Biology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biology is the scientific study of life and living organisms, encompassing their structure, function, growth, evolution, distribution, and taxonomy. This course provides an overview of key biological principles, including cell theory, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology. Students will explore the diversity of life at the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, fostering an understanding of the interconnectedness of biological processes and the role of biology in everyday life and global challenges. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and discussions, students will develop critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills fundamental to further studies and careers in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common method for displaying a single data set is to construct a frequency distribution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is meant by "the environment is defined relative to the individual"?
Answer: The environment considers all external factors that influence survival, growth, and reproduction of an organism. What constitutes part of the environment for one organism may play no role in the life of another and thus is not part of its environment. Therefore the term environment is relative.
Q3) To be valid, a hypothesis must be testable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Light intensity is considered a biotic factor.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surface currents in the ocean typically
A)flow most strongly from west to east in equatorial regions.
B)are colder on the western side of continents.
C)flow counterclockwise in gyres in the Northern Hemisphere.
D)flow unimpeded from east to west just north of Antarctica.
Answer: B
Q2) ________ is considered a primary influence on local climate.
A)Aspect
B)Soil temperature
C)Rainfall
D)Vegetation
Answer: A
Q3) An east-west oscillation in weather patterns across the Pacific Ocean is referred to as the ________-Southern Oscillation.
Answer: El Niño
Q4) The temperature, humidity, precipitation, wind, cloudiness, and other atmospheric conditions that occur at a specific place and time are referred to as ________.
Answer: weather
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Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe several adaptations that organisms have developed in response to the minimal light environments in deep water.
Answer: Organisms in deep water have developed several adaptations to survive in minimal light environments. One common adaptation is bioluminescence, where organisms produce their own light through chemical reactions. This allows them to attract prey, communicate with others, or camouflage themselves from predators. Another adaptation is the development of large eyes or light-sensitive organs to maximize the detection of any available light. Some organisms have also evolved to have transparent or reflective bodies to better utilize the limited light that reaches them. Additionally, many deep-sea organisms have heightened senses of smell and touch to compensate for the lack of visual cues in their environment. Overall, these adaptations allow organisms to thrive in the challenging conditions of the deep sea.
Q2) Cold water can hold more oxygen than warm water can.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The solubility of gases in water is a function of pressure, salinity, and ________. Answer: temperature
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally, an ion with a ________ positive charge and ________ size will bind most strongly to a soil particle.
A)greater; smaller
B)smaller; larger
C)smaller; smaller
D)greater; larger
Q2) Which of the following soil textures would have the largest pore spaces?
A)clay
B)gravel
C)sand
D)silt
Q3) Describe three structural adaptations of terrestrial plants that allow them survive on land.
Q4) Salinization results in the buildup of salts in the B horizon of soils.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ point is the stage at which the moisture level in soil decreases to a level at which plants can no longer extract water.
Q6) Draw a typical soil profile. Label and describe each of the four horizons.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bimodal distribution of a trait in a population is the result of A)stabilizing selection.
B)natural selection.
C)directional selection.
D)disruptive selection.
Q2) The fitness of any phenotype is a function of the prevailing ________ conditions.
Q3) Adaptive radiation
A)is the mechanism of evolution.
B)results in new specialized species.
C)reduces diversity.
D)is the result of fixed environmental conditions.
Q4) In relationship to natural selection and subsequent evolution, fitness
A)represents the physical stamina of an organism.
B)is inherited.
C)increases with body size.
D)is a measure of lifespan.
Q5) The total collection of alleles across all individuals in a population at any one time is called the ________.
Q6) The Hardy-Weinberg principle assumes ________ mating.
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon balance focuses on the balance between
A)uptake of CO in photosynthesis and loss of heat via evapotranspiration.
B)loss of CO through respiration and gain of nutrients.
C)loss of H O balanced with the gain of CO via transpiration.
D)uptake of CO in photosynthesis balanced with the loss of CO during respiration.
Q2) Pneumatophores are typical of plants (particularly trees)
A)in arid environments.
B)exposed to fluctuating water levels.
C)flooded once each year.
D)in salt marshes.
Q3) An Acacia seedling grown in shade (50% full sun)is expected to have a ________ net assimilation rate (NAR)and ________ leaf area ratio (LAR)than an Acacia seedling grown in full sun.
A)higher; higher
B)lower; lower
C)lower; higher
D)higher; lower
Q4) Once dissolved in water, the CO molecule reacts with water to form ________.
Q5) Terrestrial plants exchange heat by convection and ________.
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The predictable change in morphological and physiological features as a function of body size is referred to as ________.
Q2) Which of the following is an incorrect match of animal nutrient and nutrient role?
A)fluorine: a basic constituent of proteins
B)phosphorus: important for bone and tooth formation
C)calcium: gives rigidity to the skeletons of vertebrates
D)cobalt: required by ruminants for the synthesis of vitamin B
Q3) The dropping of body temperature to approximately ambient temperature for part of a day is called A)diapause.
B)hibernation.
C)behavioural thermoregulation.
D)torpor.
Q4) An organism that obtains its energy and most nutrients from consuming plants or animals is called a(n)________.
Q5) An ectotherm has a lower caloric requirement than an endotherm of similar size.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the differences between r-strategists and K-strategists. Give an example of each.
Q2) The size and colour of a potential mate rarely correlates with fitness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The development of an ovum without fertilization by a male is called A)budding.
B)parthenogenesis.
C)hermaphroditism.
D)monoecy.
Q4) The more seeds a plant produces in a single reproductive episode, the ________ of each seed.
A)greater the probability of survival
B)smaller the size
C)greater the size
D)more irregular the shape
Q5) The more energy an organism spends on reproduction, the less it has available for growth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Q1) In most cases, population density must be estimated by ________.
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be expected to change with the age of individuals in a population?
A)sex ratio
B)reproductive output
C)probability of survival
D)species identity
Q3) Individuals are usually distributed as one large population across the landscape and not as separate disjunctive subpopulations in patches.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ramet possesses the exact same genetic makeup as its parent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The primary factors driving the dynamics of population abundance are the demographic processes of ________ and ________.
Q6) The three common distribution patterns of a population within a habitat are ________, ________, and ________.
Q7) Explain the three common spatial dispersal patterns and when they would occur.
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ecologists develop a ________ life table to follow the fate of a group of individuals, all born at a given time, from birth to death.
Q2) The per capita death rate (d)________ with population size.
Q3) Explain a population cycle. What factors contribute to this phenomenon?
Q4) What is the difference between exponential growth and logistic growth? Under what ecological conditions does each occur?
Q5) When a population is stable, the net reproductive rate (R )is equal to zero.
A)True B)False
Q6) There are two general types of survivorship curves. A)True B)False
Q7) ________ populations are more susceptible to both demographic and environmental stochasticity than ________ populations.
Q8) A population eventually goes ________ when its population growth (r)remains negative without reversing.
Q9) Immigration and emigration occurs within an open population. A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Social organization
A)is restricted to invertebrates and rarely appears in vertebrate populations.
B)becomes disruptive to normal social interaction.
C)stabilizes relationships and minimizes fighting.
D)is not believed to play a role in population regulation.
Q2) What is competition? Compare and contrast scramble and contest competition.
Q3) In the wild, the regional population size of wolves is controlled by
A)alpha male dominance.
B)beta female reproduction.
C)other predators.
D)food supply.
Q4) Why are social organization and territoriality adaptive? How do human populations exhibit these two behaviours?
Q5) Explain root grafts in jack pine stands. How are they like altruism?
Q6) The progressive decline in density and increase in biomass of remaining individuals in a population is known as ________.
Q7) Give a specific example of how a density-independent factor affects a population. Explain why density-independent factors are less predictable in their effects than density-dependent factors.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Q1) In the context of a metapopulation, explain how patch size and its degree of isolation affect the equilibrium value of P (proportion of patches occupied).
Q2) The model of metapopulation growth is similar to the logistic model of population growth in that both are regulated by density-dependent factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a metapopulation, within-patch population dynamics are governed primarily by A)birth and death rates.
B)dispersal and colonization.
C)predation and parasitism.
D)stochastic processes.
Q4) The conversion of natural ecosystems to agricultural production tends to synchronize metapopulation dynamics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the assumptions made to mathematically model metapopulation dynamics. Are these assumptions appropriate? Why or why not?
Q6) Increasing patch size has the potential to increase environmental ________.
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Q1) Explain the idea of "ghosts of competition past" coined by ecologist J. Connell. What does this concept refer to and why is it important to our understanding of evolution and diversity?
Q2) The outcome of competitive interactions is determined solely by resource availability.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Give an example showing how nonresource factors influence the outcome of competition.
Q4) The findings of a laboratory study are more useful and applicable than the results of a field study.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ principle states that two "complete competitors" cannot coexist.
Q6) The ________ equations predict the outcomes of interspecific competition under different conditions.
Q7) Explain the significance between generalists and specialists when describing niche compression and competitive release.
Q8) How can a disturbance influence interspecific competition?
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relationship between the per capita rate of consumption and the number of prey is known as the predator's ________.
Q2) In response to the nonlethal presence of predatory damsel bugs (Nabis), pea aphids (Acyrrhosiphon)did all of the following, EXCEPT
A)increase reproductive rates.
B)stop feeding.
C)walk away from the predator.
D)drop off the plant.
Q3) Which of the following is considered a predator?
A)autotroph
B)scavenger
C)omnivore
D)decomposer
Q4) Explain how nonlethal effects of predators on prey can have important impacts on prey population dynamics.
Q5) The functional response is the relationship between the per capita rate of predation and ________.
Q6) Many plants use ________ defences, such as hairy leaves, thorns, or spines to deter herbivory.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemiparasites are plants that do not conduct photosynthesis because they obtain water and nutrients from another host plant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Parasites may regulate host populations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Myrmecochores are plants that attract ants to their seeds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Symbiosis is an interaction between two species that is beneficial to both species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe one pre-infection and two post-infection responses that animal hosts might have to parasites.
Q6) Some symbiotic mutualisms involve defence against herbivores.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss the difference between mutualism and commensalism.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, the degree of environmental heterogeneity of a community has a ________ effect on the species diversity of that community.
A)positive
B)negative
C)neutral
D)complicated
Q2) In aquatic habitats, the upper zone of water where the availability of light supports photosynthesis by phytoplankton is called the ________ zone.
Q3) Discuss the physical structure of either a forest or a lake, and explain how the physical structure affects the biological structure.
Q4) In a forest community, the site where decomposition occurs and decaying organic matter releases nutrients for reuse by plants is called the forest ________.
Q5) The total number of species present within a community is called
A)species evenness.
B)species diversity.
C)species richness.
D)relative abundance.
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Q1) The study of the distribution and abundance of ancient organisms and their relationship to the environment is ________.
Q2) The hypothesis that moderate frequencies of disturbance result in the highest species diversity is called the ________ hypothesis.
Q3) The inhibition model of succession involves strong competitive interactions with the first species to arrive maintaining its position until it is weakened or dies, after which it yields space to another species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sequence of communities from the pioneer community to the climax community is called a ________.
Q5) Succession involves
A)only autotrophic species.
B)only heterotrophic species.
C)both autotrophic and heterotrophic species.
D)only plants.
Q6) Using a specific example, discuss the ecological differences between early successional species and late successional species within a sere.
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Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) The ________ of a disturbance is the mean number of disturbances that occur within a particular time interval.
Q2) According to the theory of island biogeography, the islands with the most species will be
A)small and close to the mainland.
B)small and far from the mainland.
C)large and close to the mainland.
D)large and far from the mainland.
Q3) Explain the potential value of corridors to large-bodied species such as carnivores.
Q4) MacArthur and Wilson's theory of ________ was developed to explain the number of species on islands, but it has been applied to patches of habitat as well.
Q5) Habitat fragmentation is harmful because there are no species that are adapted to living along habitat edges.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The patchwork of different types of land cover is called a ________.
Q7) Stable, permanent edges along landscape patches are called ________ edges.
Q8) Explain the role of disturbances in the shifting-mosaic view of the landscape.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ecosystem size may be more critical than productivity in determining diversity in lakes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ecosystem ecologists prefer to view each species individually rather than place them into functional groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A large, artificial system used for experimental purposes is a
A)microcosm.
B)mesocosm.
C)macrocosm.
D)megacosm.
Q4) A set of interrelated parts that work together to perform a function within an environment is a
A)habitat.
B)community.
C)system.
D)metapopulation.
Q5) What is the link between diversity and stability?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Q1) When stomata are open, a plant is gaining CO but losing water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a body of water, the depth at which the availability of light is such that the rate of photosynthesis equals the rate of respiration is called the ________ depth.
Q3) A(n)________ chemical reaction must absorb energy in order to proceed.
Q4) How do humans affect net primary productivity? Does the affluence of a society affect how humans appropriate net primary productivity?
Q5) Consumption efficiency is the ratio of ingestion to production.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ net primary productivity is the ratio of net primary productivity to standing biomass.
Q7) Primary productivity is greatest under A)low temperatures and moist conditions. B)low temperatures and dry conditions. C)high temperatures and moist conditions. D)high temperatures and dry conditions.
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Q8) ________ is the primary factor that limits productivity in aquatic ecosystems.
Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Q1) Decomposition proceeds faster in moist environments than in dry environments. A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the soil microbial loop.
Q3) The major decomposers of dead plant tissues are A)amoeba.
B)bacteria. C)fungi.
D)insects.
Q4) Compounds resistant to decomposition are known as A)labile.
B)recalcitrant.
C)cellulose.
D)humus.
Q5) ________ is the process by which plants absorb a portion of their nutrients from senescing tissues to be stored and used for the production of new tissues.
Q6) The incorporation of mineral nutrients into an organic form is called ________.
Q7) Explain how the "quality" of plant-derived organic matter changes during the course of decomposition.
23
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Precipitation can be a significant input of nutrients in ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ammonium and nitrate are forms of nitrogen that can be directly used by plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The various biogeochemical cycles are largely independent of one another.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ contamination is a great concern in aquatic systems.
A)Pb
B)Cu
C)Al
D)Hg
Q5) Seasonal fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations are greater in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ is the largest pool of nitrogen.
Q7) The main reservoirs of oxygen are water and ________.
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) Identify four Canadian biomes and state their dominant characteristics.
Q2) Which of the following allocates the greatest amount of biomass to photosynthetic tissue and the least amount to supportive tissue?
A)trees
B)shrubs
C)lianas
D)grasses
Q3) Explain why the soils of rain forests are poor for agriculture.
Q4) Deserts are typically hot throughout the year because most are located near the equator.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Leaves that live for only a single year or growing season are classified as ________.
Q6) The largest and most continuous region of tropical rain forest in the world is in South America.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A ________ climate is characterized by hot, dry summers and cool, moist winters.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) Describe three different processes that can lead to the formation of a lake or pond.
Q2) Describe the differences between phytoplankton, zooplankton, and nekton. How do they interact with each other?
Q3) Because the thermocline is permanent in tropical oceans, little vertical mixing occurs, resulting in low productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Barrier reefs are separated from land by shallow lagoons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The productivity of oceans is greatest in the
A)neritic province at tropical latitudes.
B)oceanic province at tropical latitudes.
C)neritic province at temperate latitudes.
D)oceanic province at temperate latitudes.
Q6) In streams and rivers, the group of invertebrates that feeds on coarse particulate organic matter (mostly leaves that fall into the stream)is referred to as the ________.
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) The hydroperiod of a wetland is longest for A)riverine wetlands.
B)basin wetlands.
C)fringe wetlands.
D)coastal wetlands.
Q2) Freshwater wetlands dominated by emergent herbaceous vegetation are called ________.
Q3) The part of a rocky shore in which barnacles, oysters, mussels, limpets, and brown algae are most common is called the
A)littoral, or intertidal zone.
B)infralittoral, or subtidal zone.
C)supralittoral, or supratidal zone.
D)superlittoral, or supertidal zone.
Q4) Tiny organisms living between the particles of sand and mud on beaches are collectively referred to as ________.
Q5) Mangrove swamps
A)are formed by a single species of tree adapted to variable salinities.
B)have relatively anoxic soils.
C)occur mostly in temperate latitudes.
D)typically occur along rocky coastlines subjected to heavy wave action.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using chemical fertilizers such as nitrates and phosphates.
Q2) What are the pros and cons of aquaculture? What do you think is the solution to the cons?
Q3) Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resources, and give two examples of each.
Q4) Soil temperature increases when trees are removed from a forest.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________-cutting is the complete removal of a forest during harvest.
Q6) Nitrate is a commonly used chemical fertilizer that is harmless to human health. A)True B)False
Q7) The technique of adding and comparing costs and benefits at different points in time is referred to as
A)benefit-cost analysis.
B)discounting.
C)external analysis.
D)profit-debt analysis.
28
Q8) Explain how a natural ecosystem 'manages' its nutrients.
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) A species with a 20% or greater probability of extinction within 20 years or 5 generations, whichever is longer, is considered to be a(n)________ species.
Q2) What are the three major reasons that biodiversity should be preserved?
Q3) As latitude increases, marine productivity ________.
Q4) The mass extinction of dinosaurs and other animals at the end of the Cretaceous period is believed by most scientists to have been caused by A)a massive asteroid or comet impact.
B)a massive volcanic eruption.
C)gamma radiation released from a supernova explosion. D)overhunting by expanding populations of Neolithic humans.
Q5) As latitude increases, the number of terrestrial species ________.
Q6) An endemic species is best defined as a species that A)is a habitat specialist with a large geographical distribution.
B)has so few individuals remaining that it ceases to perform its role within an ecosystem. C)no longer occurs in a given area yet still survives elsewhere. D)occurs in a single geographic area and nowhere else.
Q7) Why is it NOT enough to establish a protected region to save the polar bears?
Q8) The mass extinction of dinosaurs occurred at the end of the ________ period.
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albedo, an index of the ability of a surface to reflect solar radiation back to space, is relatively high for vegetation and low for ________.
Q2) As a consequence of global climate change, human populations in low-lying coastal areas will become threatened by rising sea levels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Athabasca Oil Sands are believed to be one of the world's largest deposits, holding ________ barrels of crude.
A)170 000
B)1)7 million
C)1)7 billion
D)1)7 trillion
Q4) ________ levels were about 100 metres lower during the last glacial maximum than they are today, and are expected to rise higher in the future as a consequence of global warming.
Q5) A major source of aerosols resulting from human activities is sulfates and soot from the burning of ________ fuels.
Q6) Describe the potential impacts of global climate change on coastal environments.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31