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Biology of Human Disease Test Bank - 1035 Verified Questions

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Biology of Human Disease Test Bank

Course Introduction

Biology of Human Disease explores the biological mechanisms underlying a range of human diseases, examining how genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors contribute to disease development and progression. The course covers the fundamental principles of pathology, the roles of microorganisms, immune responses, and molecular dysfunctions associated with diseases such as cancer, cardiovascular disorders, infectious diseases, and genetic conditions. By integrating foundational concepts from cell biology, genetics, and physiology, students gain a comprehensive understanding of disease processes, diagnostic approaches, and potential therapeutic strategies.

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Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings

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19 Chapters

1035 Verified Questions

1035 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following terms is not closely related to the others?

A) Haplotype

B) Single nucleotide polymorphism

C) Genome-wide association study

D) Induced pluripotency

E) All of these terms are closely related

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a nucleotide base found in DNA?

A) Adenine

B) Thymine.,

C) Guanine,

D) Cytosine.

E) Uracil

Answer: E

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division

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52 Verified Questions

52 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) During meiosis in an organism where 2n = 8, how many chromatids will be present in a cell at the beginning of meiosis II?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

E) 12

Answer: D

Q2) Crossing over occurs between chromatids of homologous chromosome pairs.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Cytokinesis usually occurs just prior to mitosis.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) In meiosis, sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the spindle during ____________________.

Answer: anaphase II

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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A man has the aa phenotype that causes albinism. As such, he does not express his PP genotype, which would have made his eyes brown. The relationship between these two genes is an example of ____________________.

Answer: epistasis

Q2) In humans, hair texture is an incompletely dominant trait. Curly is the dominant genotype, wavy is heterozygous, and straight hair is recessive. What is the probable phenotypic ratio for a cross between a man with wavy hair and a woman with curly hair?

A) All wavy hair

B) 3/4 wavy hair; 1/4 straight hair

C) 1/2 wavy hair; 1/2 curly hair

D) All curly hair

E) 1/4 curly hair; 1/2 wavy hair; 1/4 straight hair

Answer: C

Q3) The genetic recombination event discovered by Mendel is _______ .

Answer: independent assortment

Q4) A person with genotype L L has the phenotype (blood type) M.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics

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60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) If Marfan syndrome results in death, it is usually due to rupture of the ____________________.

Q2) Human traits are controlled only by the genetic material found in the 46 chromosomes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The proportion of individuals in a population expressing a trait when they have the appropriate genotype represents the percent of ____________________ for the trait.

Q4) When affected males produce all affected daughters and no affected sons, the genetic disease is likely to be ____________________.

Q5) Parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child. What is the chance that their next child will have normal pigmentation?

A) 0 percent

B) 25 percent

C) 33 percent

D) 50 percent

E) 75 percent

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Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Scientists are now using an expanded definition of intelligence, beyond IQ, called ____________________.

Q2) Concordance values for twins are only useful in studying traits that are completely heritable.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Twins are said to be concordant for a trait when

A) both twins exhibit the trait.

B) only identical twins exhibit the trait.

C) only fraternal twins exhibit the trait.

D) fraternal twins more often show the trait than identical twins.

E) None of these is true.

Q4) The hormone leptin is produced in ____________________ cells.

Q5) The multifactorial threshold model is helpful in genetic counseling to predict recurrence risks.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Provide evidence from a specific example that argues for a substantial role for the environment in determining IQ.

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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome

Aberrations

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59 Verified Questions

59 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fragile sites are chromosome locations that A) show an increased number of chromosome bands. B) show a decreased number of chromosome bands. C) are all associated with a specific defective phenotype. D) indicate that carriers are mentally retarded. E) are inherited in a codominant fashion.

Q2) What would be the karyotypic designation of a female with trisomy for the X chromosome? ____________________

Q3) The degree of mental retardation in a Down syndrome fetus is predictable. A)True B)False

Q4) The most precise prenatal diagnosis for detecting chromosomal abnormalities is __________.

Q5) Klinefelter syndrome patients who are mosaics have some cells with 46, XY and others with ____________________.

Q6) In general, how do sex chromosome aneuploidies differ from autosomal aneuploidies?

Q7) _______ describes a chromosome that has a centrally-placed centromere.

Q8) What is the number of chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell? Page 8

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Page 9

Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination

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59 Verified Questions

59 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The chorion develops from a part of the blastocyst called the ____________________.

Q2) In the uterus, the ____________________ is shed during menstruation.

Q3) The site of implantation of a blastocyst is the A) myometrium.

B) oviduct.

C) endometrium.

D) vagina.

E) ovary.

Q4) X inactivation can lead to ____________________ in females.

Q5) The result of X inactivation is ____________________ between the sexes.

Q6) Most of the protein eaten by the mother during the third trimester is used for the development of the ____________________ system.

Q7) The part of the male reproductive system where sperm complete fertilization is the A) epididymis.

B) bulbourethral gland.

C) testis.

D) seminal vesicle.

E) ejaculatory duct.

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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization

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52 Verified Questions

52 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hershey and Chase's experiment with radioactively labeled viruses made use of the fact that protein, but not DNA, contains A) phosphorus.

B) iron.

C) sulfur.

D) nitrogen.

E) potassium.

Q2) In the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure, the polynucleotide chains are A) of unequal length.

B) both oriented in the same direction.

C) arranged with the bases on the outside.

D) built with the nucleotides as the backbone.

E) oriented in opposite directions.

Q3) Both ________________ and _________________ have a two-ringed chemical structure.

Q4) Chromosome territories do not overlap each other.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Cytosine and thymine are the two types of bases found in DNA known as

11

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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins

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68 Verified Questions

68 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pre-mRNA is ____________________ and ____________________ before it becomes mRNA and moves to the cytoplasm.

Q2) Watson and Crick proposed that genetic information is encoded in the ____________________ of ____________________ in DNA.

Q3) Describe the flow of information in the cell.

Q4) For any given gene, one strand of DNA serves as a coding strand, the other as a non-coding strand. Why is a non-coding strand needed at all?

Q5) Streptomycin has its effect by causing _____________.

A) DNA polymerase to malfunction

B) errors in amino acid assembly

C) breakage of hydrogen bonds in the DNA molecule

D) errors in nuclotide assembly

E) a combination of more than one of these

Q6) In translation, unlike DNA replication, the base-pairing rule is not required.

A)True

B)False

Q7) The cap on the 3' end of mRNA helps attach the mRNA to the ribosome.

A)True

B)False

Page 12

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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes

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58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Different genotypes for the CYP2D6 gene produce significantly different responses to tamoxifen, the medication of choice for treatment of most cases of

Q2) The hemoglobin molecule

A) has four subunits of two types.

B) has two subunits that can be formed from four types.

C) is involved in amino acid metabolism.

D) acts as a cell surface receptor.

E) is controlled by a single gene.

Q3) Almost 70 percent of women with breast cancer are estrogen-senstive. What does this mean?

A) They are made ill with prescriptions of estrogen.

B) Only a small amount of estrogen can exacerbate their symptoms.

C) Their own natural estrogen encourages the growth of cancer cells.

D) Their cancers go into remission with increased uptake of estrogen.

E) They do not produce their own estrogen.

Q4) Thalassemias are hemoglobin disorders in which the production of alpha and beta chains are out of balance.

A)True

B)False

Page 13

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Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation

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57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain why individuals with cystic fibrosis may have different levels of severity of the disease.

Q2) The ability of DNA polymerase to repair its own nucleotide mismatches is called

Q3) Fragile-X syndrome is an example of a disorder caused by trinucleotide repeats.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Nonsense mutations are mutations caused by nucleotide substitutions that change one amino acid into another.

A)True

B)False

Q5) In disorders caused by multiple trinucleotide repeats, the more repeats there are the later the symptoms of the disorder become manifested.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Queen Victoria had an allele for alkaptonuria that originated by mutation in one of her parents.

A)True

B)False

Page 14

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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer

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56 Verified Questions

56 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22010

Sample Questions

Q1) Myelogenous leukemia is caused by a mutant tumor-suppressing gene.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What is a proto-oncogene?

A) A gene that regulates cell division.

B) A cancer gene.

C) A gene that encodes tumor-suppressing proteins.

D) A DNA repair gene.

E) More than one of these.

Q3) A cellular molecular pathway by which an external signal is converted into a functional response is called ________________.

Q4) Most (90 percent) of all cases of ____________________ cancer involve mutations of the MSH2 or MLH1 genes, which destabilize the genome.

Q5) The genetic model of colon cancer states that development of colo-rectal cancer requires only one key mutation.

A)True

B)False

Q6) BRCA1 and BRCA2 are inherited in a ______________ fashion.

Q7) Some people have a genetic predisposition to cancer. Explain.

Page 15

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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22011

Sample Questions

Q1) Nuclear transfer is a preferred method of cloning over embryo splitting because it

A) is less technical

B) is more natural

C) results in more clones

D) is possible to produce male and female offspring from the same clone

E) uses haploid nuclei, which are easier to obtain

Q2) In Southern blotting, DNA fragments on filters must be ____________________ so that probes can bond with them.

Q3) For what purpose do bacteria use restriction enzymes?

A) They are used in plasmid exchanges to fuse plasmid DNA.

B) They are used to restrict important nutrients from leaving the bacterial cell.

C) They are used to resist infections by viruses.

D) They are used to cut up and recycle mRNA transcripts.

E) They are used to attach amino acids to tRNA molecules.

Q4) In genomic libraries, DNA fragments are stored in ______________ chromosomes.

Q5) Southern blotting is a technique for analyzing DNA.

A)True

B)False

Page 16

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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society

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53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22012

Sample Questions

Q1) If the only solid evidence against a capital murder suspect in a trial were DNA profiles from hair taken from the crime scene and the suspect's DNA, what chance of an "accidental match" would be small enough for you to feel that the suspect is guilty "beyond reasonable doubt?"

Q2) Golden rice was developed to deal with problems of ____________ deficiency.

A) vitamin D

B) vitamin A

C) protein

D) carbohydrate

E) niacin

Q3) Hundreds of thousands of vitamin A deficiencies, and its resulting blindness, may be avoided with the use of genetically modified ____________________.

Q4) Individuals with Pompe disease are unable to metabolize ___________.

A) glycogen

B) lactose

C) insulin

D) cellulose

E) fats

Q5) Summarize the various different uses for transgenic animals and plants.

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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics

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49 Verified Questions

49 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22013

Sample Questions

Q1) Positional cloning is a method used to determine linkage of genes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Genes in other species are useful for finding genes in the human genome.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The Human Genome Project was responsible for discovery of a new class of mutation, the ____________________.

Q4) Approximately what percent of the human genome encodes genetic information?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 5

D) 15

E) 50

Q5) What are some ways in which genetic information about a person can be (a) helpful and (b) harmful to that person?

Q6) The first evidence of linkage between human genes was for two genes found to be located on ____________________.

Q7) The portion of the genome that encodes proteins is called the ____________.

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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy

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52 Verified Questions

52 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22014

Sample Questions

Q1) A post-menopausal woman who uses IVF to become pregnant must use eggs donated by another younger woman.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The first successful outcome of gene therapy was in a case of a young girl suffering from ____________________ who was supplied with copies of the ADR gene.

Q3) Using PGD to screen for embryos that would become suitable donors for siblings is illegal under any circumstance.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Enumerate the various categories of individuals who seek genetic counseling.

Q5) The most specific and sensitive method for detecting genetic defects in an embryo is __________.

A) amniocentesis

B) chorionic villus sampling

C) PGD

D) karytotyping

E) recombinant DNA techniques

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Q6) The most direct way to detect Down Syndrome in a fetus is by ___________.

Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System

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62 Verified Questions

62 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22015

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following blood types are safe to transfuse to O blood types?

A) A

B) B

C) AB

D) O

E) All of these blood types are safe to transfuse to O blood types

Q2) Hemolytic disease of newborns comes about when the mother is ______ and the baby is ______.

A) Rh positive; Rh negative

B) Rh negative; Rh positive

C) Rh positive; Rh positive

D) Rh negative; Rh negative

E) more than one of these; more than one of these

Q3) Of the four types of T cells, only the ____________________ cells destroy infected body cells.

Q4) Genetic engineering has been able to provide xenotransplants that do not elicit the hyperacute reaction.

A)True

B)False

Q5) How can hemolytic disease of the newborn be prevented?

Page 20

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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior

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51 Verified Questions

51 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss the tools used to see if human behavior has a genetic component, and give two examples of either normal or abnormal behavior that appears to have a genetic component.

Q2) Transgenic mice carrying a mutant human SOD1 gene are used as models to study ____________________.

Q3) The FOXP2 gene that has been associated with a language disorder codes for a ____________________, which is a protein that switches on genes.

Q4) The lesions in the brains of people with Alzheimer disease are caused by a protein fragment called ___________________.

Q5) Huntington disease is

A) a model of a multifactorial trait, controlled by several genes.

B) inherited as an X-linked dominant trait.

C) a disease with onset in early childhood.

D) one that produces no significant changes in brain cells.

E) a model of a single gene defect affecting behavior.

Q6) All behavioral traits have an early onset.

A)True

B)False

Q7) MAOA is an enzyme that breaks down ______________.

Page 21

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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution

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71 Verified Questions

71 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) One would think that deleterious genes would be eliminated by natural selection, yet we have two human genetic disorders with a high carrier frequency, sickle-cell anemia and cystic fibrosis. Why has this high frequency for these conditions remained in the population?

Q2) In a large population on a Pacific island, a few individuals had a mutation that caused them to have different colored eyes. After a hurricane, the population was reduced to only a few individuals, but some of those individuals had the rare eye color mutation. Now, after many generations, almost half of the population on this island has different colored eyes. This is an example of _____________.

Q3) The sum total of all the genes in an interbreeding population is the gene pool. A)True B)False

Q4) The taxonomic category that includes all bipedal primates is the ______________.

Q5) The out-of-Africa model states that Homo sapiens arose from a single population in Africa about ____________________ years ago.

Q6) In the U.S., many states passed laws against miscegenation, or marriage between individuals of different races. What genetically based arguments would you use in support or opposition to such laws?

Page 22

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