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Biology with Physiology explores the fundamental principles of biology with a strong focus on how living organisms function at the molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels. Students will study core concepts in cell biology, genetics, and evolutionary biology alongside comprehensive investigations into physiological mechanisms that regulate processes such as respiration, circulation, digestion, and reproduction. This course emphasizes the integration of structure and function, highlighting how physiological systems maintain homeostasis and respond to environmental changes, and prepares students with a foundational understanding for further study in life sciences, medicine, or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Q1) The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ______.
A) archaea
B) nucleus
C) prokaryotic cell
D) insulin
Answer: B
Q2) Taxonomy is the ______.
A) study of cells
B) naming and classifying of species
C) study of organisms and their interaction with the environment
D) study of genes
Answer: B
Q3) Science is ______.
A) the inquiry-based effort to describe and explain nature
B) the search for truth
C) an organized set of principles for how to ethically and morally behave
D) all of the above
Answer: A
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Q1) When a base is added to a buffered solution,the buffer will ______.
A) donate OH<sup>-</sup> ions
B) accept water molecules
C) donate H<sup>+ </sup>ions
D) form covalent bonds with the base
Answer: C
Q2) All atoms of an element have the same number of ______.
A) protons plus neutrons
B) protons
C) electrons
D) neutrons
Answer: B
Q3) Adjacent water molecules are connected by the ______.
A) sharing of electrons between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule
B) electrical attraction between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule
C) sharing of electrons between adjacent oxygen molecules
D) electrical attraction between the hydrogens of adjacent water molecules
Answer: B
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Q1) Nucleic acids are polymers of ______ monomers.
A) monosaccharide
B) fatty acid
C) DNA
D) nucleotide
Answer: D
Q2) Which cookies are less healthy?
A) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more saturated fat.
B) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more total grams of protein and carbohydrates.
C) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more trans fat.
D) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more grams of carbohydrates.
Answer: C
Q3) How does RNA differ from DNA?
A) RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded.
B) RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
C) RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.
D) In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C.
Answer: C
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Q1) What type of microscope would be best for studying the detailed structure of the surface of a plasma membrane?
A) light microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) scanning electron microscope
D) both a light microscope and an electron microscope
Q2) Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) mitochondrion
C) ribosome
D) chloroplast
Q3) If a cell's lysosomes burst,the cell would ______.
A) shrivel
B) divide into two cells
C) digest itself
D) need to manufacture more lysosomes
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Q1) Which of the following is most like a signal transduction pathway in a cell?
A) a person answering the door to their home after someone rings the doorbell
B) a person parking a car in a parking space
C) catching fish using a fishing pole
D) a physician removing a thorn from a person's foot
Q2) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ______.
A) increasing the temperature of the substrates
B) contributing electrons to the reaction
C) decreasing activation energy
D) changing the pH of the substrates
Q3) If placed in tap water,an animal cell will undergo lysis,whereas a plant cell will not.What accounts for this difference?
A) expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole
B) the relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to water
C) the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water
D) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall
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Q1) Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH?
A) electron transport chain
B) citric acid cycle
C) glycolysis
D) Calvin cycle
Q2) Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?
A) glucose lactic acid + energy
B) energy + carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen + water
C) glucose + oxygen carbon dioxide + water + energy
D) none of the above
Q3) During cellular respiration,electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules.Which of the following is a true statement about this process?
A) The electrons gain energy as they move from one electron acceptor to another.
B) Oxygen is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.
C) The electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one electron acceptor to another.
D) Glucose is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.
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Q1) Which wavelength is best for your plants' growth?
A) 650 nm
B) 550 nm
C) 500 nm
D) 400 nm
Q2) In photosynthesis,redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.
A) O<sub>2</sub>... CO<sub>2</sub>
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>... O<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O... C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O... CO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______.
A) the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigment
B) the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object
C) the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object
D) the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight
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Q1) Cytokinesis typically begins during the ______ stage of mitosis.
A) telophase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
Q2) During telophase ______.
A) the events of prophase are reversed
B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C) sister chromatids separate
D) the nuclear envelope breaks up
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II?
A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell.
B) Spindle formation occurs.
C) Chromosomes have been duplicated.
D) Crossing over occurs.
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Q1) An individual with the blood group genotype L<sup>MLN</sup> has the phenotype
MN. What is the relationship between the L<sup>M</sup> and L<sup>N</sup> alleles?
A) codominance
B) pleiotropy
C) L<sup>N</sup> is dominant
D) incomplete dominance
Q2) According to Mendel's law of segregation,______.
A) two alleles segregate into each gamete
B) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele
C) gametes have one copy of each allele
D) gametes are diploid
Q3) What is the key to the recognition of codominance?
A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
C) The alleles affect more than one trait.
D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
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Q1) Peptide bonds form between ______.
A) amino acids
B) an mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon
C) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying
D) an mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit
Q2) Mad cow disease is caused by
A) a retrovirus similar to HIV.
B) an enveloped virus.
C) small circular RNA molecules called viroids.
D) infectious proteins called prions.
Q3) After replication,______.
A) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands
B) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand
C) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands
D) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix consists of two new strands
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Q1) Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.
A) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation
B) the production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans
C) restocking populations of endangered animals
D) all of the above.
Q2) What name is given to a gene that causes cancer?
A) pathogene
B) cancogene
C) homeotic gene
D) oncogene
Q3) Repressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator.
A) promoters
B) DNA polymerase
C) the operon
D) RNA polymerase
Q4) Which risk factors are associated with cancer of the colon and rectum?
A) tobacco
B) viruses
C) UV radiation
D) dietary fat
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Q1) STR analysis is a DNA profiling technique that makes use of the fact that different people have
A) different numbers of repeats of short DNA sequences at certain sites in the genome.
B) different alleles for many genes in the genome.
C) different restriction fragments
D) different CODIS DNA sequences
Q2) Restriction enzymes are obtained from ______.
A) archaea
B) eukaryotes
C) viruses
D) bacteria
Q3) The short tandem repeat analysis ______.
A) compares markers on the sex chromosomes
B) compares repetitive DNA sequences from different individuals
C) does not require DNA amplification
D) checks for purine and pyrimidine ratios
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Q1) Which one of the following can create new alleles?
A) natural selection
B) sexual reproduction
C) mutation
D) genetic drift
Q2) What does evolutionary fitness measure?
A) physical health
B) longevity
C) relative reproductive success
D) population size
Q3) Which of the following is an example of stabilizing selection?
A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.
B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.
D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
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Q1) Which of the following taxonomic levels is most inclusive?
A) order
B) genus
C) family
D) class
Q2) A period of mass extinction is often followed by ______.
A) explosive diversification
B) nonbranching evolution
C) global cooling
D) equilibrium
Q3) Some fish have bony fins.If the body of water they are in dries out,these fins can be used to help the fish "walk" to another body of water.In this context,bony fins are an example of ______.
A) an exaptation
B) neoteny
C) punctuated evolution
D) paedomorphosis
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Q1) Flagellates,amoebas,apicomplexans,and ciliates are all what type of protist?
A) slime molds
B) protozoans
C) dinoflagellates
D) seaweeds
Q2) What was the first stage of the process that led to the abiotic origin of life?
A) abiotic synthesis of monomers, such as amino acids and nucleotides
B) origin of self-replicating molecules
C) abiotic synthesis of polymers
D) abiotic formation of pre-cells
Q3) Which prokaryotic group is most closely related to eukaryotes?
A) Bacteria
B) Protista
C) Archaea
D) Bacteria and Archaea are equally closely related
Q4) Why do so many children in developing countries die of malaria?
A) The costs of treatment and prevention are too high.
B) They are more susceptible to the disease.
C) There is no cure for malaria.
D) Malaria is only found in developing countries today.
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Q1) ______,a chemical that hardens cell walls and supports terrestrial plants,is found in all plants except _______.
A) Lignin... bryophytes
B) Cellulose... bryophytes
C) Calcium carbonate... ferns
D) Lignin... ferns and bryophytes
Q2) Gametophytes are ______; sporophytes are ______.
A) male... female
B) an adaptation to an aquatic existence... an adaptation to a terrestrial existence
C) haploid... diploid
D) the dominant stage of the conifer life cycle... the less obvious stage of the conifer life cycle
Q3) The function of a mushroom is to _____.
A) produce seeds
B) store nutrients
C) produce spores
D) absorb food
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Q1) How do New World monkeys differ from Old World monkeys?
A) New World monkeys have a prehensile tail.
B) New World monkeys have enhanced depth perception.
C) Old World monkeys are arboreal.
D) New World monkeys have nails; Old World monkeys have claws.
Q2) The lancelet is a(n)_____.
A) annelid
B) flatworm
C) chordate
D) tunicate
Q3) Flatworms are similar to cnidarians in that both ______.
A) have pseudocoeloms
B) have true tissues
C) lack a gastrovascular cavity
D) exhibit bilateral symmetry
Q4) Nearly all ______ are aquatic.
A) crustaceans
B) arachnids
C) flatworms
D) roundworms

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Q1) What term applies to the physical and physiological changes experienced by astronauts who spend months in space?
A) acclimation
B) adaptation
C) cosmosation
D) accreditation
Q2) What name is given to the open ocean?
A) pelagic realm
B) intertidal zone
C) benthic realm
D) photic zone
Q3) At different times in their lives,salmon can be found in all of the following except ______.
A) a freshwater biome
B) a chaparral
C) the pelagic realm
D) an estuary
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Q1) Throughout most of human history,human population size _____.
A) was at carrying capacity
B) grew very slowly
C) showed boom and bust cycles
D) skyrocketed
Q2) What will be the approximate shape of the age-structure diagram of a rapidly increasing population?
A) a rectangle
B) a pyramid
C) an inverted pyramid
D) an hourglass
Q3) Which of these factors operates in a density-dependent manner?
A) blizzard
B) volcanic eruption
C) food supply
D) flood
Q4) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?
A) Population A
B) Population B
C) Population C

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Q1) As a result of a severe disturbance,a community will ______.
A) not be repopulated
B) be replaced by a community that is completely different from the previous community
C) not recover for thousands of years
D) undergo succession
Q2) Refer to the figure above. This photo represents ______ community(ies).
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) You cannot tell from the photo.
Q3) Populations of two coexisting species are both tertiary consumers in a community. What relationship may exist between these two organisms?
A) predation
B) mutualism
C) competition
D) commensalism
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Q1) Bone is a type of
A) connective tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) extracellular matrix
D) adipose tissue
Q2) Which is the most abundant kind of tissue in most animals?
A) connective
B) epithelial
C) blood
D) muscle
Q3) Excretion is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.
A) filtrate... blood
B) kidney... urinary bladder
C) blood... filtrate
D) kidneys... outside
Q4) Which one of the following types of tissue stores fat in the body?
A) cartilage
B) bone
C) adipose tissue
D) fibrous connective tissue
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms helps prevent gastric juice from digesting the stomach lining?
A) mucus coating the inside surface of the stomach
B) mitosis generating enough new cells to replace the stomach lining every few days
C) the continuous secretion of gastric juice
D) the inactivation of pepsin by hydrochloric acid
Q2) Absorption of water is one major function of which of the following structures?
A) small intestine
B) colon
C) rectum
D) appendix
Q3) Bile from the liver is stored in the ______ before entering the intestine.
A) pancreas
B) gallbladder
C) spleen
D) bile duct
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Q1) Animals such as hydras and jellies can exchange gases directly with the environment by ______.
A) diffusion
B) active transport
C) osmosis
D) bulk transport
Q2) When you hold your breath,which of the following blood gas changes leads initially to the urge to breathe again?
A) rising oxygen level
B) rising carbon dioxide level
C) falling oxygen level
D) rising carbon dioxide level and falling oxygen level
Q3) The buildup of plaque in the walls of arteries results in ______.
A) leukemia
B) atherosclerosis
C) anemia
D) low blood pressure
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Q1) When in its life cycle does a B cell first exhibit its particular surface antibody?
A) after the memory cell giving rise to it divides
B) before it ever encounters an antigen
C) after it encounters several antigens
D) after it encounters a single antigen
Q2) What kinds of cells engulf whatever foreign cells and molecules they encounter and recognize?
A) natural killer cells
B) platelets
C) phagocytic cells
D) interferons
Q3) Which of the following is one of the body's first lines of defense against infection?
A) several antibodies
B) obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes
C) increased production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation
D) none of the above
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Q1) Which of the following may be a consequence of excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone?
A) convulsive contractions of skeletal muscles
B) giantism
C) loss of calcium from the blood
D) loss of calcium from the bone
Q2) If a cell is like a house,which one of the following is most similar to the way that a steroid hormone works?
A) A postal worker leaves mail for you at your front door.
B) A visitor to your home knocks on your front door.
C) Radio signals are received by a stereo in your bedroom.
D) You walk outside of your home to get a better signal on your cell phone.
Q3) Which structure exerts primary control over the concentration of sugar in the blood?
A) liver
B) pituitary
C) pineal
D) pancreas
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Q1) Hermaphrodites ______.
A) possess both male and female reproductive systems
B) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other
C) usually fertilize themselves
D) have abnormal reproductive systems
Q2) What moves the human egg through the oviduct?
A) the beating of the egg's cilia
B) rhythmic contractions of the oviduct
C) rhythmic contractions of the uterus
D) the beating of cilia in the oviduct
Q3) Which of the following correctly lists the three stages of labor,in the proper order?
A) dilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta
B) dilation, crowning, expulsion
C) contractions, dilation, expulsion
D) contractions, dilation, crowning
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Q1) Standing out in center field,the baseball player watches the hitter's bat strike the ball and then,slightly later,hears the sound of the impact.What types of sensory receptors did the player just use?
A) thermoreceptors and chemoreceptors
B) photoreceptors and mechanoreceptors
C) chemoreceptors and pain receptors
D) pain receptors and thermoreceptors
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Heroin binds to endorphin receptors.
B) Caffeine promotes the inhibitory neurotransmitters.
C) Alcohol is a stimulant.
D) Valium blocks the receptors for inhibitory neurotransmitters.
Q3) The movement of an action potential along a neuron is most like ______.
A) the ripples created by dropping a pebble into a pond, gradually decreasing in size as the waves spread apart
B) a crowd at a sporting event doing the wave around a stadium
C) a radio tower emitting a signal that reaches only a small region
D) the sound of your voice spreading out as you yell loudly to your friend while at a park
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Q1) What typically has to happen before a fruit develops?
A) flowering
B) pollination
C) double fertilization
D) all of the above
Q2) A plant grows taller through ______,which involves cell division in the ______.
A) primary growth... vascular cambium
B) secondary growth... vascular cambium
C) primary growth... apical meristem
D) secondary growth... cork cambium
Q3) The ______ enclose and protect the flower bud,while the ______ advertise the flower to insects and other pollinators.
A) anthers... petals
B) carpels... stigmata
C) sepals... stamens
D) sepals... petals
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Q1) Which of the following convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonium?
A) nitrifying bacteria
B) nitrogen-fixing bacteria
C) denitrifying bacteria
D) ammonifying bacteria
Q2) Which of the following best describes substances that enter a plant through the root system?
A) They are dissolved in water.
B) They are attached to a carbon chain.
C) They are brought in through plasmodesmata.
D) They are brought in through stomata.
Q3) Which of the following hormones promotes cell elongation in stems?
A) auxin
B) cytokinin
C) ethylene
D) gibberellin
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