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Biology of Humans offers an in-depth exploration of human biology by examining the structure, function, and interconnectedness of the body's systems. The course covers fundamental principles such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, and human development, emphasizing how these biological processes influence health and disease. Students will also investigate topics including nutrition, reproduction, immunity, and the impact of environmental and lifestyle factors on well-being. Through a combination of lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, learners will gain a comprehensive understanding of how biological concepts apply to everyday life and inform decisions about personal and societal health.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 7th Edition by Saladin
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Q1) Most primates are ________________,meaning they live in trees.
A)prehensile
B)bipedal
C)cursorial
D)troglodytic
E)arboreal
Answer: E
Q2) The hypothetico-deductive method is common in physiology,whereas the inductive method is common in anatomy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The ileum is ____________,where are the ilium is __________.
A)a muscle; a bone
B)a bone; a muscle
C)part of the hip bone; part of the small intestine
D)a bone in the wrist; a muscle of the back
E)part of the small intestine; part of the hip bone
Answer: E
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Q1) In an exchange reaction,covalent bonds are broken and new covalent bonds are formed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The breakdown of glucose to yield carbon dioxide,oxygen,and ATP can be described as __________.
A)anabolic and endergonic
B)catabolic and exergonic
C)anabolic and exergonic
D)catabolic and endergonic
E)anabolic and exothermic
Answer: B
Q3) The high heat capacity of water makes it a very ineffective coolant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following is not a membranous organelle?
A)Mitochondria
B)Ribosome
C)Nucleus
D)Endoplasmic reticulum
E)Golgi complex
Answer: B
Q2) Ribosomes are made of proteins and RNA.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The plasma membrane of cells lining the small intestine has __________,which are specialized for absorption of nutrients.
A)flagella
B)cilia
C)microvilli
D)a glycocalyx
E)dynein arms
Answer: C
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Q1) What is the product of translation?
A)A newly synthesized amino acid
B)A newly synthesized polypeptide
C)A newly synthesized nucleic acid
D)An mRNA
E)A tRNA
Q2) What is all of the DNA in a set of 23 chromosomes referred to as?
A)A centromere
B)A chromatid
C)The karyotype
D)The phenotype
E)The genome
Q3) A __________ contains the necessary information for the production of a molecule of RNA.
A)genome
B)gene
C)nucleotide
D)genetic code
E)codon
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Q1) Rapid diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the air sacs (alveoli)of the lungs takes place through __________ epithelium.
A)simple squamous
B)simple cuboidal
C)simple columnar
D)keratinized stratified squamous
E)nonkeratinized stratified squamous
Q2) The shape of a person's external ear is due to the presence of __________.
A)dense regular connective tissue
B)dense irregular connective tissue
C)elastic cartilage
D)fibrocartilage
E)ligaments
Q3) Which of the following is not a feature that almost all connective tissues have in common?
A)Most cells are not in direct contact with each other.
B)Ground substance is so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope.
C)Cells usually occupy less space than the extracellular material.
D)Protein fibers are usually present in the ground substance.
E)Most connective tissues are highly vascular.
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Q1) The fastest rate of mitosis happens in the __________.
A)stratum basale
B)stratum spinosum
C)stratum granulosum
D)stratum lucidum
E)stratum corneum
Q2) Which of the following cells stand guard against toxins,microbes and other pathogens?
A)Keratinocytes
B)Melanocytes
C)Adipocytes
D)Dendritic (Langerhans) cells
E)Tactile (Merkel) cells
Q3) The youngest keratinocytes are found in the stratum basale.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Embarrassment can be perceived by an abnormal coloration of the skin called cyanosis.
A)True
B)False

Page 8
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Q1) The __________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where,in children and adolescents,bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.
A)metaphysis
B)primary ossification center
C)secondary ossification center
D)osteoid tissue
E)epiphyseal line
Q2) It is common to find __________ in compact bone,but they are not seen in spongy bone.
A)lamellae
B)osteoclasts
C)lacunae
D)central canals
E)osteocytes
Q3) Most blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bones grow in diameter by interstitial growth.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following is only found on the axis vertebra?
A)Transverse foramen
B)Spinous process
C)Dens (odontoid process)
D)Vertebral arch
E)Superior articular facet
Q2) The mastoid process cannot be palpated on a living person.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the most common spinal curvature deformity?
A)Scoliosis
B)Lordosis
C)Kyphosis
D)Osteosis
E)Herniation
Q4) Condyles are found in the axial skeleton only.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An articulation is any point at which two bones meet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following structures is not found in the shoulder?
A)The glenohumeral ligament
B)The transverse humeral ligament
C)The coracohumeral ligament
D)The radioulnar ligament
E)The rotator cuff
Q3) The joint between the L2 and L3 vertebrae is a __________.
A)synostosis
B)gomphosis
C)synchondrosis
D)symphysis
E)syndesmosis
Q4) Under normal circumstances,the wrist can be hyperextended,but the elbow cannot.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A male sustains a crushing injury to his foot.After weeks of care,he begins to notice that he cannot bend the little toe on his right foot.Which of he following would be a logical diagnosis?
A)Atrophy of the flexor hallucis brevis
B)Atrophy of the fibularis brevis
C)Atrophy of the soleus
D)Atrophy of the flexor digiti minimi
E)Atrophy of the adductor hallucis
Q2) Which muscle(s)of respiration is(are)innervated by the phrenic nerve?
A)Diaphragm
B)External intercostals
C)Internal intercostals
D)Innermost intercostals
E)Pectoralis major
Q3) The palatoglossus is innervated by which nerve(s)?
A)Hypoglossal
B)Accessory
C)Vagus
D)Hypoglossal and accessory
E)Accessory and vagal
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a muscle cell?
A)Plasticity
B)Contractility
C)Conductivity
D)Extensibility
E)Excitability
Q2) A deficiency of acetylcholine receptors leads to muscle paralysis in myasthenia gravis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An isometric contraction does not change muscle length.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some smooth muscle is autorhythmic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A dark band formed by parallel thick filaments that partly overlap the thin filaments is known as an H band.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the most common type of neuron?
A)Multipolar
B)Bipolar
C)Unipolar
D)Anaxonic
E)Dendritic
Q2) What is the primary site on a neuron for receiving signals from other neurons?
A)The synaptic knobs
B)The axons
C)The axon collaterals
D)The somas
E)The dendrites
Q3) The __________ division carries signals to the smooth muscle in the large intestine.
A)visceral sensory
B)somatic sensory
C)visceral motor
D)somatic motor
E)afferent
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function associated with the spinal cord?
A)Protect neurons in both the ascending and descending tracts
B)Mediate a reflex, such as the withdrawal of a hand from pain
C)Conduct sensory information up to the brain
D)Conduct motor information down the cord
E)Coordinate the alternating contraction of several muscle groups associated with locomotion
Q2) The stretch reflex is the tendency of a muscle to stretch when it is overcontracted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Motor commands are carried by __________ from the brain along the spinal cord.
A)both anterior and posterior roots
B)ascending tracts
C)spinal nerves
D)cranial nerves
E)descending tracts
Q4) A dermatome is a nerve innervating a specific region in the skin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The neocortex contains which of the following cells?
A)Pyramidal and stellate cells
B)Pyramidal and Purkinje cells
C)Purkinje and stellate cells
D)Pyramidal, stellate, and Purkinje cells
Q2) The epidural space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Structures in the midbrain control homeostasis and relay sensory signals to specific regions of the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by choroid plexuses in the __________ ventricles and reabsorbed by arachnoid villi in the __________.
A)lateral, third, and fourth; superior sagittal sinus
B)lateral, and third; superior sagittal sinus
C)lateral, third, and fourth; central canal of the spinal cord
D)lateral; central canal of the spinal cord
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Q1) The background rate of sympathetic and parasympathetic activity is called
A)"fight-or-flight" activity
B)visceral motor activity
C)autonomic reflex arc activity
D)visceral tone
E)autonomic tone
Q2) __________ is an example of the cooperative effect between the two autonomic nervous system divisions.
A)Orgasm
B)Bronchodilation
C)Gastrointestinal secretion
D)Heart rate
E)Vasomotor tone
Q3) Sympathetic fibers do not release __________.
A)acetylcholine
B)nitric oxide (NO)
C)substance P
D)neuropeptide Y
E)norepinephrine
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered an accessory structure of the eye?
A)Conjunctiva
B)Palpebra
C)Lacrimal apparatus
D)Superior oblique
E)Cornea
Q2) Which of the following structures houses the spiral organ?
A)Cochlea
B)Vestibule
C)Semicircular duct
D)Stapes
E)Tympanic cavity
Q3) Rods secrete glutamate from the base of the cell when exposed to light.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The vestibule contains organs of hearing and equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Many hours after a meal,alpha (\(\alpha\))cells in the pancreatic islets secrete _________,which _________ blood glucose.
A)glucagon; lowers B)glucagon; raises C)insulin; lowers D)insulin; raises E)glucocorticoids; raises
Q2) The zona fasciculata in the adrenal gland secretes ___________.
A)glucagon
B)epinephrine
C)estradiol
D)aldosterone
E)cortisol
Q3) Both the thymus and the pineal gland shrink after childhood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prostaglandins are considered paracrines.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Coagulation starts with a vascular spasm and ends with the formation of a platelet plug.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What would happen if all of the hemoglobin contained within the RBCs became free in the plasma?
A)It would considerably increase blood oxygen carrying capacity.
B)It would facilitate delivery of oxygen into tissues supplied by small capillaries.
C)It would facilitate oxygen diffusion into cells distant from blood capillaries.
D)It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.
E)It would drastically increase osmotic colloid pressure.
Q3) Which of the following are not secreted by platelets?
A)Procoagulants
B)Thrombopoietin
C)Growth factors
D)Vasoconstrictors
E)Chemicals that attract neutrophils
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Q1) Pericardial fluid is found between the __________ and the __________.
A)visceral pericardium; myocardium
B)visceral pericardium; epicardium
C)parietal; visceral membranes
D)myocardium; endocardium
E)epicardium; myocardium
Q2) If the SA node is damaged,nodal rhythm is sufficient to sustain life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The area where the major vessels lead to and from the heart's chambers is called the __________ of the heart.The pointy,inferior portion is called the ___________.
A)apex; base
B)atrium; ventricle
C)ventricle; atrium
D)base; apex
E)endocardium; epicardium
Q4) Cardiac muscle can only use glucose as a source of organic fuel.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Arterial flow to the lower limb comes from the external iliac artery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does not move substances across capillary walls?
A)Reabsorption
B)Filtration
C)Group transport
D)Transcytosis
E)Diffusion
Q3) Which of the following does not contribute to venous return?
A)The difference of pressure between venules and the venae cavae
B)The expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity during ventilation
C)The suction created by the atria slightly expanding during ventricular systole
D)Widespread vasodilation
E)Contraction of skeletal muscles of the limbs
Q4) Which of the following statements about TIAs and CVAs is true?
A)TIAs are often early warning signs of an impending stroke.
B)TIAs are the result of brain tissue death caused by ischemia.
C)A CVA usually results from spasms of diseased cerebral arteries.
D)TIAs often result in blindness and paralysis.
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Q1) __________ are antimicrobial proteins.
A)Bradykinins
B)Interferons
C)Cytokines
D)Kinins
E)Prostaglandins
Q2) ___________ employ a "respiratory burst" to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>)and hypochlorite (HClO).
A)Neutrophils
B)Basophils
C)Cytotoxic T cells
D)Natural killer cells
E)Suppressor T cells
Q3) Interleukins are chemical signals by which immune cells communicate with each other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Helper T cells respond only to epitopes attached to MHC proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following would lead to anemic hypoxia?
A)Sickle-cell disease
B)Emphysema
C)Squamous-cell carcinoma
D)Asthma
E)Atelectasis
Q2) Which law states that the total atmospheric pressure is a sum of the contributions of the individual gases?
A)Henry's
B)Charles's
C)Boyle's
D)Dalton's
Q3) The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is the __________.
A)vital capacity
B)inspiratory reserve volume
C)expiratory reserve volume
D)residual volume
E)inspiratory capacity
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Q1) Which of the following form the inner layer of the glomerular capsule and wrap around the capillaries of the glomerulus?
A)Macula densa cells
B)Mesangial cells
C)Nephrocytes
D)Podocytes
E)Monocytes
Q2) The overall purpose of the countercurrent exchange system is to __________.
A)supply salt and urea to the renal medulla
B)supply nutrients and oxygen to the renal cortex
C)supply nutrients and oxygen to the renal medulla
D)remove metabolic wastes from the renal cortex
E)remove metabolic wastes from the renal medulla
Q3) Which of the following is not composed of cuboidal epithelium?
A)The thin segment of the nephron loop
B)The thick segment of the nephron loop
C)The collecting duct
D)The proximal convoluted tubule
E)The distal convoluted tubule
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Q1) In response to dehydration,osmoreceptors stimulate the secretion of __________.
A)ADH
B)calcitonin
C)ANP
D)sodium ions
E)bicarbonate ions
Q2) Chloride homeostasis is regulated as a side effect of sodium homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the principal cation of the ECF?
A)Ca<sup>2+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)Na<sup>+</sup>
E)P<sub>i</sub>
Q4) A buffer system converts a weak acid or base into a strong one.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Chylomicrons are secreted from the basal surface of the absorptive cells and taken into the lacteal in the villus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is a hormone,whereas __________ is an enzyme.
A)Enterokinase; pepsin
B)Gastrin; secretin
C)Gastrin; cholecystokinin (CCK)
D)Gastric lipase; histamine
E)Secretin; pepsin
Q3) The swallowing center is located in the __________.
A)mouth
B)oropharynx
C)esophagus
D)medulla oblongata
E)enteric nervous system
Q4) Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The absorptive state lasts about fifteen minutes after a meal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Minerals are __________,whereas vitamins are __________.
A)micronutrients; macronutrients
B)water-soluble elements; lipid-soluble compounds
C)inorganic elements; organic compounds
D)inessential nutrients; essential nutrients
E)incomplete nutrients; complete nutrients
Q3) The inner membrane of a mitochondrion contains the protein __________,which harnesses the energy created by H<sup>+</sup> flow to produce ATP by a process called __________.
A)enzyme complex; reduction
B)ATP synthase; oxidation
C)enzyme complex; proton pumping
D)ATP synthase; the chemiosmotic mechanism
E)cytochrome c; reduction
Q4) Both glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis are examples of catabolic reactions.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Sympathetic nerve fibers trigger the secretion of nitric oxide,which dilates the deep arteries allowing blood to engorge the penis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In meiosis,each parent cell produces __________.
A)two haploid cells
B)four haploid cells
C)two diploid cells
D)four diploid cells
E)haploid cells that are identical to the parent cell
Q3) Sexual reproduction entails the union of two gonads to form a zygote.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sildenafil (Viagra)prolongs erection by __________.
A)activating nitric oxide (NO) production
B)inactivating guanylate cyclase
C)stimulating production of cGMP
D)inhibiting degradation of cGMP
E)inhibiting nitric oxide (NO) production
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Q1) Where does an embryo usually attach to its mother?
A)To the endometrium
B)To the perimetrium
C)To the myometrium
D)To the lining of the uterine tube
E)To the lining of the vagina
Q2) What provides most of the natural lubrication during female sexual excitement?
A)Seminiferous tubules
B)Vaginal mucosa
C)Vestibular bulbs
D)Greater vestibular glands
E)Lesser vestibular glands
Q3) Which of the following occurs during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?
A)Several follicles are developing an antrum
B)The corpus luteum is shrinking
C)The corpus luteum is enlarging
D)Oogonia are transforming into primary oocytes
E)The oocyte completes meiosis II
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Q1) During implantation,the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Primary germ layers are formed during __________
A)implantation
B)cleavage
C)conception
D)organogenesis
E)gastrulation
Q3) The __________ encloses all the rest of the membranes and the embryo.
A)chorion
B)allantois
C)yolk sac
D)amnion
E)zona pellucida
Q4) To some extent,the heat loss of the neonate is compensated for by the thermal insulation provided by brown fat.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The superolateral regions of the abdomen are called the _________ regions.
A)epigastric
B)inguinal
C)hypochondriac
D)hypogastric
E)lateral abdominal
Q2) The __________ system breaks down food and absorbs nutrients.
A)digestive
B)urinary
C)reproductive
D)circulatory
E)lymphatic
Q3) Inflammation of the membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity is called ___________.
A)peritonitis
B)pericarditis
C)pleuritis
D)meningitis
E)arthritis
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