Biology of Microorganisms Solved Exam
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Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of the biology of microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and protists. Students will explore microbial structure, function, genetics, metabolism, diversity, and ecology, emphasizing the roles microorganisms play in natural environments, human health, and biotechnology. Laboratory sessions complement theoretical knowledge by introducing fundamental techniques for isolating, culturing, and identifying microorganisms, as well as their applications in research and industry. Through lectures and hands-on experience, students gain a solid foundation in microbial biology and its significance to science and society.
Recommended Textbook
Living in a Microbial World 1st Edition by Bruce Hofkin
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208 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Living in a Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are not composed of cells?
A) Bacteria and archaea
B) Fungi and protozoa
C) Viruses and prions
Answer: C
Q2) Cells have the ability to maintain internal conditions within ranges compatible with life. This ability is called:
A) homeostasis.
B) evolution.
C) metabolism.
D) environmental response.
Answer: A
Q3) Which typical characteristics of living things are not observed in viruses?
Answer: Viruses are not composed of cells. They are unable to replicate outside the cells of other organisms and they have little if any independent metabolism.
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purines of nucleic acids are ________ and ________.
A) thymine; guanine
B) adenine; guanine
C) adenine; cytosine
D) thymine; cytosine
E) cytosine; guanine
Answer: B
Q2) If an atom X has an atomic number of 18, then:
A) there are 18 protons.
B) there are 9 protons and 9 electrons.
C) there are 18 neutrons.
D) there are 9 protons and 9 neutrons.
E) it also has a mass number of 18.
Answer: A
Q3) Describe the relationship between an atom's stability and its energy. How does this impact an atom's reactivity?
Answer: There is an inverse relationship between an atom's stability and its energy level. They are more likely to interact with other atoms (they are more reactive) when their energy is greater and their stability is lower.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cell: Where Life Begins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organelles found in eukaryotic cells is most likely to have been acquired by endosymbiosis?
A) the nucleus
B) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) the Golgi apparatus
D) the lysosome
E) the mitochondrion
Answer: E
Q2) As cells increase in size:
A) their surface/volume ratio increases, and they become more metabolically efficient.
B) their surface/volume ratio decreases, and they become more metabolically efficient.
C) their surface/volume ratio increases, and they become less metabolically efficient.
D) their surface/volume ratio decreases, and they become less metabolically efficient.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: A Field Guide to the Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are the most closely related?
A) Two animals that are in the same phylum
B) Two plants that are in the same class
C) Two fungi that are in the same order
D) Two bacteria that are in the same family
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about archaea?
A) They are in the domain Bacteria.
B) They have cells walls identical to those of bacteria.
C) They have eukaryotic cells.
D) They often are found in extreme environments.
E) All known archaea require oxygen for survival.
Q3) Viruses go through a series of defined steps in their replicative cycle. In which of the following are these steps listed in proper order?
A) attachment » uncoating » penetration » synthesis » release » assembly
B) penetration » attachment » uncoating » assembly » synthesis » release
C) uncoating » attachment » penetration » synthesis » assembly » release
D) attachment » penetration » uncoating » synthesis » assembly » release
E) penetration » synthesis » assembly » attachment » release » uncoating
Q4) How are rRNA genes used to deduce evolutionary relationships?
Q5) What are mycorrhizial relationships? Provide an example.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Microbiology of History and the History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four flasks are prepared with a broth that supports microbial growth. Broth A is boiled and then sealed to prevent the entry of air. Broth B is boiled and left open to the air. Broth C is boiled and left open, but the flask is fitted with an S-shaped neck. Broth D is boiled, left open to the air, and fitted with an S-shaped neck, but after two days the neck is removed. If the broths are examined after four days, which ones will contain living microorganisms?
A) All broths will contain microorganisms.
B) None of the broths will contain microorganisms.
C) broths B & D
D) broths A & C
E) broths B, C & D
Q2) What are Koch's Postulates? Explain how they are used to determine the cause of a particular disease.
Q3) What is the danger associated with agricultural monocultures?
Q4) Why is a large population of hosts more important for the maintenance of a "crowd disease" than it is for other types of diseases?
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of the DNA to which RNA polymerase binds during transcription is known as the ________.
A) promoter
B) codon
C) anticodon
D) operator
E) origin of replication
Q2) The term used to describe the orientation of the two strands of DNA is:
A) polarity.
B) complementary.
C) antiparallel.
D) 5<sup>' </sup>to 3.<sup>' </sup>
E) forked.
Q3) Which of the following components is not normally found as part of a DNA nucleotide?
A) a nitrogenous base
B) a phosphate group
C) uracil
D) a deoxyribose sugar
Q4) Explain how RNA differs in structure from DNA.
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Chapter 7: Metabolism and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A photoautotroph is a microorganism that uses ________ as its carbon source and ________ as its energy source.
A) organic molecules; organic molecules
B) inorganic molecules; organic molecules
C) CO<sub>2 </sub>; inorganic molecules
D) CO<sub>2</sub>; sunlight
Q2) Bacteria that grow well only at very low temperatures are termed:
A) extreme thermophiles.
B) mesophiles.
C) thermophiles.
D) psychrophiles.
E) psychotolerant.
Q3) Describe how ATP is produced in electron transport.
Q4) During the stationary phase of microbial growth:
A) cells are preparing to divide.
B) production of new cells exceeds cell death.
C) production of new cells is approximately equal to cell death.
D) there is no production of new cells or cell death.
E) cell death exceeds the production of new cells.
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Chapter 8: Microbial Evolution: the Origin and Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the rationale for the "RNA world" hypothesis.
Q2) Which of the following is believed to be the correct sequence for the order in which the following metabolic processes evolved?
A) glycolysis » aerobic respiration » photosynthesis
B) photosynthesis » aerobic respiration » glycolysis
C) aerobic respiration » glycolysis » photosynthesis
D) photosynthesis » glycolysis » aerobic respiration
E) glycolysis » photosynthesis » aerobic respiration
Q3) Why is it that natural selection can never result in organisms that are perfectly adapted to their environment?
Q4) We might expect virulence of a particular human pathogen to decrease:
A) when opportunities for transmission are limited.
B) when opportunities for transmission are abundant.
C) when animal reservoirs for the pathogen are scarce.
D) in very large human populations, such as a large city.
E) when it uses insect vectors for transmission.
Q5) It is believed that mitochondria were acquired by primitive eukaryotic cells before chloroplasts were. What is the evidence for this?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: An Ecologists Guide to Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about competition is true?
A) Compared to plants or animals, competition between microorganisms is a rare event.
B) The principle of competitive exclusion suggests that two organisms in competition will eventually reach a stable equilibrium, where both organisms can coexist and survive.
C) A commensial relationship is an example of competition.
D) If you take an environmental sample, and find numerous microbial species within that sample, it suggests that none of these species are in competition with each other.
E) Compared to animals and plants, the resolution of competition between microorganisms is rapid.
Q2) Which of the following processes directly require the activity of microorganisms?
A) release of organic carbon into the environment from animal and plant remains
B) absorption of sulfate from the environment by green plants
C) release of organic nitrogen into the environment by dead plants and animals
D) conversion of organic phosphorus in animal and plant remains into inorganic phosphorus
E) All of the above require microbial activity.
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11
Chapter 10: The Nature of Disease: a Pathogens Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) The time period between infection and the onset of symptoms is called:
A) an inapparent infection.
B) the period of disease.
C) the incubation period.
D) the recovery period.
E) the threshold period.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about endotoxins?
A) They all work in different ways.
B) They are all proteins.
C) They are only produced by Gram-negative bacteria.
D) They are only produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
E) They interfere with host ribosomes, blocking protein synthesis by host cells.
Q3) Why are symptoms in a host, such as diarrhea in the case of intestinal disease, or sneezing and coughing in the case of respiratory disease, beneficial from the perspective of some pathogens that cause these diseases?
Q4) For a given pathogen:
A) the ID<sub>50 </sub>will always be lower than the LD<sub>50.</sub>
B) the ID<sub>50</sub> will always be higher than the LD<sub>50.</sub>
C) the ID<sub>50</sub> and the LD<sub>50</sub> will always be equal.
D) the ID<sub>50 </sub>may be lower or higher than the LD<sub>50.</sub>
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Host Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a successful secondary immune response:
A) the inductive period will be longer than it was during a primary response.
B) greatly increased levels of IgM are produced.
C) long-lived plasma cells immediately begin secreting antibody.
D) the number of pathogens should remain below the threshold of disease.
E) there will be a stronger cell-mediated response, but a less vigorous humoral response.
Q2) Which antibody type is usually produced in the greatest amount during a humoral reponse?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE
E) IgG
Q3) How does HIV reduce immune function?
Q4) Describe how cells of the innate immune system activate the adaptive immune system under certain circumstances.
Q5) In what way can the fever response be used to illustrate the point that response to pathogens can both be protective and harmful?
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Chapter 12: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sulfa drugs:
A) act by interfering with cell wall synthesis.
B) bind to and interfere with bacterial ribosomes.
C) interfere with bacterial DNA replicaton.
D) interfere with the activity of a bacterial enzyme.
E) disrupt the production of mycolic acids by acid-fast bacteria.
Q2) What is a nosocomial infection?
A) an infection contracted at one's place of work, or at school
B) an infection contracted from an animal
C) an infection contracted from improperly prepared food
D) an infection contracted during a stay in the hospital
E) an infection that a health care worker contracts from a patient
Q3) In what situations would UV radiation be an appropriate method for microbial control?
Q4) What are some of the problems associated with the development of antiviral drugs?
Q5) How does stopping an antibiotic prescription prematurely contribute to the development of drug resistance?
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Chapter 13: Epidemiology: Who,
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Q1) A particular type of virus occasionally undergoes antigenic shift. In which of the following situations is antigenic shift most likely?
A) when RNA polymerase makes a mistake, introducing an incorrect nucleotide
B) when the proofreading ability of RNA polymerase does not function properly
C) when a particular host cell is infected by a single strain of the virus
D) when a particular host cell is infected by two strains of the virus at the same time E) when the proportion of immune individuals in the population is low
Q2) Into which category of emergent diseases would dengue be placed?
A) Category 1: invasion of a new host population by a known pathogen
B) Category 2: appearance of a completely new, previously unknown pathogen
C) Category 3: association of a well-known disease with a new pathogen
D) Category 4: increased virulence, or a renewed problem, with a well-known but previously less virulent or well-controlled pathogen
Q3) What is antigenic drift? Why are RNA viruses more prone to this phenomenon than DNA viruses are?
Q4) How can a vaccine program prevent epidemics?
Q5) Describe the design of a case-control study and how it is used to identify the cause of an epidemic.
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Chapter 14: The Future Is Here: Microorganisms and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the concerns about genetically modified plants is how they might affect wild plants. In what way? Why is this worrisome?
Q2) The sequencing of the human genome has shown us that:
A) the number of genes in the human genome is much smaller than previously thought.
B) the number of genes in the human genome is much larger than previously thought.
C) the number of genes in the human genome is about the same number as previously thought.
D) the DNA of humans is much different from that of even our closest nonhuman ancestors.
Q3) Southern blotting can be used to:
A) insert donor DNA into recipient DNA.
B) determine if a specific gene is present in a DNA molecule.
C) separate DNA fragments based on size.
D) make many copies of a particular gene.
E) determine the exact nucleotide sequence in a DNA molecule.
Q4) What exactly is a DNA library? What is a genomic library?
Q5) What is the polymerase chain reaction? Briefly state how it works.
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Chapter 15: Guess Whos Coming to Dinner: Microorganisms and
Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fermentation of most bread and alcoholic beverages relies on:
A) fermentation by Gram-positive bacteria.
B) fermentation by Gram-negative bacteria.
C) fermentation by single-celled fungi.
D) fermentation by filamentous fungi.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of single-cell protein?
A) yogurt
B) cheese
C) Spirulina
D) beer
E) summer sausage
Q3) In what way is the production of vinegar different from the production of the fermented food products discussed in this chapter?
Q4) Microbial fermentation of food products occurs when the microorganisms are allowed to grow:
A) in an anaerobic environment.
B) in an aerobic environment.
C) in an acidic environment.
D) at low temperatures.
E) at high temperatures.
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Chapter 16: Better Living With Microorganisms: Industrial and Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does compost tend to heat up over time? Why is it beneficial to periodically turn the compost?
Q2) Microorganisms to be used commercially usually are developed in a series of defined steps. Which of the following has those steps in the correct order?
A) laboratory flask » pilot plant fermentor » laboratory fermentor » industrial fermentor
B) laboratory fermentor » laboratory flask » pilot plant fermentor » industrial fermentor
C) industrial fermentor » pilot plant fermentor » laboratory fermentor » labortory flask
D) laboratory flask » laboratory fermentor » pilot plant fermentor » industrial fermentor
E) pilot plant fermentor » labortory flask » industrial fermentor » laboratory fermentor
Q3) In what way does metabolite production by a microorganism often depend on other microorganisms that may be found in the same environment?
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