Biology of Microorganisms
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology of Microorganisms explores the diverse world of microscopic organisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course examines their cellular structures, metabolic pathways, genetics, growth, and interactions with humans and the environment. Emphasis is placed on microbial physiology, evolution, ecology, and the pivotal roles microbes play in health, disease, biotechnology, and global nutrient cycles. Laboratory components provide hands-on experience in techniques such as culturing, staining, and identification, enhancing understanding of microbial diversity and function.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology With Diseases By Taxonomy 5th Edition Robert W. Bauman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Q1) Whose search for chemicals that would kill microbes without harming humans was the foundation for chemotherapy?
A) Ehrlich
B) Koch
C) Gram
D) Lister
E) Pasteur
Answer: A
Q2) Louis Pasteur is considered the Father of Microbiology because of the many carefully conducted experiments and observations he made with microbes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The production of human blood-clotting factor by E.coli is an example of bioremediation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Q1) Jim adds an acid to a solution,but finds the pH has not changed afterward.This suggests the solution contains a(n)(anion/buffer/salt).
Answer: buffer
Q2) The reverse of a dehydration synthesis reaction is a(n)________ reaction.
A) anabolic
B) exchange
C) hydrolytic
D) endothermic
E) metabolic
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning nucleic acids is CORRECT?
A) Nucleic acid strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between adjacent carbohydrates.
B) Cellular DNA is double stranded.
C) All viruses have DNA genomes.
D) The nucleic acid polymer is composed of peptide bonds.
E) There are three naturally occurring purines in nucleic acids.
Answer: B
Q4) The monomer of a nucleic acid is called a (nucleoside/nucleotide/base).
Answer: nucleotide
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) The presence of a glycocalyx contributes to bacteria's ability to cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Peroxisomes contain enzymes used to digest nutrients that have been brought into the cell through phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following may have cell walls containing teichoic acids?
A) Gram-negative bacteria only
B) Gram-positive bacteria only
C) archaea
D) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
E) all prokaryotes
Answer: B
Q4) The reserve deposits of starch or other compounds found in many prokaryotic cells are called (vacuoles/inclusions/nucleoid).
Answer: inclusions
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Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Q1) The most appropriate unit of measurement for intact archaea is the A) meter (m).
B) millimeter (mm).
C) micrometer ( m).
D) nanometer (nm).
E) centimeter (cm).
Q2) Three-dimensional images of specimens can be obtained using scanning electron microscopes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are common to both the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain EXCEPT
A) primary stain.
B) counterstain.
C) a decolorizing agent.
D) a chemical mordant.
E) a decolorizing agent and a counterstain.
Q4) A single basic dye is used in simple stains.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) The conversion of phosphoenol pyruvic acid (PEP)to pyruvic acid results in the production of an ATP.This reaction is an example of (substrate-level/oxidative/reductive)phosphorylation.
Q2) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during which of the following stage(s)of glucose catabolism?
A) formation of acetyl-CoA
B) lysis stage of glycolysis
C) energy-conservation stage of glycolysis
D) Krebs cycle
E) formation of acetyl-CoA and the Krebs cycle
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE concerning the structure and function of enzymes?
A) All enzymes bind cofactors necessary for their function.
B) An apoenzyme is a combination of a cofactor bound to a holoenzyme.
C) Enzymes can function at a wide range of pH.
D) Competitive inhibition of an enzyme occurs when an inhibitor binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme.
E) After an enzyme has catalyzed a reaction, it resumes its original shape and can interact with a new substrate molecule.
Q4) Beta-oxidation of fatty acids produces (acetic acid/acetyl-CoA/glycerol).
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Q1) A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a
A) photoheterotroph.
B) lithoautotroph.
C) photoautotroph.
D) chemoheterotroph.
E) chemoautotroph.
Q2) The ________ of a population is the time it takes for the cells to double in number.
A) binary fission
B) exponential growth
C) generation time
D) arithmetic growth
E) log phase
Q3) Nitrogen fixation results in the production of atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2).
A)True
B)False
Q4) The preferred method for long term storage of bacteria is (freezing/refrigeration/lyophilization).
Q5) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0).
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) In contrast to leading strand synthesis,the lagging strand is synthesized 3' to 5',which is why it is slower.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The phenotype of an organism reflects only part of its genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The horizontal transfer process known as transduction
A) involves a virus.
B) requires a pilus.
C) requires a cell to be "competent."
D) requires a plasmid.
E) involves a mutagen.
Q4) While studying a bacterial strain,a scientist notes a short DNA sequence between inverted repeats is present in both the chromosome and a plasmid within the cell.This sequence is most likely a(n)(phage/transposon/F plasmid).
Q5) A(n)(genome/codon/operon)is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit.
Q6) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) A DNA (library/microarray/screen)may be used to study the complex,changing patterns of mRNA production in an organism.
Q2) Which of the following is essential in PCR?
A) DNA polymerase
B) antisense RNAs
C) reverse transcriptase
D) DNA primers
E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase
Q3) Pest resistant cotton plants that produce Bt were produced by selective breeding.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments? (The arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme.)
A) C CGG
B) G GATCC
C) G AATTC
D) CCC GGG
E) A AGCTT
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Q1) Heavy metal and oxidizing agent disinfectants damage (DNA/enzymes/membranes),interfering with microbial metabolism.
Q2) By themselves,soaps have only degerming activity,not antimicrobial activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Desiccation,a time-honored method of preserving food,is effective because the A) heat of the process kills microbes.
B) freezing step of the process kills microbes.
C) salt concentration is too low to support metabolic function.
D) UV light used in the process of sun drying penetrates effectively.
E) water content is too low to support metabolic function.
Q4) Lysozyme is effective against nearly all disease causing agents. A)True
B)False
Q5) Gamma irradiation is effective for sterilization because it
A) damages molecules irreversibly.
B) is non-ionizing.
C) penetrates well.
D) destroys protein function, although DNA is undamaged.
E) is penetrating and causes extensive molecular damage.
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Chapter 10: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test,the concentration of the drug was bactericidal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drugs known as beta-lactams interfere with bacterial (DNA/folic acid/cell wall)synthesis.
Q3) Antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are
A) aminoglycosides.
B) antisense nucleic acids.
C) macrolides.
D) beta-lactams.
E) nucleic acid analogs.
Q4) Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota?
A) anaphylactic shock
B) black hairy tongue
C) pseudomembranous colitis
D) thrush
E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush
Page 12
Q5) Explain the concept of selective toxicity.
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Q1) The ________ are obligately anaerobic bacilli found in human intestines that aid in digestion of plant material.
A) methanogen
B) mycoplasma
C) bacteroides
D) clostridium
E) cyanobacterium
Q2) Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with bacteria that form endospores?
A) tetanus
B) anthrax
C) gangrene
D) botulism
E) toxic shock syndrome
Q3) Most of the methane produced by methanogens is oxidized by other types of bacteria before it affects Earth's climate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the major taxonomic divisions of prokaryotic organisms.
Q5) Explain the significance of endospores.
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Q1) Protozoa that move and feed by the use of broad pseudopods are called (amoebozoa/apicomplexa/rhizaria).
Q2) Ticks,lice,and mosquitoes often serve as (carriers/transporters/vectors)by hosting and transmitting pathogenic microbes.
Q3) A field biologist finds an unfamiliar single-celled organism in a sample from the surface of a marshy area.What observations or tests would make it possible to determine whether it is a protozoan,fungus,or alga? Assume the PCR machine at the field station is not working,but all other equipment is.
Q4) The ________ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism. A) hyphae
B) sporangium
C) mycelium
D) pseudoplasmodium
E) conidiophore
Q5) Limestone is made up of the shells of (foraminifera/parabasala/radiolarians).
Q6) Modified hyphae that allow fungi to derive nutrients from other living organisms are (septate/pseudohyphae/haustoria).
Q7) The plague is transmitted by (fleas/lice/ticks/mites).
Q8) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Q1) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?
A) the nuclear membrane
B) the cytoplasmic membrane
C) the endoplasmic reticulum
D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes
E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) Enveloped animal viruses enter cells in a process similar to the bacteriophage infection process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process in which viral capsids are removed within the infected cell is called (entry/disassembly/uncoating).
Q4) Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to be replicated?
A) +ssRNA viruses
B) ssDNA viruses
C) -ssRNA viruses
D) retroviruses
E) dsDNA viruses
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Q5) Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (capsomeres/nucleocapsids/prions).
Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Q1) Commensalism is best described as a(n)
A) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.
B) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed.
C) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.
D) relationship in which a microorganism causes disease.
E) source of contamination.
Q2) A (chronic/latent/subclinical)infection is one in which the microbe is actively reproducing but not causing symptoms.
Q3) People who wash their hands frequently during cold season typically have fewer colds than those who do not.This observation suggests cold viruses can be transmitted by
A) fomites.
B) mechanical vectors.
C) biologicalvectors. transmission.
D) direct contact.
E) both direct contact and fomites.
Q4) Compare and contrast analytical,descriptive and experimental epidemiology.
Page 16
Q5) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology/pathology).
Q6) Nausea is an example of a (sign/symptom/syndrome)of disease.
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Q1) The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum).
Q2) The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to
A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.
B) triggering inflammation.
C) triggering release of interferons.
D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons.
E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.
Q3) Which of the following cells is a component of the body's first line defense?
A) monocyte
B) goblet cell
C) NK cell
D) neutrophil
E) microglial cells
Q4) The process of phagocytosis involve all of the following EXCEPT
A) chemotaxis.
B) secretion of cytotoxins.
C) adhesion.
D) elimination.
E) vesicle fusion.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) The majority of mature,self-tolerant lymphocytes are found in
A) the MALT.
B) lymph nodes.
C) the thymus.
D) the spleen.
E) the tonsils.
Q2) Class I MHC molecules are essential for
A) presentation of endogenous antigens.
B) recognition of chemokines.
C) detection of IL-2.
D) recognition of class II MHC.
E) presentation of exogenous antigens.
Q3) Which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell?
A) The cell releases interferon-gamma (INF- ).
B) The cell undergoes apoptosis.
C) The CTL produces oxidizing chemicals.
D) The CTL produces IL-12.
E) The cell produces MHC II with epitope attached.
Q4) T lymphocytes mature in the (bone marrow/lymph node/thymus).
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Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation.Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube,and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added.A positive result for the complement fixation test would be
A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube.
B) a cloudy solution in the tube.
C) loss of color in the tube.
D) a fluorescent precipitate.
E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.
Q2) a person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin)injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine.What does this strategy represent?
A) active immunization
B) passive immunotherapy
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition
D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy
Q3) The immunochromatographic assay uses enzyme-linked anti-antibodies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Q1) How is hemolytic disease of the newborn prevented?
A) immunizing a woman against Rh factor prior to pregnancy
B) administering anti-IgG antibodies during pregnancy
C) treating with cytokines to prevent B cell activation late in pregnancy
D) administering anti-Rh IgG late in pregnancy and after pregnancy ends
E) treating with glucocorticoids throughout pregnancy
Q2) Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to (activation/degranulation/lysis)of the cell,releasing many inflammatory chemicals.
Q3) Describe the tuberculin response and identify the type of response involved.
Q4) Xenografts are tissue transplants from one individual to another within the same species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mechanism of action of RhoGAM is to (activate/neutralize/prevent)an anti-Rh immune response.
Q6) The most common type of transplant involves an (allograft/autograft/isograft).
Q7) Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease that affects the (lymph/thyroid/adrenal)gland.
Q8) Contact dermatitis is a type (I/II/III/IV)hypersensitivity disorder.
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Chapter 19: Pathogenic Gram Positive Bacteria
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Q1) Members of the genus (Bacillus/Enterococcus/Mycobacterium)are part of the normal microbiota of humans.
Q2) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries?
A) viridans streptococci
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Streptococcus equisimilis
E) Streptococcus arginosus
Q3) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE?
A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus.
B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia.
C) It causes death in over 50% of cases.
D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma.
E) It involves toxemia.
Q4) The primary treatment for food-borne botulism is (antibiotics/antitoxin/muscle relaxants).
Q5) Streptococcus pyogenes produces (hemolysin/protein A/M protein)and thereby avoids phagocytosis.
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Chapter 20: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli
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Q1) Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms?
A) hemorrhaging
B) fever
C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D) symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis.
E) usually a bladder infection.
Q2) What is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonic plague?
A) Yersinia pestis
B) Yersinia enterocolitica
C) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D) Salmonella enterica
E) Salmonella flexneri
Q3) Which of the following bacteria requires heme for its growth?
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) Yersinia
D) Haemophilus
E) Bordetella
Q4) Bordetella pertussis produces (adenylate cyclase/dermonecrotic/pertussis)toxin which disrupts blood supply to respiratory tissues.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes, and Vibrios
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Q1) The rash of spotted fever rickettsiosis is the result of
A) capillary damage.
B) infection of skin cells.
C) allergic reaction to the vector.
D) production of a toxin that causes inflammation.
E) infection of sebaceous glands.
Q2) Campylobacter gastroenteritis is usually caused by ingestion of contaminated poultry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A positive urease test in cultures from gastric secretions provides preliminary identification of Helicobacter pylori.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of cell does Ehrlichia chaffeensis infect in humans?
A) capillary endothelial cells
B) B lymphocytes
C) neutrophils
D) monocytes
E) eosinophils
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Chapter 22: Pathogenic Fungi
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Q1) White patches on the surface of the tongue and the oral mucosa accompanied by inflammation and swelling are signs consistent with A) zygomycosis.
B) cryptococcosis.
C) paracoccidioidomycosis.
D) sporotrichosis.
E) candidiasis.
Q2) A large number of antifungal agents are available for treating fungal infections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Distinguish mycotoxicosis from mycetismus.
Q4) The opportunistic obligate parasite (Microsporum/Pneumocystis/Rhizopus)is considered a member of the normal microbiota.
Q5) Very few cases of cryptococcal infections are caused by the variant Cryptococcus neoformans neoformans.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast dermatophytosis and pityriasis.
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Chapter 23: Parasitic Protozoa, Helminths, and Arthropod
Vectors
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Q1) Which of the following parasitic infections can be diagnosed using a blood smear?
A) African sleeping sickness
B) toxoplasmosis
C) malaria
D) African sleeping sickness and malaria
E) toxoplasmosis and malaria
Q2) The most common nematode infection worldwide is (ascariasis/filariasis/pinworms).
Q3) Which of the following is a ciliated pathogen of the intestinal tract?
A) Balantidium
B) Plasmodium
C) Trypanosoma
D) Leishmania
E) Giardia
Q4) Why is self-reinfection commonly seen in children that suffer from pinworms?
Q5) Parasitic diseases have been considered uncommon in developed countries but many are now emerging diseases in these parts of the world.Discuss factors that contribute to this shift.
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Q6) The (brain/heart/liver)is the organ most severely damaged by Trypanosoma cruzi.
Chapter 24: Pathogenic DNA Viruses
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Q1) A serum sample from a patient is examined on an electron microscope,and observed to contain Dane particles,filamentous,and spherical virion particles in abundance.This observation indicates infection with
A) human herpesvirus 1.
B) EBV.
C) hepatitis B.
D) hepatitis D.
E) VZV.
Q2) Pinkeye can be the result of infection with A) human herpesvirus 7.
B) a polyomavirus.
C) an adenovirus.
D) a poxvirus.
E) human herpesvirus 4.
Q3) Shingles,or herpes zoster,is caused by the virus that also causes A) cold sores.
B) chickenpox.
C) smallpox.
D) molluscum contagiosum.
E) warts.
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Chapter 25: Pathogenic RNA Viruses
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Q1) Public health scientists discover and become concerned about a new strain of RNA virus among farm animals,especially geese and pigs,in the Midwest.Each virion is composed of lipid,helical proteins,and multiple pieces of RNA.This new virus may be a(n)
A) rotavirus.
B) influenza virus.
C) hantavirus.
D) dengue virus.
E) coronavirus.
Q2) The common childhood illness called "hand-foot-and-mouth disease" because it causes lesions in these areas is caused by A) an echoviruse.
B) a rhinoviruse.
C) a strain of coxsackie A virus.
D) a strain of coxsackie B virus.
E) the rubella virus.
Q3) Infection with (astrovirus/norovirus/rotavirus)is the most common cause of diarrhea in children worldwide.
Q4) A diagnostic sign of measles are (herpangina/Koplik's spots/macules)in the mouth.
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Chapter 26: Applied and Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) vodka; potatoes
B) white wine; must
C) whiskey; cereal grains
D) beer; malt
E) brandy; fruit juice
Q2) Most of the nitrogen in the environment is in the form of nitrogen gas,which is the form used by most organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare the use of biosensors with traditional methods of determining microbial contamination.
Q4) Secondary metabolites are often useful,and are obtained by
A) harvesting a culture during log phase.
B) allowing a culture to enter stationary phase.
C) growing a culture at sub-optimal temperature.
D) adding chemicals that alter metabolic pathways.
E) using continuous flow culturing.
Q5) The milk product known as (curd/yogurt/whey)is the basis of cheese production.
Page 29
Q6) How does water quality testing make use of environmental microbiology?
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