Biology of Microorganisms
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Course Introduction
Biology of Microorganisms explores the diverse world of microscopic life forms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course covers fundamental concepts such as microbial structure, function, metabolism, genetics, growth, ecology, and evolution. Students will also examine the roles microorganisms play in health, disease, biotechnology, and the environment, gaining insight into laboratory techniques used to identify, culture, and study microbes. Through a combination of lectures, discussions, and practical activities, this course builds a comprehensive understanding of how microorganisms impact natural systems and human society.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans is a microorganism that gains its energy from the oxidation of ferrous iron (Fe² )to ferric iron (Fe³ )and hydrogen sulfide (H S)to sulfuric acid (H SO ).Based on this information,T.ferrooxidans is an example of a A) nitrogen fixer.
B) lithotroph.
C) endosymbiont.
D) biofilm participant.
Answer: B
Q2) The involvement of bacteria in ________ explains why their presence is essential to the continued existence of plants and animals.
Answer: geochemical cycling
Q3) Regarding the natural source for the production of antibiotics,the best weapon we have against pathogenic microorganisms is A) medical doctors.
B) acclaimed scientific researchers.
C) other microorganisms that can exist with the pathogenic microorganisms.
D) the CDC.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via an oral route?
A) not sharing needles
B) wearing condoms during sexual activity
C) checking for and removing ticks after outdoor activity
D) washing hands before eating
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following might be an effective means of limiting a disease spread via a parenteral route?
A) not sharing needles
B) wearing condoms during sexual activity
C) wearing a mask that covers the nose and mouth
D) cooking foods thoroughly
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a fundamental attribute of a successful pathogen?
A) host attachment
B) immune avoidance
C) nutrient acquisition
D) wide host range
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage of fluorescence microscopy?
A) It allows for the preservation of the specimen.
B) It provides the greatest resolution.
C) It has the ability to stain live specimens.
D) It has the ability to detect specific microbes.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following equals one millimeter?
A) 10-3 m
B) 10-6 m
C) 10-9 m
D) 10-12 m
Answer: A
Q3) In a compound microscope,which is the accurate pathway of light?
A) light source, condenser, objective, specimen, eyepiece
B) condenser, light source, eyepiece, specimen, objective
C) eyepiece, objective, specimen, condenser, light source
D) light source, condenser, specimen, objective, eyepiece
Answer: D
Q4) Magnification without increase in resolution is called ________.
Answer: empty magnification
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The molecular formula of the amino acid glycine is C H NO .What is the molecular formula of a glycine pentapeptide?
Q2) An infectious agent remains infectious after treatment with an enzyme that destroys DNA.What might the infectious agent be?
A) an archaeal cell
B) a bacteria
C) a eukaryote
D) a virus
Q3) Endosomes and phagosomes are both types of
A) catalysts.
B) oxidizing agents.
C) pseudopods.
D) vesicles.
Q4) Molecules that are soluble in water are ________ and molecules that are insoluble in water are ________.
A) endergonic; exergonic
B) nonpolar; polar
C) hydrophobic; hydrophilic
D) hydrophilic; hydrophobic
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) The bacterial cell wall is an attractive target for antibiotics because
A) bacterial cells cannot develop resistance to antibiotics that target the cell wall.
B) animal cells lack a cell wall.
C) the cell wall is unimportant for bacterial survival.
D) the cell wall is the only structure bacteria require for survival.
Q2) The bacterial nucleoid contains loops of DNA that emanate from a central point called the ________.
Q3) Which organelle is NOT part of the endomembrane system?
A) mitochondrion
B) lysosome
C) peroxisome
D) Golgi complex
Q4) Which of the following is FALSE of teichoic acids?
A) They reinforce the cell wall.
B) They may help pathogens attach to host cells.
C) They are recognized by the host immune system.
D) They repel the Gram stain.
Q5) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Given the incredibly fast division times of bacterial cells,which of the following could explain why we are NOT surrounded by large mountains of bacterial cells?
A) Bacteria produce too much toxic iron.
B) Bacteria require a host cell to grow.
C) Bacteria are outcompeted by viruses.
D) Bacteria run out of nitrogen.
Q2) Most bacteria in nature grow at a very slow rate,a situation that can be mimicked using a ________.
Q3) A ________ contains only the most basic compounds an organism needs to grow and nothing more.
Q4) A new enzyme that helps protect a bacterial cell from reactive oxygen species has been discovered.During which phase of growth would you expect the gene that codes for this enzyme to be expressed?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) late log phase
D) stationary phase
Q5) How is it possible for a strict anaerobic bacteria to cause a disease in humans?
Q6) Mesophilic proteins are ________ flexible than psychrophilic proteins.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) During glycolysis glucose is ________ and NAD is ________.
A) oxidized; reduced
B) reduced; oxidized
C) oxidized; oxidized
D) reduced; reduced
Q2) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle is to produce ________.
Q3) The enzyme Rubisco is involved in
A) ATP production.
B) carbon fixation.
C) fermentation.
D) nitrogen fixation.
Q4) At the end of the TCA cycle most of the energy originally present in glucose is now found in A) CO .
B) NADH.
C) NADPH.
D) ATP.
Q5) Compare and contrast anaerobic respiration and fermentation.How are they similar and how do they differ?
Page 9
Q6) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which repair process leads to an abasic site as part of the repair pathway?
A) base excision repair
B) methyl mismatch repair
C) recombination
D) SOS repair
Q2) Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and posttranslational control.Please discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of response and energy efficiency.
Q3) If a portion of the template strand of a gene has the sequence 5¢ TTGCAGCT 3¢,what is the sequence of the RNA transcribed from this template?
A) 5¢AACGTCGA3¢
B) 5¢AACGUCGA3¢
C) 5¢ AGCUGCAA3¢
D) 5¢ AGCTGCAA3¢
Q4) Which of the following is found in eukaryotic but not prokaryotic genomes?
A) promoters
B) operons
C) introns
D) genes
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) What is a DISADVANTAGE of a probabilistic indicator compared to a dichotomous key?
A) more time-consuming
B) less applicable to microorganisms isolated in a clinical setting
C) more redundancy leading to fewer errors
D) There are no scientific disadvantages to using a probabilistic indicator.
Q2) Which of the following can result in degenerative evolution?
A) natural selection
B) endosymbiosis
C) fitness reduction
D) parasitism
Q3) Which is NOT an agreed-upon characteristic for microorganism species determination?
A) conjugation similarity
B) phylogeny
C) DNA relatedness
D) ecology
Q4) The ________ gene was used as a molecular clock to reveal the divergence of three domains of life.
Q5) A ________ relationship develops between endosymbionts and their hosts.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) How can some Firmicutes persist in the environment for centuries?
A) Their unique cell shapes reduce surface area to prevent desiccation.
B) They form dormant endospores that remain viable for long periods of time.
C) They are able to slow their metabolism in vegetative cells when nutrients are depleted.
D) They produce a thick waxy coating when the environment becomes dry.
Q2) If all cyanobacteria were suddenly removed from our environment,how would you expect the biosphere to be affected?
Q3) Which of the following species causes an illness that can be prevented by immunization?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Vibrio cholera
D) Helicobacter pylori
Q4) Which of the following does NOT accurately describe Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) causes opportunist infections in human surgical wounds
B) may form biofilms on pulmonary lining of cystic fibrosis patients
C) commonly grows in soil as a decomposer
D) may infect fleas, which transmit P. aeruginosa to humans
Q5) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of fungi to digest lignin is important in the
A) production of bread.
B) production of beer.
C) decomposition of wood.
D) decomposition of animal bodies.
Q2) CASE HISTORY
Brianna,a 22-year-old college student,had returned recently from spring break at the beach in Acapulco,Mexico.She presented at the college clinic complaining of severe abdominal cramps and fever.She also had nausea and bloody diarrhea with mucus.The nurse practitioner collected stool samples and sent them to the laboratory for analysis.Cultures were negative for bacterial pathogens.A trichrome stain was performed,revealing amebas of the trophozoite (active feeding)stage.The stained amebas contained ingested red blood cells.The appearance of the amebas was characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica,the cause of amebic dysentery (bloody diarrhea),or intestinal amebiasis.Brianna was treated with paromomycin (an aminoglycoside that inhibits protein synthesis)for seven days,and her symptoms resolved.
Stained amebas isolated from Brianna's fecal sample indicated amebas in the trophozoite stage.At what life cycle stage did she likely ingest the parasite? Why are other forms less likely?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics do HPV and HIV have in common?
A) They are both retroviruses.
B) They both have overlapping genes.
C) They are both DNA viruses.
D) The have the same tissue tropism.
Q2) Why have the majority of viruses evolved to bind to a host surface receptor that serves an essential function in the host cell?
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding the influenza virus is FALSE?
A) The genome of influenza is very tiny to allow the generation of as many virions as possible.
B) The influenza genome maximizes gene reassortment.
C) The genome of influenza is well designed for evasion of the immune system.
D) The influenza genome allows for large quantities of virions to be created for continued infection.
Q4) Explain how antigenic drift requires individuals to get a flu vaccine yearly.
Q5) A herpes virus contains an icosahedral capsid that allows for radial symmetry.Explain why this type of capsid formation is beneficial for the virus.
Q6) Human papillomavirus contains a ________ genome.
Q7) ________ is an example of a virus with a large double-stranded DNA viral genome.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) A drug is classified as bactericidal if its minimum bactericidal concentration is no more than ________ its minimum inhibitory concentration.
Q2) The presence of ________,such as blood,can require longer exposure times to a chemical in order to achieve true disinfection.
Q3) ________ with the structure R-CHO are very useful disinfectants.
A) Iodophors
B) Low-molecular-weight aldehydes
C) Anionic detergents
D) Cationic detergents
Q4) The function of polymyxin is similar to that of a detergent.What cell structure will be most affected by this drug?
A) cell membrane
B) cell wall
C) ribosome
D) chromosome
Q5) Wescodyne and betadine are examples of ________ complexed with organic carriers.
Q6) ________ is a category of antifungal agents that inhibits DNA synthesis.
Q7) Neuraminidase inhibitors that target viral release can be used to treat infections with ________.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be a good organism choice for a vaccine delivery system?
A) Streptococcus salivarius
B) Lactobacillus acidophilus
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) Explain the disappearing microbiota hypothesis and how it can explain why individuals who attended day care as adolescents tend to suffer fewer allergies than individuals who did not.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an accurate description for epithelial cells?
A) interconnected
B) symmetrical
C) held together by tight junctions
D) glycoprotein-covered
Q4) The presence of ________ is essential for preventing respiratory infections.
A) bacteremia
B) epidermis
C) vegetations
D) the mucociliary escalator
Q5) ________ are organisms that cause disease in an immunocompromised host only. Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chill is a sign that
A) body temperature is falling.
B) body temperature is rising.
C) body temperature is not changing.
D) blood vessels are dilating.
Q2) Cytokines that have chemotactic properties are called ________.
Q3) Lysozyme is an example of a(n)
A) chemical barrier.
B) physical barrier.
C) defensin.
D) adaptive immune response.
Q4) A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT
A) the total number of white blood cells.
B) the numbers of each type of white blood cells.
C) the number of red blood cells.
D) the presence of cancer.
Q5) Explain how each of the following avoids being killed by phagocytes:
a. Shigella dysenteriae
b. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Listeria monocytogenes
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) T cells capable of killing virus-infected and cancer cells are known as ________ cells.
A) T<sub>C</sub>
B) TH
C) TH
D) TH
Q2) Individuals with bare lymphocyte syndrome lack MHC II proteins.Which of the following could still occur in an individual lacking MHC II proteins?
A) Helper T cells could use T-cell receptors to interact with macrophages.
B) B cells could produce IgM antibodies.
C) Cytotoxic T cells could become activated.
D) B cells could undergo class switching independently.
Q3) Explain how humans are able to produce millions of different antibodies when there are only about 1,000 genes or gene segments involved in antibody formation.
Q4) Proteins that do not require antigen processing and presentation are referred to as
Q5) Cytotoxic T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Q6) Helper T cells display the surface antigen ________.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Which of the following is a symptom of systemic anaphylaxis?
A) sneezing
B) watery, itchy eyes
C) rhinitis
D) edema
Q2) A plasmid-encoding protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells.This is an example of a(n)
A) DNA vaccine.
B) attenuated vaccine.
C) subunit vaccine.
D) toxoid.
Q3) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of hepatitis in a patient's blood sample.
Q4) All of the following pertain to serology EXCEPT that they
A) can detect antibodies.
B) cannot detect antigens.
C) can be used to diagnose various diseases.
D) can reveal the contents of serum.
Q5) The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.
20
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)primarily targets which subset of immune cells?
A) CD8+ T cells
B) CD4+ T cells
C) macrophages
D) dendritic cells
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells.
B) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.
C) AB toxins interfere with protein synthesis.
D) Protease exotoxins build proteins.
Q3) All of the following are true about cholera toxin EXCEPT that it
A) is an endotoxin.
B) is an AB toxin.
C) reverses the absorption process in the intestines.
D) causes severe diarrhea.
Q4) Organisms that can survive inside or outside host cells are called ________ pathogens.
Q5) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
Page 21
Q6) Draw and label an AB toxin.List two diseases that are caused by AB toxins.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) A patient is brought to the hospital suffering with a MRSA infection.Which of the following is the best treatment option?
A) acyclovir
B) penicillin
C) methicillin
D) vancomycin
Q2) Which of the following is used to treat opthalmia neonatorum?
A) penicillin
B) acyclovir
C) sulfonamide
D) erythromycin
Q3) Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE?
A) It can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy.
B) It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation.
C) It may be fatal to the unborn child.
D) It does not occur with subclinical infection.
Q4) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________.
Q5) A skin rash accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever,malaise,and headache is referred to as ________,while skin rashes on the mucous membranes are called ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Nicotine in cigarette smoke paralyzes the cilia found on epithelium within the respiratory tract.What is the normal function of these cilia?
A) They produce mucus that traps microorganisms.
B) They help to warm incoming air.
C) They aid in moving mucus to the nasal and oral cavities.
D) They contain macrophages that target microorganisms.
Q2) A young patient arrives in the emergency room with a fever,chills,cough,and chest pains.At this point would it be more likely for a physician to make a differential diagnosis or a definitive diagnosis? Explain your reasoning.
Q3) Due to the location of infection,bacterial sinusitis may lead to complications,including A) meningitis.
B) pneumonia. C) bronchitis.
D) epiglottitis.
Q4) The ciliated epithelium in the respiratory tract that traps inhaled particles and microorganisms is referred to as the ________.
Q5) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) During her pregnancy,Marcia's obstetrician recommended she have her husband clean the cat litter box.Avoiding contact with contaminated cat feces during a pregnancy is important in preventing A) toxoplasmosis.
B) babesiosis.
C) schistosomiasis.
D) leishmaniasis.
Q2) As a teenager,Angelica developed a systemic bacterial infection.The bacteria,found on some lettuce in a restaurant salad,killed several other people.In Angelica,the bacteria invaded her tissue macrophages,traveled throughout her bloodstream,and infected her gallbladder in addition to infecting her liver,spleen,and kidney.She survived but remained a chronic carrier of A) Brucella abortis.
B) Yersinia pestis.
C) Rickettsia prowazekii.
D) Salmonella enterica servovar Typhi.
Q3) Preventing leishmaniasis would require preventing bites from ________.
Q4) Explain how the pathogenesis of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)leads to the presence of heterophile antibodies in the patient's blood.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Tom has been experiencing hepatitis-like symptoms for seven months.When he finally gets around to going to the doctor,his blood tests positive for HBsAg and IgG antibody to HBsAg.Which of the following is the best diagnosis for Tom?
A) acute hepatitis B
B) chronic hepatitis B
C) acute hepatitis D
D) chronic hepatitis D
Q2) Karen is suffering from a gastrointestinal illness caused by a Gram-negative bacterium without flagella.Which of the following conditions could Karen have?
A) salmonellosis
B) shigellosis
C) hemolytic uremia syndrome
D) peptic ulcers
Q3) During digestion,pepsin is secreted by ________.
Q4) A liver biopsy is used to diagnose infection with the ________ helminth.
Q5) Explain how infections with Yersinia enterocolitica can cause symptoms outside of the gastrointestinal tract.
Q6) The part of a tooth protruding outward from the gum is called the ________.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Trichomoniasis is caused by a A) protozoan.
B) bacteria.
C) virus.
D) eukaryote.
Q2) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
Q3) All of the following are true about the glomerulus EXCEPT that A) it is surrounded by the Bowman's capsule.
B) it is made up of small capillaries.
C) during filtration large molecules and blood enter into the Bowman's capsule.
D) it is damaged in acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
Q4) Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?
A) gonorrhea
B) genital herpes
C) syphilis
D) trichomoniasis
Q5) There are two types of urinary tract infections: bladder infections,or ________,and kidney infections,or ________.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Fungal infections of the CNS are most commonly seen in A) immunocompetent individuals.
B) young, healthy individuals.
C) AIDS patients.
D) newborns.
Q2) Which of the following is true about CSF?
A) Inflammatory cells are found in both healthy and unhealthy CSF.
B) It helps to diagnose infections of the central nervous system.
C) The identification of PMNs in CSF indicates a viral infection.
D) CSF is collected via the placement of a shunt in the vertebral column.
Q3) A 50-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness,blurred vision,slurred speech,difficulty swallowing,and nausea.Examination revealed facial paralysis.He reported eating home-canned green beans 24 hours before the onset of his symptoms.The patient should be treated with A) antibiotics.
B) vaccination.
C) toxins.
D) supportive care including respiratory assistance.
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q5) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Streptococcus pyogenes is a medically significant member of the Lancefield group
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
Q2) A young child with meningitis is given an antibiotic prior to the identification of the causative pathogen.What is the appropriate term for this approach,and when would this approach most likely be used?
Q3) Identifying infectious agents is important because A) it costs less money to run numerous tests than to treat with antibiotics empirically. B) antibiotic-resistant bacteria are becoming a major global threat. C) pathogens must be identified before antibiotics are effective. D) antibiotics are only effective against viruses.
Q4) API 20E test strips contain wells with media that test for specific ________ reactions.
Q5) Ten patients are diagnosed with shigellosis.Explain the importance of having a clinical laboratory identify the strains of Shigella in each patient.
Q6) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) A nurse stops by a new patient's room and observes a sign outside the door indicating that a disposable mask and gown should be worn in addition to latex gloves when caring for this patient.What are the two broad categories of patients that would require this extra step,and who is this gear designed to protect in each category?
Q2) An epidemiologist collects information about the person,place,and time of infection by the varicella zoster virus.After collecting this information,she forms a hypothesis about the possible risk factors involved and uses an observational study to test her hypothesis.This type of epidemiology is _____.
Q3) Describe two ways in which technology has contributed to the emergence of pathogens and the spread of infectious diseases.
Q4) A disease transmitted from animals to humans is called a _______ disease.
Q5) Although sporadic outbreaks of measles occur in the United States,the disease is considered nonendemic.What differentiates measles from endemic diseases,such as chickenpox?
A) Endemic diseases exhibit higher numbers of cases than a sporadic outbreak.
B) Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area.
C) Endemic diseases do not exhibit sporadic outbreaks.
D) Diseases that are not endemic remain in reservoirs without infecting humans.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) CASE HISTORY
In 1994,the city of Phoenix,Arizona,faced challenges to its water supply.In a desert,water is scarce,and quality is hard to maintain.The city's water department needed to decrease its wastewater's organic nitrogen content,which threatened the river downstream.A study proposed the construction of a wetland environment to receive the treated effluent from the Phoenix sewage plant.Over the next ten years,the city constructed a series of experimental wetlands,leading to the large-scale tres rios-constructed Wetlands Project.By 2010,the constructed wetland encompassed 800 acres and filtered 170 million gallons per day.Besides controlling nitrogen and organic content,the wetland restores groundwater,offers a carbon offset (net CO removed from the atmosphere),and generates a wildlife-rich recreational area.The tres rios wetland now attracts beavers,bald eagles,and bobcats,as well as many human visitors. Why might many different configurations of wetland have been constructed in order to achieve the desired microbial community and effect?
Q2) An end result of mixed-acid fermentation products being converted into a gas in cattle is production of the greenhouse gas ________.
Q3) What are the three factors that control the ways in which food spoils?
Q4) Describe how bacteria such as Lactobacillus species are used to produce yogurt. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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