Biology for Science Majors Final
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Science Majors provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, emphasizing the molecular, cellular, and genetic basis of life. This course explores topics such as the structure and function of cells, energy transformation, genetics, evolution, and ecology, with a focus on scientific reasoning, experimentation, and analysis. Designed for students pursuing further studies in biological sciences or related fields, the course combines theoretical concepts with practical laboratory experiences to develop a thorough understanding of life processes and prepare students for advanced coursework in the discipline.
Recommended Textbook Beckers World of the Cell 8th Edition by Jeff Hardin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Preview of the Cell
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Q1) Melvin Calvin used ________,a specific ________,to deduce the Calvin-Benson cycle of photosynthesis.
Answer: ¹ C; radioisotope
Q2) The scientific work that established DNA,rather than protein,as the molecule of heredity is credited to
A)Monod and Jacob.
B)Watson and Crick.
C)Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty.
D)Beadle and Tatum.
E)Correns, von Tschermak, and de Vries.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is an important characteristic for a model organism?
A)marginally characterized
B)difficult to manipulate in the laboratory
C)prone to random changes that alter primary characteristics
D)widely studied
E)all of the above
Answer: D
Q4) The total protein content of the cell is called the ________.
Answer: proteome
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of the Cell
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Q1) Polymers are synthesized by ________ reactions and broken down into their constituent monomers by ________ reactions.
Answer: condensation; hydrolysis
Q2) Which of the following statements about the polymerization of macromolecules is false?
A)Often the energy needed for polymerization is supplied by ATP.
B)The polymer chain usually has two different ends.
C)Water is added to join the monomers of the macromolecules.
D)A monomer is usually activated by the coupling of the monomer to a carrier.
E)Macromolecules are synthesized by the stepwise addition of monomers. Answer: C
Q3) The cell membrane can be described most accurately as
A)permeable to all small molecules and ions but impermeable to larger ones.
B)permeable to only larger molecules.
C)permeable to some molecules and impermeable to others.
D)impermeable to all polar molecules.
E)permeable to all molecules.
Answer: C
Q4) ________ aid in the assembly of some biomolecules.
Answer: Molecular chaperones
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Chapter 3: The Macromolecules of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of DNA?
A)complementarity
B)composed of nucleotides
C)contains ribose
D)antiparallel strands
E)double-stranded
Answer: C
Q2) A ________,a ________,and a ________ are the major parts of a nucleotide,whereas a ________ and a ________ are the major parts of a nucleoside.
Answer: Phosphate group,sugar (ribose or deoxyribose),base (in any order); sugar,base (either order)
Q3) Which of the following is not a base used in DNA replication?
A)thymine
B)guanine
C)uracil
D)adenine
E)cytosine
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cells and Organelles
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Q1) Which of the following would be attributed to a peroxisomal dysfunction?
A)accumulation of N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase
B)accumulation of ganglioside GM
C)accumulation of very long chain fatty acids
D)accumulation of glucocerebroside
E)accumulation of complex sugars
Q2) The chromoplast is an organelle associated with A)oxidation of sugars.
B)synthesis of secretory proteins.
C)plant pigment storage.
D)ribosome production in primitive plants.
E)storage of chromium.
Q3) The pathway that a secretory protein takes from inside to outside is: rough endoplasmic reticulum,________,Golgi complex,________,outside the cell.
Q4) Which organelle has only a single membrane around it?
A)ribosome
B)nucleus
C)mitochondrion
D)chloroplast
E)peroxisome
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Chapter 5: Bioenergetics: the Flow of Energy in the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is defined as "heat content"?
A)energy output
B)heat loss
C)entropy
D)solar radiation
E)enthalpy
Q2) Which of the following is not a basic need of the cell?
A)molecular building blocks
B)100% efficiency
C)energy
D)information
E)chemical catalysts
Q3) Which of the following is a heterotroph?
A)grass
B)a tree
C)a mushroom
D)a geranium
E)a cyanobacterium
Q4) A ________ is the amount of energy required to warm 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius.
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Chapter 6: Enzymes: the Catalysts of Life
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Q1) Of the following,which is used to inhibit specific enzymes in the treatment of many bacterial and viral diseases?
A)substrate analogues
B)noncompetitive inhibitors
C)intercalating agents
D)nitrous oxide
E)X-rays
Q2) Covalent modification
A)can activate an enzyme.
B)affects the activity of an enzyme by adding or removing a chemical group.
C)can involve the addition of phosphate groups.
D)produces modifications that can sometimes be reversed.
E)all of the above
Q3) The ________ is the minimum energy required before two molecules can be successful in producing a reaction.
Q4) Nonprotein catalysts are known as ________.
Q5) ________ are a class of enzymes responsible for the movement of functional groups from one molecule to another.
Q6) ________ inhibitors bind reversibly at the active site of an enzyme.
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Chapter 7: Membranes: Their Structure, function, and Chemistry
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Q1) You are a microbiologist working with a recently isolated species of bacteria.You start a culture of the bacterium growing at 15°C.In order to study the membrane composition of this species,you then increase the growth temperature to 37°C.If this bacterium were "typical," what would you expect to see with regard to the fatty acid composition of the membrane?
Q2) Which of the following disorders is the result of impaired glycosphingolipid metabolism?
A)leprosy
B)glycosphingolipid anemia
C)polydactyly
D)tuberculosis
E)Tay-Sachs disease
Q3) The technique of transferring proteins from SDS-PAGE gels onto a membrane and using labeled antibodies to identify particular proteins is known as a(n)________.
Q4) ________ are small peptide molecules (10-50 amino acids in length)that affect membrane permeability.
Q5) Substances that can readily pass through the cell membrane are chemically ________ in nature.
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Chapter 8: Transport Across Membranes: Overcoming the
Permeability
Barrier
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Q1) In bacteria,the porins have the unique ability to transport
A)all hydrophilic molecules.
B)hydrophilic molecules of a particular size.
C)all hydrophobic molecules.
D)hydrophobic molecules of a particular size.
E)any molecule, regardless of properties or size.
Q2) A special class of ABC-type ATPases associated with tumors that allow movement of antibiotics and other drugs out of the cell are known as A)multidrug resistance transport protein.
B)import transporter proteins.
C)cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator.
D)human catalytic convertase.
E)none of the above; no such transporter has been identified in eukaryotes.
Q3) The type of transport ATPase that are reversibly phosphorylated as part of the transport mechanism are the ________ ATPases.
Q4) Design an experiment whereby you would be able to distinguish between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion of a substance.(Include graphs,if this aids in your discussion.)
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Q5) In the capillaries of the lungs,O diffuses ________ and is bound to ________.
Chapter 9: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
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Q1) The process of glucose synthesis is called A)glycolysis.
B)gluconeogenesis.
C)aglycolysis.
D)glucogenesis.
E)both choices B and C
Q2) When we eat dairy products,we need ________,the enzyme used to hydrolyze ________ into glucose and galactose.In the absence of this enzyme,we may experience cramps and diarrhea,a condition called ________.
Q3) Oxidation in biological systems is usually accompanied by A)repulsion.
B)hydrogenation.
C)dehydrogenation.
D)resonance stabilization.
E)all of the above
Q4) ________ is the direct transfer of a phosphate to ADP,forming ATP.
Q5) Glycolysis,also called the ________ pathway,is a ________-step reaction sequence that converts glucose into ________.
Q6) Compare and contrast ethanol and lactic acid fermentation pathways.
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Chapter 10: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Aerobic Respiration
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Q1) Respiration includes glycolysis,the ________,electron transport,and ________.
Q2) ________ (FAD)is a molecule similar to NAD in function,but it is a lower-energy coenzyme.
Q3) NAD contains the B vitamin ________ as part of its structure,whereas FAD contains another B vitamin,________,as part of its structure.
Q4) Which of the following would not be used as a final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration?
A)oxygen
B)sulfur
C)protons
D)iron
E)nitrogen
Q5) Of the following sequences,which shows the correct molecules through which electrons flow when delivered to the electron transport system by NADH?
A)complex I, cytochrome c, complex III, coenzyme Q, complex IV, oxygen
B)complex I, coenzyme Q, complex III, complex IV, oxygen
C)complex I, coenzyme Q, complex IV, cytochrome c, oxygen
D)complex I, coenzyme Q, complex III, cytochrome c, complex IV, oxygen
E)complex II, coenzyme Q, complex III, complex IV, oxygen
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Chapter 11: Phototrophic Energy Metabolism: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Photoheterotrophs are best described as organisms that obtain energy to make ATP
A)from organic compounds but use sunlight to produce carbon sources.
B)and organic compounds from sunlight.
C)from sunlight but cannot make organic compounds from CO .
D)from some forms of chemicals.
E)from organic compounds.
Q2) If you needed to design an herbicide that was effective against a variety of different plants,what would you propose as a method to target individually CAM plants,C plants,or a general herbicide?
Q3) ________ (PC)is a copper-containing protein that,like plastoquinol,is a mobile electron carrier.
Q4) The plants referred to as C and C plants get this designation based on the number of carbons in the first detectable product of carbon dioxide fixation.The C product is ________,whereas the C product is ________.
A)glycerol; malate
B)triose phosphate; oxaloacetate
C)3-phosphoglycerate; malate
D)ribose; phosphoenolpyruvate
E)3-phosphoglycerate; oxaloacetate
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Chapter 12: The Endomembrane System and Peroxisomes
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Q1) If you were looking within a cell for organized clathrin structures,you would find them associated with which of the following structures?
A)lysosomes
B)trans Golgi complex
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)inner membrane of mitochondria
E)extracellular matrix
Q2) You want to engineer a yeast cell to manufacture and secrete a bacterial protein product.To do this properly,you need to make certain that A)the appropriate signal sequence is present.
B)plenty of clathrin-coated pits may be formed.
C)mannose-6-phosphate is added to the protein.
D)the yeast cell is capable of phagocytosis.
E)all of the above
Q3) A ________ is the organelle that fuses with endosomes and supplies hydrolytic enzymes necessary for the digestion of the materials within the endosome.
Q4) ________ are proteins associated with clathrin-coated vesicles that are involved in the binding of vesicles to specific receptors.
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Chapter 13: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Ielectrical and Synaptic Signaling in Neurons
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Q1) An ________ of a nerve cell is the temporary depolarization and repolarization of the cell membrane.
Q2) An action potential can always be initiated specifically at which of the following locations associated with a neuron?
A)ion channels
B)synaptic boutons
C)nodes of Ranvier
D)both choices A and B
E)none of the above
Q3) Exposure to sarin,a potent nerve gas,results in muscle paralysis.Therefore,sarin must interfere with which neurotransmitter?
A)serotonin
B)GABA
C)dopamine
D)enkephalins
E)glutamate
Q4) The ________ equation accounts for the movement of a single ion type,while the ________ equation takes into account the movement of multiple ions on membrane potential.
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Iimessengers and Receptors
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Q1) The key mediators of apoptosis are the ________.
Q2) The -subunit of a heterotrimeric G protein is active when bound to ________.
Q3) If one homogenizes liver cells,separates the membranes from the cytoplasm,and then adds epinephrine to only the cytoplasmic portion,
A)cAMP will be produced.
B)G-proteins will be activated.
C)adenylyl cyclase will be activated.
D)calcium ions will be released.
E)none of the above
Q4) Which of the following is not a receptor tyrosine kinase?
A)EGF
B)PDGF
C)TGF
D)FGF
Q5) Which of the following is not a plant hormone?
A)brassinosteroids
B)ethylene
C)abscisic acid
D)auxin
E)allomone
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Chapter 15: Cytoskeletal Systems
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Q1) ________ causes microtubules to form tight bundles in nerve cells.
A)Dynein
B)Actin
C)Tau
D)Kinesis
E)Tubulin
Q2) Elongation of the microtubule occurs by the
A)addition of tubulin subunits to each end.
B)addition of tubulin subunits to the (+)end.
C)addition of the tubulin subunits to the (+)end but removal from the (-)end.
D)addition of G-actin subunits to the (+)end.
E)deletion of G-actin subunits from the (+)end.
Q3) Critical concentration is
A)the concentration of tubulin dimers at which assembly is balanced with disassembly.
B)the concentration of tubulin dimers at which assembly occurs primarily.
C)the concentration of G-actin in most muscle cells.
D)required before nucleation can occur.
E)both choices A and D
Q4) Cytochalasins prevent addition of monomers to pre-existing ________.
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Chapter 16: Cellular Movement: Motility and Contractility
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Q1) To carry out their function,kinesin family proteins must attach to their respective A)dynein.
B)cargo.
C)adaptor proteins.
D)only choices B and C
E)choices A, B, and C
Q2) Which of the following is associated with retrograde movement?
A)dynein
B)actin
C)tubulin
D)myosin
E)kinesin
Q3) ________ links the thick filaments to the Z line.
A)Troponin
B)Tropomyosin
C)Titin
D)Nebulin
E)Myosin
Q4) Cilia and flagella are comprised of a(n)________ connected to a(n)________.
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Chapter 17: Beyond the Cell: Cell Adhesions, cell Junctions, and Extracellular Structures
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Q1) The plant cell wall network is comprised of all of the following except A)hyaluronate.
B)cellulose.
C)extensin.
D)hemicellulose.
E)pectin.
Q2) A type of adhesive junction that is associated with the connection between an epithelial cell and the basal lamella is the A)hemidesmosome.
B)desmosome.
C)gap junction.
D)plasmodesmata.
E)focal contact.
Q3) The primary polysaccharides associated with the plant cell wall are the A)hemicelluloses.
B)extensins.
C)fibronectins.
D)pectins.
E)both choices A and D
Q4) One of the most important roles of proteoglycans is to trap ________.
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Chapter 18: The Structural Basis of Cellular Information:
DNA, chromosomes, and the Nucleus
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Q1) Which of the following shows Chargaff's equivalence?
A)mRNA
B)single-stranded DNA
C)tRNA
D)synthetic DNA (one strand all A, the other all T)
E)all of the above
Q2) You isolate a new bacterium from soil with a revolutionary new growth technique.You are interested in characterizing the genome of this organism using restriction enzymes.The first enzyme chosen should be one that will cut the genome infrequently,allowing you to do more detailed fine mapping at a later date.Of the following choices,the best enzyme to choose for your task would be (NOTE: P = a purine base; Y = a pyrimidine base)
A)HpaI (CCGG).
B)TaqI (TCGA).
C)EcoRI (GAATTC).
D)HindII (GTYPAC).
E)NotI (GCGGCCGC).
Q3) ________ are the entire set of RNAs that can be produced by a genome.
Q4) Because of its antiparallel nature,DNA is often referred to as a ________.
Q5) The ________ is the entire set of proteins expressed by a genome.
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Chapter 19: The Cell Cycle, DNA Replication, and Mitosis
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Q1) All of the following participate in apoptosis except A)caspases.
B)death-promoting proteins.
C)mitochondria.
D)Bcl-2.
E)calcium ions.
Q2) Starting with a cell (2n = 4),illustrate the phases of mitosis with emphasis on the division of chromosomes.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding Fas-mediated programmed cell death is false?
A)Fas ligand binding with Fas receptor stimulates a specific G protein.
B)Fas ligand and receptor interaction results in the recruitment of adaptor proteins in the target cell.
C)Capases are activated in the process.
D)The caspase cascade results in the cleavage of the proteins within the target cell.
E)It ultimately results in death of the cell.
Q4) Why does DNA contain thymine over uracil? What effect would the presence of uracil in the DNA have on repair?
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Chapter 20: Sexual Reproduction, meiosis, and Genetic
Recombination
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Q1) You have recently purchased a black angus bull named Maxwell,an advertised "pure-breeding" champion,for which you pay $1,000,000.You mate Max with several cows that are verified pure breeding black angus cows.Several years later,you mate different pairs of Max's offspring (F × F )and find that,with certain pairings,approximately one fourth of the progeny are red (F ).If B = black and b = red,what were the genotypes of the original cross (Maxwell × cow)?
A)BB x BB
B)Bb x BB
C)Bb x Bb
D)BB x bb
E)bb x bb
Q2) In a dihybrid cross of individuals who are AaBb,what proportion of the F offspring are expected to have the genotype AABB?
A)9/16
B)1/16
C)1/2
D)3/16
E)6/16
Q3) ________ chromosomes pair during ________ of meiosis.
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Chapter 21: Gene Expression: Ithe Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) The coding regions of a gene are known as ________.
Q2) ________ are nonviral genetic elements that have reverse transcriptase activity.
Q3) ________-driven promoters are comprised of an Inr sequence and a TATA box with or without an associated BRE.
Q4) A change in a single nucleotide that results in no change in the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide produced is known as a A)nonsense mutation.
B)silent mutation.
C)missense mutation.
D)frameshift mutation.
E)none of the above
Q5) An agent that would work well as an antibiotic against prokaryotic infection would target the
A)50S large ribosomal subunit.
B)RNA polymerase II.
C)40S small ribosomal subunit.
D)DNA polymerase.
E)mitochondria.
Q6) ________-driven promoters do not contain TATA boxes or BREs.
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Chapter 22: Gene Expression: Iiprotein Synthesis and Sorting
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Q1) Discuss some of the possible ways in which nonsense mutations can potentially be suppressed in a cell.
Q2) ________ is a rare,intramolecular posttranslational process that allows for self-catalytic removal of specific amino acid sequences.
Q3) In the following gene sequence,the original sequence is ABC* DEFGH. It now reads ABC* DGFEH.The * indicates the centromere. This type of mutation is a(n)
A)nonsense mutation.
B)inversion.
C)translocation.
D)duplication.
E)point mutation.
Q4) Of the following codons,which encodes a normal translational stop?
A)UUU
B)AUG
C)UAG
D)AAA
E)AGG
Q5) The newly arriving tRNA binds in the region of the ribosome known as the ________ site.
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Chapter 23: The Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following does not apply to eukaryotic gene regulation?
A)gene regulation by attenuation
B)regulation as a result of compartmentalization
C)mRNA degradation (turnover)
D)protein degradation (turnover)
E)protein folding
Q2) Which of the following processes is associated with the altering of histone proteins in vivo?
A)acetylation
B)alkylation
C)methylation
D)transhydroxylation
E)both choices A and C
Q3) DNA rearrangements in vertebrates occur in the
A)glycolysis genes.
B)cell surface protein genes.
C)viral protein genes.
D)antibody genes.
E)none of the above
Q4) Multiple operons may be controlled by ________ or ________.
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Chapter 24: Cancer Cells
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Q1) The first documentation of a viral infection causing oncogenesis was established with
A)Rous sarcoma virus in chickens.
B)Epstein-Barr virus in Burkitt's lymphoma.
C)hepatitis B in liver cancer.
D)HIV in humans.
E)human papilloma virus in cervical cancer.
Q2) With regard to cancer cells in the process of metastasis to secondary sites,which of the following statements is not correct?
A)If they enter via lymphatics, cancer cells may multiply in regional lymph nodes.
B)Many cells from the primary mass may enter circulation.
C)The population of cancer cells in the bloodstream is monoclonal.
D)Very few cancer cells survive the bloodstream.
E)The population of cancer cells is heterogeneous.
Q3) The enzyme ________ breaks down the extracellular matrix to facilitate angiogenesis.
Q4) ________ and ________ have been demonstrated to trigger DNA mutation associated with particular geographical cancers.
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