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Biology with Physiology is an interdisciplinary course designed to provide a comprehensive understanding of living organisms with a particular focus on physiological processes. Students explore the fundamental principles of biology, including cell structure, genetics, evolution, and ecology, while delving deeply into how organisms function at molecular, cellular, organ, and systemic levels. Key topics cover homeostasis, neural and hormonal regulation, respiration, circulation, digestion, and excretion. Through laboratory work, lectures, and collaborative projects, the course equips students with the analytical skills and scientific knowledge needed for advanced study or careers in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Q1) Sampling error can be minimized by one or more of the following.
A) using a large sample.
B) conducting the experiment or observation only once.
C) throwing out data that does not fit the conclusion.
D) using a small subset of a larger population.
E) more than one of these can minimize sampling error.
Answer: A
Q2) A set of people got regular potato chips.
78. 1,100 people between the ages of thirteen and thirty-eight were asked to watch a movie and eat potato chips.
A)Observation
B)Hypothesis
C)Prediction
D)Experiment
E)Control group
F)Experimental group
G)The variable
H)Assess results
I)Conclusion
Answer: E
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Q1) substance that releases hydrogen ions in solution
A)Acid
B)Base
C)Neutral
D)Buffer
E)pH
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about trans fats?
A) Trans fats decrease the level of cholesterol in the blood.
B) Trans fats increase the risks of atherosclerosis.
C) Trans fats increase the risks of diabetes.
D) Trans fats increase the risks of heart attack.
E) Trans fats alter the function of arteries and veins.
Answer: A
Q3) the bond that holds organic molecules together
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)covalent

Answer: C
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Q1) The cellular digestion and disposal of biological molecules occur inside this organelle.
A)nucleus
B)mitochondrion
C)lysosome
D)Golgi body
E)rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C
Q2) assembles amino acid into polypeptide chains
A)peroxisomes
B)chloroplasts
C)Golgi bodies
D)DNA molecules
E)RNA molecules
F)central vacuoles
G)lysosomes
H)mitochondria
I)nucleoli
J)ribosomes
Answer: J
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Q1) Which of the following is most toxic?
A) alcohol dehydrogenase
B) ethanol
C) acetaldehyde
D) acetate
E) carbon dioxide
Q2) The amount of turgor that is enough to stop osmosis is called
A) the wilting point.
B) osmotic pressure.
C) hypotonicity.
D) expansion pressure.
E) hypertonicity.
Q3) A red blood cell may burst when placed in which of the following kinds of solutions?
A) hypertonic
B) hypotonic
C) isotonic
D) any of these
E) none of these
Q4) part of the enzyme that is specific for the reaction it will catalyze
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Q1) This process is catalyzed by an enzyme called rubisco.
Q2) The energy that drives the light-independent reactions comes from
A) sunlight.
B) glucose.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) ATP and NADPH.
E) water and oxygen.
Q3) Ultimately,for aerobic organisms,where does the energy in ATP come from?
A) glucose
B) pyruvate
C) water
D) NADPH
E) sunlight
Q4) During electron transport phosphorylation,which ions accumulate in the outer compartment of the mitochondria?
A) calcium
B) hydrogen
C) oxygen
D) phosphorus
E) sodium
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Q1) In DNA replication,a primer is
A) what the original DNA strands are called.
B) an enzyme that breaks the hydrogen bonds between base pairs.
C) a short piece of nucleic acid that 'jump starts' the replication process.
D) a molecule that provides the energy for nucleotide attachments.
E) a regulatory protein that turns on the gene that starts DNA replication.
Q2) The connection point of two sister chromatids is called the A) chromatid.
B) chromatin.
C) centriole.
D) centrosome.
E) centromere.
Q3) this mutagen has wavelengths of less than 320 nanometers
Q4) this mutagen breaks DNA into pieces
Q5) discovered that the sequence of DNA differs in different organisms
Q6) used X-ray diffraction technology to elucidate the structure of DNA
Q7) Two hydrogen bonds connect adenine to _____ in the DNA molecule.
Q8) this mutagen causes kinks in the DNA molecule
Q10) breakdown products of this mutagen binds irreversibly to DNA Page 8
Q9) This nucleotide is not incorporated into the structure of the DNA helix.
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Q1) Once the amino acid on the second tRNA bonds with the amino acid of the first tRNA,what happens to that first tRNA?
A) it remains attached to the rRNA.
B) it moves into the nucleus to get more instructions from mRNA.
C) it breaks down into its component nucleotides.
D) it leaves the ribosome and may pick up another amino acid.
E) it transforms into a mRNA.
Q2) Insertion mutations are often caused by A) base-pair substitutions.
B) frameshift mutations.
C) transposable elements.
D) gene duplications.
E) deletions.
Q3) Beta thalassemia is caused by a A) deletion.
B) insertion.
C) base-pair substitution.
D) frameshift mutation.
E) more than one of these.
Q4) site at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription
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Q1) Which of the following energy source fuels cell division in animal cells?
A) thymine nucleotides
B) ATP
C) kinetic energy of Golgi body movement
D) glycerol
E) fat deposits
Q2) Abnormal cell division that does not pose a threat to surrounding tissues are termed
A) malignant.
B) benign.
C) metastatic.
D) carcinogenic.
E) repressed.
Q3) The cell in micrograph "I" is at which stage of the cell cycle?
A) prophase
B) telophase
C) interphase
D) anaphase
E) metaphase
Q4) period prior to mitosis
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Q1) A couple have a child with Tay-Sachs disease.What is (are)their genotype(s)?
A) both are heterozygous
B) one is homozgous dominant and the other is homozgous recessive
C) both are homozygous dominant
D) both are homozygous recessive
E) more than one of these is possible
Q2) Gene A occurs on chromosome #5; gene B occurs on chromosome #21.Therefore,these two portions of the chromosome CANNOT be
A) homologous.
B) in the same individual.
C) homozygous.
D) alleles.
E) recessive.
Q3) In a pedigree chart,a male who does NOT demonstrate the trait being studied is represented by A) a darkened square.
B) a darkened diamond.
C) a clear circle.
D) a clear square.
E) a darkened circle.
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Q1) What technology using bacteria is used to genetically engineer plants?
A) plasmid vectoring
B) DNA profiling
C) whole genome sequencing
D) SNPing
E) PCR
Q2) DNA fragment that contains the DNA of more than one species
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of GMO crops?
A) there have been no problems with genes escaping from GMO plants
B) some GMO crops allow farmers to use fewer pesticides
C) some GMO crops have fewer weeds
D) some GMO crops are more nutritious
E) all of these are true of GMO crops- none of these is NOT true
Q4) What percent of a person's 3 billion nucleotides is unique to that person?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 25
E) 50
Q5) making changes in an individual's genome
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Q1) Similar body parts that reflect shared ancestry are known as
A) analogous structures.
B) homologous structures.
C) vestigial structures.
D) homozygous structures.
E) morphological structures.
Q2) On his voyage around the world,which of the following scientists gave Darwin an insight into what would become his theory of evolution?
A) Lyell
B) Cuvier
C) Aristotle
D) Paley
E) Lamarck
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE about asteroids?
A) they can be as large as 1,500 meters in diameter
B) in our solar system, most are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
C) many cross the Earth's orbit
D) one of them impacted Earth as early as 50,000 years ago
E) all of these are true
Q4) Gradual geological changes have shaped the Earth.
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Q1) A change in chromosome number during fertilization can lead to A) sympatric speciation.
B) disruptive selection.
C) directional selection.
D) hybrid sterility.
E) allopatric speciation.
Q2) homozygous dominant black mice are camouflaged by dark rocks and homozygous recessive light-colored mice are camouflaged by light colored rocks.Heterozygous grey mice have no camouflage and are easily picked off and eaten by hawks.
Q3) When individuals choose mates are a particular trait they desire it is called
A) stabilizing selection.
B) sexual selection.
C) artificial selection.
D) Red Queen selection.
E) disruptive selection.
Q4) an example of this is the evolutionary history of the coelacanth
Q5) diagram that shows a network of evolutionary relationships
Q6) two species of hawk are able to mate successfully,but one hunts in the morning and the other hunts at night.Mating between the two species does not occur
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Q1) A protist cell may contain
A) a nucleus.
B) a cytoskeleton.
C) more than one chromosome.
D) Golgi bodies.
E) all of these.
Q2) Red algae
A) are primarily marine organisms.
B) are thought to have developed from green algae.
C) contain xanthophylls as their main accessory pigments.
D) are actually brown.
E) are all of these.
Q3) Organelles like the endoplasmic reticulum most likely arose by a process most closely related to A) endosymbiosis.
B) endocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) cell fractionation.
E) binary fission.
Q4) most likely the first eukaryotes
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Q1) The domination of the flowering plants over the past 100 million years appear to be their coevolution with
A) dinosaurs.
B) gymnosperms.
C) insects.
D) mammals.
E) humans.
Q2) In all multi-celled fungi,reproduction begins with
A) fusion of male and female gametes.
B) budding from diploid fruiting structures.
C) hyphal fragmentation.
D) fusion of gametophytes.
E) fusion of haploid hyphae.
Q3) The oldest known living ancestor of all fungi is a(an)
A) lichen.
B) yeast.
C) chytrid.
D) amoeba.
E) cyanobacterium.
Q4) sporophyte is the dominant part of the life cycle
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Q1) The notochord is most closely associated with the A) nervous system.
B) digestive system.
C) skeletal system.
D) urinary system.
E) reproductive system.
Q2) Nematocysts are
A) reproductive cells.
B) excretory organs.
C) sets of muscle cells.
D) circulatory cells.
E) defensive cells.
Q3) Which of the following physical features make it possible for amniotes to be completely terrestrial?
A) their skin
B) their lungs
C) their eggs
D) their four limbs
E) their brains
Q4) Members of this class have flexible skeletons but also possess jaws.
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Q1) The highest number of individuals in the United States are in the ___ age structure category.
A) pre-reproductive
B) early reproductive
C) late reproductive
D) early post-reproductive
E) late post-reproductive
Q2) Density-independent controls over population growth include
A) parasites.
B) temperature.
C) disease.
D) competition.
E) all of these.
Q3) Increasingly population density will most likely lead to which type of distribution pattern?
A) clumped
B) random
C) uniform
D) uniform and clumped
E) random and clumped
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Q1) Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A) methane
B) nitrogen gas
C) carbon dioxide
D) nitrous oxide
E) chlorofluorocarbon
Q2) In most land ecosystems,___ food chains are most common.
A) decomposer
B) detrital
C) producer
D) consumer
E) more than one of these
Q3) A sheep eating by pulling the plant out of the ground is an example of A) parasitism.
B) predation.
C) commensalism.
D) mutualism.
E) competitive exclusion.
Q4) A wolf and a fox live in the same community.The primary prey for both of them are rabbits.
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Q1) trees shed their leaves and become dormant in winter
Q2) What is the main factor that drives ozone formation?
A) cloud cover
B) rainfall
C) time of day
D) sunlight
E) season
Q3) By the time air currents have reached 30? north and south latitude it has become __________ and __________.
Q4) Nonrenewable mineral resources are used in which of the following electronic devices?
A) phones
B) computers
C) televisions
D) MP3 players
E) nonrenewable mineral resources are used in all of these electronic devices
Q5) most extensive biome
Q6) In the U.S.,__________ is the main reason why more than 700 species are listed as threatened and endangered.
Q7) found on the ocean floor
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Q1) tendon
Q2) Defends against infection and tissue damage
Q3) A type of tissue has tight junctions,a basement membrane,no blood supply,and is one layer thick.This tissue type is
A) stratified epithelium.
B) simple epithelium.
C) connective.
D) muscle.
E) nervous.
Q4) tendons and ligaments
Q5) What type of gland releases its product onto an internal or external surface?
A) endocrine
B) muscular
C) neural
D) exocrine
E) connective
Q6) the outermost layer of skin
Q7) tissue that forms a padding between joints
Q9) deepest layer of skin Page 22
Q8) connective tissue that is involved in transport of nutrients
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Q1) Bones are wrapped in ____ tissue(s).
A) adipose
B) dense connective
C) epithelial
D) loose connective
E) all of these
Q2) In a muscle contraction,what specifically is the role of calcium?
A) it causes the hydrolysis of ATP
B) it connects actin with myosin to form a cross-bridge
C) it causes the uncovering of the myosin binding site on actin
D) it catalyzes the formation of ATP from ADP and Pi
E) it causes the release of Pi from the myosin head
Q3) type of bony internal skeleton
Q4) What is a disadvantage to having an exoskeleton?
A) muscles do not work effectively
B) the body tissues are unprotected by it
C) it does not grow with the animal
D) it prevents the possibility of flying
E) more than one of these is a disadvantage to an exoskeleton
Q5) outer bony layer of long bones
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Q1) If your blood pressure is 140/90,it means
A) the pressure of the relaxed ventricles is 140 and the pressure of the contracted ventricles is 90
B) the pressure in the contracted atria is 140 and the pressure in the contracted ventricles is 90
C) the pressure in the right side of the heart is 140 and the pressure in the left side of the heart is 90
D) the pressure in the right ventricle is 140 and the pressure in the left ventricle is 90
E) the pressure of the contracted ventricles is 140 and the pressure in the relaxed ventricles is 90
Q2) During the cardiac cycle,which of the following is the correct order of events?
A) atria contract, atria and ventricles relax, ventricles contract
B) ventricles contract, atria contract, atria and ventricles relax
C) atria and ventricles relax, atria contract, ventricles contract
D) ventricles contract, atria and ventricles relax, atria contract
E) none of these
Q3) structure not found in the human respiratory system
Q4) the windpipe
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Q1) PAMPs,complement proteins,and phagocytes are a part of ___ immunity.
A) adaptive
B) innate
C) antibody-mediated
D) cell-mediated
E) all of these kinds of
Q2) Which of the following do NOT kill microorganisms that get swallowed?
A) stomach acidity
B) protein-digesting enzymes
C) bile salts
D) PAMPs
E) all of these do kill microorganisms that get swallowed
Q3) This bacterium is the leading cause of human bacterial disease and some strains are resistant to a wide range of antibiotics.This bacterium is
A) Clostridium tetani
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Escherichia coli
D) Staphlococcus epidermidis
E) Staphlococcus aureus
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Q1) coenzyme action in carbohydrate and amino acid metabolism
Q2) Biological digestion is defined as
A) taking food into a digestive chamber.
B) breaking food down into smaller pieces that can be absorbed into cells.
C) moving nutrient molecules into the internal environment.
D) expelling indigestible materials.
E) all of these.
Q3) The stomach
A) is a non-elastic sac.
B) secretes enzymes that begin to break down fats.
C) secretes enzymes that begin to break down proteins.
D) is surrounded by three layers of skeletal muscle.
E) fits all of these descriptions.
Q4) In vertebrates,the main function of the urinary system is to
A) rid the body of excess water.
B) rid the body of unwanted solutes.
C) conserve excess water.
D) rid the body of excess water and unwanted solutes.
E) do none of these.
Q5) used in synthesis of visual pigments
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Q1) The only part of the nervous system under voluntary control is the ___ nervous system.
A) somatic
B) autonomic
C) central
D) sympathetic
E) parasympathetic
Q2) a shortage of this neurotransmitter causes Parkinson's disease
Q3) Referring to the above diagram of the brain,H identifies which region?
A) corpus callosum
B) hypothalamus
C) cerebrum
D) midbrain
E) medulla oblongata
Q4) nicotine blocks receptors for this neurotransmitter
Q5) blurry vision caused by a cloudy lens
Q6) this neurotransmitter speeds the heart rate,dilates pupils and airways,and increases anxiety
Q7) relays sensory signals to and from cerebral cortex
Q8) lightwaves focus behind the retina
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Q1) Thyroid hormone
A) increases the resting metabolic rate of cells throughout the body.
B) slows the heart rate and increases lipid metabolism.
C) inhibits protein synthesis.
D) increases glycolysis while decreasing oxidative phosphorylation.
E) stimulates the release of ADH from the hypothalamus.
Q2) pancreatic islets
Q3) Exposure to a light source
A) decreases melatonin levels.
B) increase melatonin levels.
C) decrease testosterone levels.
D) is used to treat SAD and jet lag.
E) does more than one of these.
Q4) Specialized islet cells that secrete hormones are found scattered throughout the A) adrenal cortex.
B) liver.
C) thymus.
D) adrenal medulla.
E) pancreas.
Q5) Cortisol steroids are produced at letter _____.
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Q1) The first day of the menstrual cycle is marked by A) the beginning of ovulation.
B) the onset of PMS.
C) the beginning of menstruation.
D) an increase in the thickness of the uterine lining.
E) the beginning of the luteal phase.
Q2) A sexually producing animal that can produce both eggs and sperm and can switch from one sex to another are called ___ hermaphrodites.
A) simultaneous
B) sequential C) parthogenic D) gastrulated
E) preferential
Q3) The structure that conducts sperm upwards during an ejaculation is represented by letter _______.
Q4) This is the fertilized egg.
Q5) a surge of this hormone encourages the primary oocyte to complete meiosis I
Q6) secreted by the anterior pituitary,this hormone stimulates an ovarian follicle to begin maturing
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Q1) Four of the five answers listed below are parts of a leaf.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) stoma
B) cuticle
C) mesophyll
D) pith
E) petiole
Q2) thickened portions of underground stolons
Q3) Four of the four answers listed below are types of complex plant tissue.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) sclerenchyma
B) phloem
C) xylem
D) epidermis
E) periderm
Q4) This tissue is used for storage.
Q5) companion cells
Q6) movement is through dead cells in this process
Q7) This tissue gives rise to the protective covering that forms the bark of a tree.
Q9) tracheids Page 31
Q8) thickened underground stem that stores nutrients; taro is an example
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Q1) stimulates cell expansion
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are non-reproductive parts of a flower.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) calyx
B) anther
C) corolla
D) petal
E) sepal
Q3) This seed structure's purpose is to nourish the young plant until its leaves can begin photosynthesis.
A) plumule
B) hypocotyl
C) radicle
D) cotyledon
E) coleoptile
Q4) endosperm
Q5) stigma
Q6) The seeds will form in the structure at letter _____.
Q7) sepal
Q8) ovary
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