared
D) multicellular animals first appeared
Q2) Algae are classified as part of which group?
A) Plantae
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Archaea
Q3) DNA is found in every cell of an organism. What subset of DNA changes would be most useful to molecular biologists to determine evolutionary relationships?
A) DNA changes that occur in genes specific to organisms in one kingdom
B) DNA changes in genes that are shared by a common ancestor
C) DNA changes in genes that occur in body cells and cannot be passed to offspring
D) DNA changes in genes that do not generally code for any function
Q4) What process is performed by both algae and plants?
Q5) What was the first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population
Ecology
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do growth rates appear to be declining in many human populations?
A) Families are choosing to have fewer children.
B) Death rates are increasing due to disease epidemics and famines.
C) Birth rates are decreasing due to famine.
D) The carrying capacity has been reached.
Q2) True or false: Nearly all developed countries in the world are beginning a demographic transition in the twenty-first century.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which activity would be an example of an ecological study?
A) measuring monthly ocean temperature changes
B) developing a medication to treat kidney failure in cats
C) comparing the effects of varying water temperature on fish egg development
D) calculating the age of a giant redwood tree by counting its annual rings
Q4) True or false: Global human population growth rates have declined since the 1960s by about 1%.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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72 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process recycles molecules from inorganic areas to living parts of an ecosystem?
A) commensalism
B) introducing new species
C) nutrient cycling
D) competitive exclusion
Q2) Which of the following would be most threatened by habitat fragmentation?
A) songbirds
B) lizards
C) mountain lions
D) antelopes
Q3) Which factor presents the greatest threat to biodiversity?
A) habitat loss or degradation
B) introduction of nonnative species
C) overharvesting
D) pollution
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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Northern Hemisphere, in what direction does the apparent position of the sun on the horizon at sunrise move as summer turns to winter?
A) north to south
B) south to north
C) east to west
D) west to east
Q2) By definition, how much salt does fresh water contain?
A) less than 0.0001%
B) less than 0.1%
C) about 1%
D) absolutely none
Q3) What can result from burning fossil fuels?
A) a decrease in ground-level ozone levels
B) a decrease in carbon dioxide levels
C) an increase in mercury levels
D) a decrease in acid rain
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the cells that make up the liver?
A) fibroblasts
B) osteocytes
C) chondrocytes
D) hepatocytes
Q2) What are the cells that make up loose connective tissue?
A) fibroblasts
B) osteocytes
C) chondrocytes
D) hepatocytes
Q3) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
Q4) Which tissue type in the human body is exposed directly to the bloodstream?
A) muscle
B) connective
C) epithelial
D) nervous
Q5) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q6) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?
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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which process is the majority of water that's filtered reabsorbed in the nephrons during urine formation?
A) active transport
B) exocytosis
C) osmosis
D) pinocytosis
Q2) What does the liver filter from the blood?
A) toxins
B) chyme
C) hepatocytes
D) glycogen
Q3) What activity of the liver makes it act as an accessory organ?
A) production of bile
B) synthesis of blood-clotting factors
C) destruction of old blood cells
D) detoxification
Q4) True or False: Drinking any amount of alcohol always has negative effects on the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: The majority of deaths due to smoking result from cardiovascular disease, not lung cancer or other lung diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some athletes use "blood doping," adding additional red blood cells to the blood, to achieve a competitive edge. What will the extra red blood cells do in the body?
A) make the heart beat faster
B) increase O delivery to muscles
C) decrease blood pressure
D) change the blood type
Q3) Which structures lining the tissue surface of the respiratory tract can be damaged by airborne particles?
A) cilia
B) alveoli
C) bronchi
D) capillaries
Q4) In the human cardiovascular system, what's the difference between the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit?
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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril
Immune System,
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method may effectively prevent the spread of botulism?
A) Do not eat food that has been sitting at room temperature for hours.
B) Avoid contact with infected individuals who are regularly sneezing.
C) Thoroughly boil or cook all food products.
D) Thoroughly wash hands before eating any food.
Q2) What cells directly terminate antigens?
A) suppressor T cells
B) helper T cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) cytotoxic B cells
Q3) An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. What will be the result of the continued application of this antibiotic?
A) Every time the antibiotic is given, it will kill 99.9% of the bacterial population.
B) Through time, the antibiotic will become less effective at killing the bacteria.
C) Eventually, the entire bacterial population will be wiped out.
D) The bacterial population will reach an equilibrium point at which the antibiotic is 50% effective.
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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure produces immune cells and is part of the lymphatic system?
Q2) True or false: Because women have a broader pelvis, their Q angle is smaller than the Q angle in men.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does a sarcomere shorten using the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction?
A) Actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide past each other.
B) As they slide past each other, actin filaments shorten, while myosin filaments do not shorten.
C) Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten, but they do slide past each other.
D) As they slide past each other, myosin filaments shorten, while actin filaments do not shorten.
Q4) True or false: Steroid-based hormones are able to move across cell membranes easily because they are water soluble.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which system is an internal system of regulation and communication involving hormones, glands, and target cells?
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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the menstrual cycle, what is the main source of progesterone in females?
A) placenta
B) pituitary gland
C) developing follicle
D) corpus luteum
Q2) True or false: All sexually transmitted diseases have symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A common practice during delivery of a baby is to induce labor by giving pregnant women what hormone?
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) oxytocin
D) prolactin
Q4) Which hormone is detected in a pregnancy test?
A) human chorionic gonadotropin hormone made by the early embryo
B) progesterone made by the corpus luteum
C) luteinizing hormone made by the pituitary
D) estrogen made by the ovary
Q5) What body system allows the survival of different species?
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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain
Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the brain is highly developed in animals that have finely tuned balance and complex coordination?
A) cerebellum
B) medulla
C) thalamus
D) temporal lobe
Q2) The expression "knee-jerk reaction" refers to someone doing something automatically without thinking. What does this expression mean in biological terms?
A) In the nervous system, this expression implies the involvement of higher brain regions before executing a spinal reflex.
B) In the nervous system, this expression implies the lack of brain input when executing a spinal reflex.
C) This expression implies that the knee-jerk reaction will be shortened in duration following input from higher brain regions.
D) This expression implies that only children exhibit this type of unthinking behavior.
Q3) What system is composed of the spinal cord and brain?
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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what structure is the sperm of a flowering plant contained?
A) stigma
B) carpel
C) pollen
D) spore
Q2) What process resulted in domesticated plants, which make up most of today's crops?
A) biomagnification
B) artificial selection
C) advantageous evolution
D) eutrophication
Q3) What is the loss of fertilizer and pesticides from soil by water moving through it?
A) the pesticide treadmill
B) biomagnification
C) soil erosion
D) runoff
Q4) What is the emergence of a plant embryo from a seed?
Q5) What is the concentration of persistent toxic chemicals at higher levels within a food chain or food web?
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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the tendency of a plant's uppermost bud to limit the growth of lower buds? (two words)
Q2) Whereas vessel elements produce ________ friction on the flow of water than tracheids, they result in ________.
A) more; a reduced risk of an embolism
B) less; a greater risk of an embolism
C) more; reduced rates of water loss from leaves during a drought
D) less; the prevention of water loss from leaves during a drought
Q3) Which plants live for many years and produce flowers every year?
Q4) Why DON'T water molecules located within a column of xylem sap move apart?
A) Cohesion holds the water molecules to each other; adhesion holds water molecules to the cellulose in plant cell walls.
B) Adhesion holds the water molecules to each other; tension holds water molecules to the cellulose in plant cell walls.
C) Tension holds the water molecules to each other; cohesion holds water molecules to the cellulose in plant cell walls.
D) Adhesion holds the water molecules to each other; cohesion holds water molecules to the cellulose in plant cell walls.
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