Biology of Microorganisms Exam
Bank
Course
Introduction
Biology of Microorganisms explores the fundamental principles and diversity of microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course examines microbial structure, function, metabolism, genetics, and ecology, highlighting their roles in health, environment, industry, and biotechnology. Students will gain insight into microbial physiology, growth, pathogenesis, and interactions with hosts and ecosystems, as well as laboratory techniques for culturing and identifying microorganisms. This course provides a comprehensive foundation for understanding the pivotal role microorganisms play in natural processes and human affairs.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 3rd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) Which technique was developed to distinguish bacteria from human cells?
A) Gram stain
B) electron microscopy
C) X-ray diffraction
D) DNA sequencing
E) polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Answer: A
Q2) Peter Mitchell and Jennifer Moyle discovered the __________ theory in the 1960s.
A) germplasm
B) evolution
C) chemiosmotic
D) DNA synthesis
E) polymerase chain reaction
Answer: C
Q3) Explain why the organisms that were studied by Sergei Winogradsky could not be grown on Robert Koch's plate media containing agar or gelatin.
Answer: The organisms studied by Winogradsky were lithotrophs, which feed solely on inorganic substances. Koch's plate media contained organic nutrient sources.
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3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Archaea and Bacteria differ in the genetic sequences of their ribosomal RNA genes. How can this difference be used to microscopically differentiate between members of these domains?
Answer: Short DNA sequences that are homologous to either the Bacterial or Archaeal sequences can be conjugated to fluorophores that emit different wavelength light. These probes will anneal to the complementary DNA in the corresponding cells in a sample. When viewed using a fluorescence microscope, the archaeal and bacterial cells will have different colors. This is referred to as fluorescence in situ hybridization, or FISH, analysis.
Q2) Which of the following is best visualized using a negative stain?
A) Gram-negative cell wall
B) acid-fast cell wall
C) capsule
D) endospores
E) flagella
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are used by prokaryotic cells for attaching to solid surfaces
EXCEPT:
A) endospore
B) capsule
C) stalks
D) fimbriae
E) pili
Answer: A
Q2) __________ is impractical for proteins of a flexible nature.
A) Electrophoresis
B) Sonication
C) X-ray crystallography
D) Fractionation
E) Ultracentrifugation
Answer: C
Q3) The bacterial membrane ATP synthase has two subunits. What is the location of each?
Answer: One subunit is embedded in the cell membrane and the other subunit is located in the cytoplasm.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Why can't most organisms use the nitrogen gas that is so prevalent in the atmosphere? How do these organisms acquire a usable form of nitrogen?
Q2) Explain the difference between electrogenic and electroneutral coupled transport and give an example of each.
Q3) A cafeteria worker who fails to wash his hands thoroughly and fails to wear gloves inoculates a quiche with four E. coli cells when he uses his finger to test whether it is done. By the time you purchase the quiche, there are 128 E. coli cells in it. How many generations did the cells go through?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 32
E) 64
Q4) E. coli reprograms during the stationary phase. What are some of the things it does to protect itself?
Q5) Compare and contrast the ABC transporters and group translocation in terms of energy requirements and concentration gradients.
Q6) Discuss some disadvantages of viable counts of microorganisms.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) The proteins and cell components of halophiles require remarkably high intracellular levels of what to maintain their structure?
A) Ca<sup>++</sup>
B) H<sup>+</sup>
C) K<sup>+</sup>
D) Na<sup>+</sup>
E) S
Q2) Which pair of traits can the same organism have?
A) obligate aerobe; obligate anaerobe
B) Gram-positive; Gram-negative
C) thermophile; facultative anaerobe
D) obligate anaerobe; catalase producer
E) microaerophile; grows in 300 µM oxygen
Q3) Which best describes microaerophiles?
A) They require atmospheric oxygen levels to grow.
B) They cannot grow in the presence of oxygen.
C) They will use oxygen if it is present, but can grow even if oxygen is not present.
D) They require a small amount of oxygen.
E) They can't use oxygen to grow, but oxygen won't kill them.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Why do many RNA viruses encode their own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and package them in viral particles? How do we take advantage of these viral-specific polymerases?
Q2) Virus particles can be observed by standard transmission electron microscopy (TEM), but details of capsid structure require visualization by:
A) phase-contrast microscopy
B) scanning electron microscopy
C) cryo-electron microscopy
D) negative stain
E) bright field microscopy
Q3) How can a virus be used in biotechnology to transfer genes from one bacterial cell to another?
Q4) __________ of viruses are designated with the suffix viridae.
A) Genera
B) Families
C) Species
D) Orders
E) Classes
Q5) How is a plaque assay used to count virions in a solution?
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Enzymes that synthesize DNA or RNA can synthesize in a __________ direction.
A) forward
B) 3'-to-5'
C) 5'-to-3'
D) reverse
E) 5'-to-3' or 3'-to-5'
Q2) What type of bonds does DNA polymerase form?
A) aminoacyl bonds
B) peptide bonds
C) phosphodiester bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) disulfide bonds
Q3) What is the correct order of the steps in a cycle of PCR?
A) annealing, denaturation, extension
B) denaturation, extension, annealing
C) extension, annealing, denaturation
D) denaturation, annealing, extension
E) annealing, extension, denaturation
Q4) Describe two ways that the study of bacteria and their processes has led to the development of molecular biology and revolutionized genetics.
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Peptide bond formation effectively transfers the peptide from the tRNA in the __________ to tRNA in the __________.
A) P-site; E-site
B) E-site; A-site
C) E-site; P-site
D) P-site; A-site
E) A-site; P-site
Q2) The term __________ is used to describe movement of a protein from one compartment to another.
A) export
B) import
C) translocation
D) transport
E) secretion
Q3) The typical bacterial ribosome is comprised of:
A) 16 RNAs and a variety of proteins
B) a 80s (30s + 50s) component made of RNA and proteins
C) 70s subunits along with several RNAs and several proteins
D) Two subunits made of three RNAs and at least 50 proteins
E) Three subunits containing both RNA and proteins
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is the activator of the SOS response?
A) RecA
B) LexA
C) FtsZ
D) sulA
E) uvrA
Q2) A synonymous substitution is a(n):
A) inversion
B) deletion
C) silent mutation
D) insertion
E) missense mutation
Q3) Name two traits that have been genetically engineered into plants. How were genes for these activities incorporated into the plant genome? Why is this method more advantageous than typical plant breeding?
Q4) What are the differences between replicative and nonreplicative transposition?
Q5) Describe a frameshift mutation in terms of insertions and deletions. Does an insertion always result in a frameshift mutation? Will an insertion always render the gene product nonfunctional?
Q6) Define a pseudogene and what it is thought to represent. Page 11
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Phase variation in Salmonella enterica involves:
A) gene inversion
B) chemotaxis
C) outer membrane proteins
D) sRNA
E) slipped-strand mispairing
Q2) Explain a way that organisms sense and respond to their environment.
Q3) If a gene is always expressed, it is:
A) constitutive
B) inducible
C) repressible
D) derepressible
E) promotable
Q4) When the forespore is first produced, about how much of the chromosome is actually inside the forespore?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
E) 50%
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) The influenza reassortment process is enhanced by a particular feature of the virus, namely the __________ genome.
A) linear
B) circular
C) double-stranded
D) single-stranded
E) segmented
Q2) Phage T4 genes are translated using host cell __________ and viral
A) polymerases; ribosomes
B) ribosomes; tRNA
C) tRNA; ribosomes
D) tRNA; polymerases
E) mRNA; tRNA
Q3) Drug resistance arises quickly for Hepatitis C virus due to:
A) high error rates of host RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B) high error rates of viral DNA-dependent reverse transcriptase
C) higher error rates at the constant regions within the RNA genome
D) higher error rates at the hypervariable regions within the RNA genome
E) higher error rates at the regions encoding viral proteases
Q4) Why do highly virulent strains of the influenza virus appear periodically?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Bio-techniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) Once a gene encoding a putative transcriptional regulatory protein is identified by sequence annotation, what needs to be done to demonstrate this activity?
Q2) The phenomenon that allows a quencher dye to reduce the fluorescence of the reporter dye in real-time PCR techniques is called:
A) nuclear magnetic resonance
B) fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET)
C) atomic force tunneling
D) magnetic resonance imaging
E) none of the above
Q3) DNA fragments with specific sequences are detected by a technique known as:
A) northern blot
B) Southern blot
C) western blot
D) isoelectrofocusing
E) agarose gel electrophoresis
Q4) How can a protein be detected on a western blot?
Q5) Briefly explain how real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) works.
Q6) What is synthetic biology? Provide an example of its potential applications.
Q7) Describe the whole-genome DNA-binding analysis using ChIP-on-chip technology.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) A bacterium capable of producing methane and water from carbon dioxide and hydrogen performs a type of metabolism called __________ and, given its sources of electrons, it is a __________.
A) methanogenesis; chemolithotroph
B) respiration; heterotroph
C) fermentation; chemoorganotroph
D) carbon fixation; phototroph
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is evidence that the Entner-Doudoroff (ED) route might have evolved earlier than the Embden-Meyerhoff-Parnas pathway (EMP)?
A) ED involves a larger number of reactions and produces more energy and reducing equivalents with respect to EMP.
B) 6-phosphogluconate is dehydrated to form pyruvate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, which may then reenter the EMP pathway.
C) ED involves fewer substrate-level phosphorylations and yields less energy and fewer reductants than EMP.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and Phototrophy
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Questions
Q1) Ferroplasma acidarmanus produces large amounts of sulfuric acid through:
A) oxidation of Cu<sup>+</sup> with Cu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
B) oxidation of FeS<sub>2</sub> with Fe<sup>3+</sup>
C) oxidation of Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub> with Fe<sup>2+</sup>
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) NADH + H<sup>+</sup> has more reducing power than FADH<sub>2</sub>, therefore:
A) oxidation of NADH will contribute to form a larger \(\Delta\)p and more ATP
B) oxidation of FADH<sub>2</sub> by respiratory ETS contributes less to \(\Delta\)p formation, and as a consequence fewer ATP can be made
C) the NADH + H<sup>+</sup>/NAD<sup>+</sup> redox pair has a more negative E°' value than the FAD/FADH<sub>2</sub> pair
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) How has the Geobacter metallireducens redox energy been harnessed in the production of electricity?
Q4) The F<sub>1</sub>F<sub>o</sub> ATP synthase is a remarkably complex enzyme, its subunit structure highly conserved across life domains. Is it possible to use this enzyme as an antibiotic target?
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is the reducing agent in the saturation step of polyketide biosynthesis?
A) NADH
B) NADPH
C) ferredoxin
D) H<sub>2</sub>
E) none of the above
Q2) Tryptophan is among the so-called essential amino acids for humans, as we cannot produce it ourselves. Briefly describe tryptophan biosynthesis in bacteria. Why is it so energetically expensive to synthesize this aromatic amino acid?
Q3) Biological nitrogen fixation is energetically expensive. Assuming that NADPH is used as the reducing equivalent, how many ATPs are used in the enzymatic conversion of N<sub>2 </sub>to NH<sub>3</sub>?
A) 16
B) 32
C) 48
D) 64
E) none of the above
Q4) What are nonribosomal peptide antibiotics? How are they synthesized?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) __________ are an excellent source of all the essential dietary amino acids.
A) Algae
B) Bacteria
C) Mushrooms
D) Yeast
E) Cheeses
Q2) Tempeh is produced by fermentation of soybeans with ________, initially followed by __________.
A) lactic acid bacteria; Aspergillus
B) lactic acid bacteria; Rhizopus
C) Propionibacterium; Aspergillus
D) Propionibacterium; Leuconostoc
E) Propionibacterium; Rhizopus
Q3) Leavening of commercial bread dough is brought about by:
A) CO<sub>2</sub> from injera fermentation
B) CO<sub>2</sub> from ethanolic fermentation of lactic acid bacteria
C) CO<sub>2</sub> from aerobic metabolism of yeasts
D) CO<sub>2</sub> from ethanolic fermentation by Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E) CO<sub>2</sub> from Candida
Q4) Describe several physical means of food preservation.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) Based on small subunit rRNA phylogeny studies, the current view is that there are __________ domains of life.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) none of the above
Q2) Why do bacterial antibiotics have a greater effect on diminishing the effects of nematode infection caused by Brugia malayi (the etiologic agent of filariasis) than current antinematode agents?
Q3) In the domains of life, Archaea and Bacteria differ from each other in that:
A) Archaea contain membrane bound organelles; Bacteria do not
B) Bacteria can be extreme thermophiles; Archaea cannot
C) Archaea contain ester-linked membrane fatty acids; Bacteria do not
D) Bacteria start protein production with formylmethionine; Archaea do not
E) Bacteria have introns; Archaea do not
Q4) Describe how the genome of the Escherichia coli enterohemorrhagic strain O157:H7 differs from the harmless enteric E. coli K12 and how this difference relates to O157:H7 pathogenicity.
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) The following is correct about the genus Clostridium:
A) It displays a wide range of fermentation pathways.
B) Harmless Clostridium species grow in the colon of human infants shortly after birth.
C) It consists of anaerobic spore formers.
D) C. difficile grows in the intestine of patients in which enteric bacteria have been eliminated.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Describe the cell wall of the Verrucomicrobia. How could these organisms have acquired this trait?
Q3) In sewage-treatment systems, nitrifiers such as __________ are used to remove toxic ammonia.
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis
B) Thiobacillus spp.
C) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosolobus, and Nitrosovibrio
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Describe four mechanisms cyanobacteria use to provide an anoxic environment for the oxygen-sensitive, nitrogen-fixation enzyme nitrogenase.
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) What are methane gas hydrates and where are they found? Discuss the idea of benthic mining.
Q2) The __________ species secretes toxins deadly to other strains of the same species.
A) Sulfolobus
B) Halobacterium
C) Nanoarchaeum
D) Methanococcus
E) Thermoplasma
Q3) Another scientist has given you a culture of an archaeon that is an extreme thermophile and is an obligate anaerobe. It does not produce methane and will not grow under high salt conditions or in very acidic conditions. What group does this organism belong to?
A) Nanoarchaeota
B) Crenarchaeota
C) methanogens
D) extreme halophiles
E) Thermoplasmatales
Q4) Crenarchaeol is a biosignature for Thaumarchaeota. Describe its structure.
Q5) Why are the archaea so difficult to classify?
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) The Zygomycota taxon includes a group of insect parasites with nonmotile gametes that must grow toward each other to fuse and form a zygote. Explain why this taxon is classified under the larger taxa of Opisthokonta (whose classification involves flagellated reproductive cells).
Q2) In the organism Saccharomyces cerevisiae, which of the following induces alternation of generations from a haploid to a diploid cell?
A) a 10-degree decrease in optimum growth temperature
B) glucose abundance
C) starvation stress
D) nitrogen deprivation
E) a pH change toward acidic conditions
Q3) Which of the following algae reproduce by opposite mating filaments forming a cytoplasmic conjugate bridge to fuse cellular material?
A) filamentous green algae
B) sheet-forming green algae
C) unicellular green algae
D) diatoms
E) lichens
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) How do microbes live if their metabolic process to generate energy has a positive \(\Delta\)G?
Q2) How would a high cereal or grain diet for cattle affect the growth of pathogens like E. coli?
Q3) In wetlands, Beggiatoa bacteria oxidize H<sub>2</sub>S for energy. Removal of H<sub>2</sub>S enables growth of other microbes for which H<sub>2</sub>S is toxic. However, Beggiatoa derives no benefit from these microbes. This interaction is an example of:
A) syntrophy
B) mutualism
C) commensalism
D) amensalism
E) synergism
Q4) All of the following may be found among the benthic microbes EXCEPT:
A) barophiles
B) psychrophiles
C) thermophiles
D) phototrophs
E) methanogens
Q5) Describe the steps in sequencing a metagenome.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Discuss how human activities have perturbed the nitrogen cycle.
Q2) The highly potent greenhouse gas N<sub>2</sub>O generates how many times the warming effect of CO<sub>2</sub>?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
E) 500
Q3) Oil spills introduce huge amounts of carbon in the environment. Which of the following techniques is used to quantify carbon influx and efflux of CO<sub>2</sub>?
A) gas chromatography
B) mass spectroscopy
C) radioisotope incorporation
D) stable isotope ratios
E) none of the above
Q4) Explain how the Mississippi River drainage into the Gulf of Mexico off the coast of Louisiana leads to a large dead zone.
Q5) How are wetlands similar to or different from commercial wastewater treatment plants?
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) How is it that Clostridium difficile, often a part of the normal intestinal microflora, can be the causative agent of pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
Q2) Explain how the small polypeptide bradykinin promotes edema and pain.
Q3) Which of the following innate immunity mechanisms is mismatched with its associated structure or body fluid?
A) lysozyme-tears and saliva
B) mucociliary elevator-intestines
C) highly acidic pH-stomach
D) acidic pH, sebum, fatty acids-skin
E) low pH-urogenital tract
Q4) A woman falls and suffers a cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating microbes contaminating the cut?
A) mucociliary elevator
B) normal skin flora
C) acidic skin secretions
D) lysozyme
E) phagocytosis and the inflammatory response
Q5) Why is acne able to be treated with antibiotics?
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) The antigen-binding receptor expressing hepatitis antigen in an infected liver cell would be:
A) TCR
B) MHC II
C) MHC I
D) CD4
E) CD8
Q2) Inhalation of allergenic pollen in a susceptible person causes the induction of what primary event, triggering an allergy reaction?
A) crosslinking of IgE-sensitized mast cells
B) immediate anaphylaxis
C) binding to sensitized cytotoxic T cells
D) increased cAMP levels
E) immediate leukotriene release
Q3) Positive selection in T-cell education refers to:
A) T-cell receptors that can bind strongly to self MHC proteins
B) CD8 receptors that can bind strongly to self MHC proteins
C) T-cell receptors that can bind weakly to self MHC proteins
D) CD4 that can bind weakly to self MHC proteins
E) B-cell receptors that bind weakly to T-cell receptors
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Commensals do not need virulence factors to survive on their host because:
A) they are well adapted for their specific niche
B) they do not breach the host barriers and immune system
C) they are recognized as self by the host
D) A and B only
E) all of the above
Q2) Toxins with ADP ribosyltransferase activity cause which of the following?
A) membrane pore formation
B) immune system activation
C) proteolytic degradation of host proteins
D) adenylate cyclase inhibition
E) inhibition of elongation factor 2
Q3) Why is a microbial agent that prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion more virulent as an intracellular pathogen than one that is not?
Q4) Agent A has an LD<sub>50</sub> of 400. Agent B has an LD<sub>50</sub> of 600.
Which is the more pathogenic agent, A or B? What is the relationship between this measure and microbial virulence?
Q5) What are the subunits of the Bacillus anthracis plasmid-encoded toxin? Why is the edema factor (EF) and lethal factor (LF) alone nontoxic to the host?.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Streptococcus pneumoniae causes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) meningitis
B) lobar pneumonia
C) bronchopneumonia
D) necrotizing fasciitis
E) bacteremia
Q2) Define herd immunity and explain why it is only effective against infections spread through person-to-person contact.
Q3) In urinary tract infections (UTIs), what is the implication of the ability of bacteria to actually hide urinary tract epithelial cells and form biofilms?
A) UTIs can never be cured.
B) A reservoir for reinfection is created.
C) The kidney will invariably be infected.
D) Intracellular pathogens are the etiologies for UTI.
E) The ureter is the usual route for bladder infection.
Q4) What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.
Q5) Describe epigenetic silencing and the role it plays in malaria.
Q6) Why is reinfection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae possible?
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Compare and contrast the utility of the antibiotic polymyxin versus cephalosporin in clearing up an Escherichia coli skin infection that has become systemic.
Q2) A drug designed to poke holes into the plasma membrane of a Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteria would best be considered:
A) bactericidal
B) microbe-sensitive
C) semiselective
D) bacteriostatic
E) bacteriocompetent
Q3) A patient who accidentally takes too many doses of chloramphenicol during a Salmonella sp. infection could possible come down with:
A) aplastic anemia
B) liver cancer
C) gastroenteritis
D) ulcers
E) growth plate defects
Q4) Why are drug-resistant bacteria less viable in comparison with wild type?
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) Which of the following organisms falls within risk group category II?
A) Ebola virus
B) SARS
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Escherichia coli strain K-12
E) Campylobacter jejuni
Q2) Catalase-positive organisms such as __________ produce __________ as end products when exposed to hydrogen peroxide.
A) Streptomyces; KCl and CO<sub>2</sub>
B) Streptococcus; H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2 </sub>and H<sub>2</sub>O
C) Lactobacillales; CO<sub>2 </sub>and O<sub>2</sub>
D) Stachybotrys; HOCl and H<sub>2</sub>O
E) Staphylococcus; H<sub>2</sub>O and O<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Compare and contrast the handling of rabies (a category III organism) with Lassa fever (a category IV organism).
Q4) As a disease detective investigating an outbreak in the cafeteria of your college, what would be some of the first steps you would need to take to begin your investigation, other than laboratory testing?
Q5) How would a serum antibody ELISA work in the detection of Lyme disease?
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Chapter 29: What Do Winning Organizations Do Well
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Q1) Factors that a business can control include
A) price of raw materials.
B) implementation.
C) governmental regulations.
D) competitive activity.
E) technological advances.
Q2) Without a marketing plan to contextualize market conditions, it would be difficult for other departments within an organization to develop functional plans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Marketing can be defined as
A) the development and execution of superior strategies.
B) a disciplined process used by organizations to solve problems.
C) advertising and sales.
D) product development and distribution.
E) customer relationship-building strategies.
Q4) Using "Tim's Secrets to Business Success," explain the final step in the marketing process.
Q5) What are the characteristics of a marketing-led organization?
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Chapter 30: Understanding Customer Needs
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Q1) DeWalt's sending researchers to work alongside professionals who work with their tools is an example of
A) a depth interview.
B) a focus group.
C) participant observation.
D) public relations.
E) direct marketing.
Q2) Smart companies challenging the product-centric approach to marketing are embracing a method whereby they are
A) co-creating value with their customers.
B) determining what's best for their customers.
C) conducting secondary research.
D) conducting primary research.
E) becoming the customer.
Q3) List the advantages of secondary research.
Q4) All questionnaires contain questions about feelings and attitudes, behaviour, and demographic variables.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name at least three cautions you should heed when conducting secondary research.
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Choosing Which Customers to Serve
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Q1) Dell's pioneering the direct-to-customer model of selling computers is a good example of
A) over-segmenting.
B) segmenting by product, not market.
C) a complex segmentation approach.
D) investing in emerging segments.
E) segmenting differently from competitors.
Q2) A large grocery chain's analysis of its customer segments showed that even making small changes to ________________ would have a significant impact on profitability.
A) pricing strategies
B) distribution strategies
C) marketing communications strategies
D) sales strategies
E) customers' behaviours
Q3) Explain why segmenting customers by demographic variables is rarely effective.
Q4) Every business needs to decide whether it wants to chase customers or chase profitability. It usually cannot have both.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Developing a Strong Marketing Plan
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Q1) One common mistake in developing a marketing plan is
A) thinking that the marketing plan template is directional.
B) questioning the need for data.
C) spending too much time on key issues.
D) trying to take on too much.
E) forgetting that the marketing plan is set in stone.
Q2) The marketing-sales linkage of a marketing plan outlines how A) objectives will be met.
B) marketing communications will be developed.
C) media will be purchased.
D) marketing is going to engage the sales force.
E) conclusions were drawn.
Q3) A marketing plan is the "glue" that binds functions together by contextualizing the market.
A)True
B)False
Q4) While it is true that without a marketing plan a business tends to drift, it does not necessarily follow that the marketing plan should be set in stone. Discuss this statement.
Q5) What are the characteristics of a good executive summary?
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Chapter 33: Product and Brand Strategies
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Q1) The strategic definition of a product is
A) a tangible good.
B) a service.
C) an item on the order form.
D) the totality of the customer's experiences.
E) what a company makes in a factory.
Q2) Arbol Industries was successful in differentiating its offering and building a brand because it focused on its core product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List at least three lessons learned about managing brand portfolios strategically.
Q4) The set of associations the marketing strategist wants to create or maintain in the minds of customers is known as the
A) brand identity.
B) product life cycle.
C) customer segmentation strategy.
D) product concept.
E) functional strategy.
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Chapter 34: Pricing Strategies
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Q1) The hard work in building the lululemon brand has paid off: its customers are price-insensitive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The practice of a firm taking its cost and attaching a certain margin to arrive at the final price is known as
A) cost-plus pricing.
B) target costing.
C) value-based pricing.
D) price skimming.
E) price penetration.
Q3) Customers who are primarily interested in product performance features are referred to as
A) price customers.
B) value customers.
C) relationship customers.
D) competitive loyals.
E) switchers.
Q4) Explain the success of Cirque du Soleil's pricing strategy.
Q5) What risks are associated with a company dropping its prices?
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Chapter 35: Channel Strategies
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Q1) Provide an example of circumstances that might cause channel conflict. How might a company mitigate or eliminate this conflict?
Q2) Companies that make it easy for customers to switch channels reap the benefits of A) decreased channel conflict.
B) expanded channel range.
C) customer satisfaction.
D) a lower E/C ratio.
E) a lower E/R ratio.
Q3) A typical customer goes through four steps in the purchase process: brand awareness, product knowledge, purchase, and post-sale service.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Looking at value chains enables a business to A) build relationships with its channel partners.
B) improve product research and development.
C) keep costs low.
D) expand its distribution.
E) expand its product portfolio.
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Chapter 36: Marketing Communications Strategies
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Q1) In firms with metrics for marketing communications, there is a 13% dissatisfaction rate with marketing compared to 37% in firms with no metrics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In recall tests, aided recall is the more powerful indicator of advertising effectiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Social media help build brand awareness and relevance, enhancing the brand image.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What the target audience knows about the brand and competitors' brands, and which encoding mechanism will work best, are topics addressed by
A) market research.
B) communications objectives.
C) market impact metrics.
D) budget allocation.
E) message strategies.
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Chapter 37: Delivering Customer Value
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Q1) In many businesses the role of marketing is improperly defined to include only
A) integrated marketing communications strategies.
B) sales generation.
C) channel strategies.
D) advertising strategies.
E) public relations strategies.
Q2) GE used data from past company transactions to organize customers by the type of equipment leased and by their likelihood of wanting to do business with GE. This is an example of
A) customer segmentation.
B) understanding customer needs.
C) creating customer value.
D) a sales strategy.
E) a marketing communications strategy.
Q3) What is the role of marketing in the buying funnel?
Q4) Marketing has a short-term focus, while sales has a long-term focus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is examined in a sales review?
Q6) How is the sales function responsible for creating value for the customer?
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Chapter 38: Building a Customer-Focused Business
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Q1) McDonald's constantly tries new ventures, such as its upscale sandwich stores in New York and the United Kingdom, Pret A Manger. It is not afraid to take risks based on A) product research.
B) potential profitability per product.
C) competitive activity.
D) customer trends.
E) market share by sub-brand.
Q2) List the four key building blocks of building a customer-focused business.
Q3) Subway became known as the fast-food restaurant that offered healthy choices for customers who wanted to maintain a healthy lifestyle or lose weight. Subway's product positioning is typical of a company that is
A) focused on its products.
B) focused on nutritional research.
C) focused on customer needs.
D) focused on the competition.
E) focused on sales execution.
Q4) List three of the common traps to avoid in building a customer-focused business.
Q5) How did Greystone Property Management successfully realign its organization to focus on the customer?
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Chapter 39: Customer Attraction, Satisfaction, and Retention Strategies
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Q1) On a customer satisfaction survey, different levels of satisfaction have a tremendous impact on
A) brand awareness.
B) product trial.
C) customer loyalty.
D) brand associations.
E) understanding customer needs.
Q2) Even if a customized banner ad is sent to a specific user (such as a 54-year-old CEO visiting a business site), if the content and placement of the ad is not appropriate to the type of usage session, the ad will be ineffective.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One of the ways that Dell uses social media to its advantage is by A) disputing customer complaints.
B) only posting high product ratings on its own website.
C) tracking bloggers and posts to assist in marketing communications planning.
D) responding to customer suggestions through public relations strategies.
E) reaching out to bloggers to fix their problems.
Q4) Describe three different types of usage occasions on the web.
Page 42
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Chapter 40: Building the Marketing Organization of the Future
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Q1) In marketing-led firms, marketing is the customer's champion in the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Arbol Industries developed customer scorecards plotting cost to serve and net price paid. This enabled the company to determine the
A) competitive advantage.
B) profitability of the customer.
C) timing and quantity of previous sales.
D) level of brand loyalty.
E) market share.
Q3) In marketing-led firms, marketing works hand in hand with the CEO to establish the company's strategy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sales force is responsible for competencies such as understanding customer needs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is it so important to demonstrate marketing ROI?
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