Biology of Disease Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Biology of Disease explores the fundamental biological mechanisms underlying human diseases, focusing on how normal physiological processes are disrupted by infection, genetic mutations, environmental factors, and lifestyle. The course examines the cellular and molecular basis of diseases, including inflammation, immune responses, cancer, cardiovascular, metabolic, and neurological disorders. Through case studies and laboratory techniques, students gain an integrated understanding of pathogenesis, diagnosis, prevention, and therapeutic strategies for managing disease at both individual and population levels.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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50 Chapters
1557 Verified Questions
1557 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is most of a cell's genetic information, including RNA and DNA, contained?
A)Mitochondria
B)Ribosome
C)Nucleolus
D)Lysosome
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement is true about eukaryotic cells?
A)They lack distinct nucleus.
B)They contain compartments called organelles.
C)They lack an encasing nuclear membrane.
D)They are smaller than the typical prokaryote cell.
Answer: B
Q3) The action of platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells?
A)Platelets
B)Epidermal cells
C)Connective tissue cells
D)Fibroblast cells
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology: Environmental Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organs are affected by lead consumption? (Select all that apply.)
A)Bones
B)Muscles
C)Pancreas
D)Nerves
E)Eyes
Answer: A, D
Q2) How do free radicals cause cell damage?
A)Stealing the cell's oxygen to stabilize the electron, thus causing hypoxia
B)Stimulating the release of lysosomal enzymes that digest the cell membranes
C)Transferring one of its charged, stabilized atoms to the cell membrane, which causes lysis
D)Giving up an electron, which causes injury to the chemical bonds of the cell membrane
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does vomiting-induced metabolic alkalosis cause?
A)Retained sodium to bind with the chloride
B)Hydrogen to move into the cell and exchange with potassium
C)Retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance
D)Hypoventilation to compensate for the metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C
Q2) A patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) shows tall, peaked T waves. What lab value or assessment would the healthcare professional correlate with this finding?
A)Positive Chvostek sign
B)Serum potassium 6.7 mEq/L
C)Nausea and vomiting
D)Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
Answer: B
Q3) Why are infants most susceptible to significant losses in total body water?
A)High body surface-to-body size ratio
B)Slow metabolic rate
C)Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses
D)Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder?
A)Cri du chat
B)Down syndrome
C)Klinefelter syndrome
D)Turner syndrome
Q2) What is the term for an error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or mitosis?
A)Aneuploidy
B)Nondisjunction
C)Polyploidy
D)Translocation
Q3) When a child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from whom?
A)Father
B)Mother
C)Both parents
D)Grandparent
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6
Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are cancers that cluster strongly in families? (Select all that apply.)
A)Breast
B)Colon
C)Ovarian
D)Lung
E)Brain
Q2) What is currently believed about the risk for developing Alzheimer disease?
A)It is not directly related to genetic predisposition.
B)It is higher among men than it is among women.
C)It occurs less among Hispanics than in Asians.
D)It doubles among those with an affected first-degree relative.
Q3) A patient with several risk factors is concerned about developing type 2 diabetes. The healthcare professional advises the patient to lose weight, explaining that obesity is an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus because it causes what?
A)Reduced insulin production by the pancreas
B)Increased resistance to insulin in the cells
C)Obstructed outflow of insulin from the pancreas
D)Stimulation of glucose production by the liver
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
A)Activated
B)Altered
C)Mutated
D)Imprinted
Q2) What are genes responsible for the maintenance of all cells referred to as?
A)Universal
B)Managerial
C)Housekeeping
D)Executive
Q3) What is the belief regarding twins who adopt dramatically different lifestyles?
A)They may experience very different aging processes.
B)They will retain very similar methylation patterns.
C)They will experience identical phenotypes throughout their lifespans.
D)They may never demonstrate similar DNA sequences of their somatic cells.
Q4) Which statement is true regarding the embryonic development of stem cells?
A)They are already differentiated.
B)They are referred to as housekeeping genes.
C)They already demonstrate DNA sequencing.
D)They are said to be totipotent.
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which body fluids have the ability to attack the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Perspiration
B)Semen
C)Tears
D)Saliva
E)Urine
Q2) What is the function of opsonization related to the complement cascade?
A)To tag pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages
B)To process pathogenic microorganisms so that activated lymphocytes can be created for acquired immunity
C)To destroy glycoprotein cell membranes of pathogenic microorganisms
D)To promote anaphylatoxic activity, resulting in mast cell degranulation
Q3) What is a role of a natural killer (NK) cells?
A)Initiation of the complement cascade
B)Elimination of malignant cells
C)Binding tightly to antigens
D)Proliferation after immunization with antigen
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Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) CD4 is a characteristic surface marker and a result of which of these? (Select all that apply.)
A)Activity in the primary lymphoid organs
B)Process of cellular differentiation
C)Alterations to T cells
D)Changes to B cells
E)Clonal selection
Q2) How does the B-cell receptor (BCR) complex function?
A)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell
B)Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells
C)Releasing histamine and other vasoactive substances
D)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Q3) Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of what?
A)Strong response from IgM
B)Level of protection provided by IgG
C)Memory cells for IgE
D)Rapid response from IgA
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10
Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q2) Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
A)IV
B)III
C)II
D)I
Q3) How many months does it take for the newborn to be sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells?
A)1 to 2
B)4 to 5
C)6 to 8
D)10 to 12
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11
Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional student is learning about fungal infections. What information should the student use to help another student understand?
A)Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails.
B)Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections.
C)Fungal infections release endotoxins.
D)Vaccines prevent fungal infections.
Q2) Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms?
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Viruses
D)Yeasts
Q3) Considering the hypothalamus, what is a fever produced by?
A)Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
B)Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
C)Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
D)Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
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12
Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Epinephrine
C)Cortisol
D)Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Q2) The action of which hormone helps explain increases in affective anxiety and eating disorders, mood cycles, and vulnerability to autoimmune and inflammatory diseases in women as a result of stimulation of the CRH gene promoter and central norepinephrine system?
A)Progesterone
B)Cortisol
C)Estrogen
D)Prolactin
Q3) Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful?
A)Flight or fight
B)Alarm
C)Adaptation
D)Arousal
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are two "hits" required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes?
A)Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
B)The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
C)Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to affect carcinogenesis.
D)The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Q2) By what process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals?
A)Proto-oncogene
B)Autocrine stimulation
C)Reliance on caretaker genes
D)Pleomorphology
Q3) Normally, which cells are considered immortal? (Select all that apply.)
A)Germ
B)Stem
C)Blood
D)Epithelial
E)Muscle
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research data support the relationship between the exposure of ultraviolet light (UVL) and the development of what? (Select all that apply.)
A)Basal cell carcinoma
B)Squamous cell carcinoma
C)Hodgkin lymphoma
D)Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
E)Soft tissue sarcoma
Q2) The healthcare professional advises clients to make which personal lifestyle choices in order to likely reduce the risk for developing cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A)Avoiding crowds
B)Wearing a hat while golfing
C)Eating a strict vegetarian diet
D)Having regular health screenings
E)Staying indoors during smog alerts
Q3) Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Human papillomavirus
D)Pelvic inflammatory disease
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is likely true regarding children being treated for cancer with radiation therapy?
A)They will most likely have a successful remission of tumor growth.
B)They seldom require follow-up maintenance treatments.
C)They are prone to experience severe developmental delays.
D)They are at increased risk for developing childhood cancers.
Q2) Currently, what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
A)40%
B)50%
C)60%
D)85%
Q3) What does a child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) have an increased risk of developing?
A)Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B)Retinoblastoma
C)Epstein-Barr
D)Leukemia
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16
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain receives approximately what percentage of the cardiac output?
A)80%
B)40%
C)20%
D)10%
Q2) The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of which colliculi?
A)Inferior
B)Superior
C)Mid
D)Posterior
Q3) Which of the meninges closely adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord and follows the sulci and fissures?
A)Dura mater
B)Arachnoid
C)Pia mater
D)Inner dura
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pricking one's finger with a needle would cause minimal pain, whereas experiencing abdominal surgery would produce more pain. This distinction is an example of which pain theory?
A)Gate control theory
B)Intensity theory
C)Specificity theory
D)Pattern theory
Q2) How can glaucoma cause blindness?
A)Infection of the cornea
B)Pressure on the optic nerve
C)Opacity of the lens
D)Obstruction of the venous return from the retina
Q3) Which neurotransmitters inhibit pain in the medulla and pons? (Select all that apply.)
A)Norepinephrine
B)Serotonin
C)Glutamate
D)Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
E)Nitric oxide
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Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which intracerebral disease process is capable of producing diffuse dysfunction?
A)Closed-head trauma with bleeding
B)Subdural pus collections
C)Neoplasm
D)Embolic infarct
Q2) Antipsychotic drugs cause tardive dyskinesia by mimicking the effects of an increase of what?
A)Dopamine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Norepinephrine
D)Acetylcholine
Q3) What stimulus causes posthyperventilation apnea (PHVA)?
A)Changes in PaO levels
B)Changes in PaCO levels
C)Damage to the forebrain
D)Any arrhythmic breathing pattern
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19
Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe headache and blurred vision. What should the healthcare professional do?
A)Give the patient a glass of cool water.
B)Give the patient some pain medication.
C)Take the patient's blood pressure and pulse.
D)Facilitate the patient having a head CT scan.
Q2) What event is most likely to occur when a person experiences a closed head injury?
A)Brief period of vital sign instability
B)Cerebral edema throughout the cerebral cortex
C)Cerebral edema throughout the diencephalon
D)Disruption of axons extending from the diencephalon and brainstem
Q3) A patient has AIDS and reports fever, clumsiness, difficulty with balance and walking, and trouble speaking. What treatment does the healthcare professional educate the patient about?
A)Radiation therapy
B)Chemotherapy
C)Oral pyrimethamine
D)Surgery
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient reports frequent nightmares. For which of these should the healthcare professional assess the patient?
A)A recent major loss
B)Family history of nightmares
C)History of traumatic event
D)Poor nutrition and weight loss
Q2) A severely depressed patient has been taking venlafaxine but is now pregnant and asks the healthcare professional what treatment options are available for her. What therapy does the professional discuss as a first choice?
A)Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
B)Switch to haloperidol
C)Intensive psychotherapy until the baby is weaned
D)Limit zinc and magnesium in the diet
Q3) Which neurotransmitter is reduced in people with schizophrenia?
A)Dopamine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Acetylcholine
D)Serotonin
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neural groove closes dorsally during which week of gestational life?
A)Second
B)Fourth
C)Eighth
D)Twelfth
Q2) A baby is born with a myelomeningocele and needs urgent surgery to repair the defect. The parents want to take the baby home instead. What does the healthcare professional tell the parents about the purpose of this surgery?
A)"Surgery is much easier on a tiny infant than on a larger, older baby."
B)"If your baby has surgery this young, he/she cannot feel pain."
C)"Additional nervous system damage will occur the longer we wait."
D)"Prompt surgery is needed to prevent total paralysis later on."
Q3) An infant is brought to the emergency department by parents who report that the baby's fontanels seem to be bulging outward. What action by the healthcare provider is most appropriate?
A)Assess the baby for recent trauma to the head.
B)Measure the head circumference and plot it on a growth chart.
C)Prepare the baby for a lumbar puncture and blood cultures.
D)Determine how much fluid the baby had in the last 24 hours.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are actions of glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreasing muscle cell reuptake of glucose
B)Fat storage
C)Decreased blood glucose
D)Carbohydrate metabolism
E)Liver gluconeogenesis
Q2) A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?
A)Cortisol
B)Thyroid hormone
C)Somatostatin
D)Alpha endorphin
Q3) Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) synthesized, and where does it act?
A)Hypothalamus; renal tubular cells
B)Renal tubules; renal collecting ducts
C)Anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary
D)Posterior pituitary; loop of Henle
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is diagnosed with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although the patient has had no intake for 4 hours, no change in the polyuria level has occurred. What treatment or diagnostic testing does the healthcare professional prepare the patient for?
A)Administration of desmopressin
B)Serum copeptin testing
C)Insulin administration
D)Renal angiogram
Q2) What does Graves' disease develop from?
A)A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone
B)An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue
C)A thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
D)An ingestion of goitrogens that inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter
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Chapter 23: Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A health care professional is caring for a patient admitted to the hospital with severe anorexia. What action by the health care professional would be most important?
A)Ensuring the patient is on a cardiac monitor
B)Facilitating laboratory testing of electrolytes
C)Arranging a psychiatry consultation
D)Assessing the patient's favorite foods
Q2) What does the student learn about the effects of long-term starvation? (Select all that apply.)
A)Energy is supplied through glycogenolysis.
B)Gluconeogenesis begins for energy requirements.
C)Increase in inflammatory mediators.
D)Use of ketone bodies for energy needs.
E)Proteolysis begins in adipose tissue.
Q3) The student asks the professor for a definition of "orexigenic neurons." What description by the professor is most accurate?
A)Promote appetite and stimulate eating
B)Suppress appetite and inhibit eating
C)Increase overall metabolism
D)Promote satiety after eating
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?
A)Gradual decrease in estrogen levels
B)Sudden increase of LH
C)Sharp rise in progesterone levels
D)Gradual increase in estrogen levels
Q2) Which gland produces the associated hormones that are found in high levels in a female fetus?
A)Posterior pituitary excretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
B)Hypothalamus excretes luteinizing hormone (LH) and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
C)Anterior pituitary produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
D)Hypothalamus excretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Q3) Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?
A)The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.
B)A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.
C)Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.
D)Estrogen levels are low.
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has been diagnosed with a simple fibroadenoma. What treatment does the healthcare provider educate the woman about?
A)A repeat biopsy in 6 months
B)More frequent mammograms
C)Nothing; no treatment is needed.
D)Rapid surgical excision and chemotherapy
Q2) Which term is used to identify the descent of the posterior bladder and trigone into the vaginal canal?
A)Rectocele
B)Vaginocele
C)Cystocele
D)Enterocele
Q3) Which type of precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex?
A)Mixed
B)Partial
C)Isosexual
D)Central
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Chapter 26: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child has cryptorchidism. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)Educate the child and parents on orchiectomy.
B)Instruct the parents to give the child all the antibiotics.
C)Describe skin precautions used during radiation therapy.
D)Describe the correct administration of GnRH.
Q2) A student in the medical clinic is reviewing a patient's medical record and sees the diagnosis of Peyronie's disease and asks the healthcare professional for an explanation of this disorder. What statement by the professional is most accurate?
A)When the man's foreskin is retracted and cannot go back over the glans
B)When the man's foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis
C)A very painful condition of prolonged erection seen in some diseases
D)A fibrotic condition that leads to curvature of the penis and sexual dysfunction
Q3) What is the first sign of puberty in boys?
A)Thickening of the scrotal skin
B)Growth of pubic hair
C)Enlargement of the testes
D)Change in voice
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28
Chapter 27: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the latent period of a herpes virus infection, where in the host cell is the genome of the virus maintained?
A)Mitochondria
B)Lysosomes
C)Nucleus
D)Cytoplasm
Q2) In women, what is the usual site of original gonococcal infection?
A)Endocervical canal
B)Vagina
C)Fallopian tube
D)Labia majora
Q3) By which method is the organism that causes syphilis best identified?
A)Acid-fast stain
B)Gram-stained slide
C)In vitro culture
D)Dark-field microscopy
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of erythrocytes?
A)Tissue oxygenation
B)Hemostasis
C)Infection control
D)Allergy response
Q2) What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?
A)Globulin
B)Albumin
C)Clotting factors
D)Complement proteins
Q3) A patient has pernicious anemia and asks the healthcare professional to explain the disease. Which statement by the professional is most accurate?
A)The lack of certain foods in your diet
B)Your body cannot absorb vitamin B .
C)You are not getting enough vitamin C.
D)Your bone marrow has stopped working.
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Erythrocytes, Platelets, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the student learn about warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in children.
B)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.
C)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
D)Immunoglobulin M coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.
Q2) The paresthesia that occurs in vitamin B deficiency anemia is a result of which of these?
A)Reduction in acetylcholine receptors in the postsynaptic nerves
B)Myelin degeneration in the spinal cord
C)Destruction of myelin in peripheral nerves
D)Altered function of neurons in the parietal lobe
Q3) A healthcare professional has educated a student on folic acid. Which statement by the student indicates that more teaching is needed?
A)Folic acid absorption is dependent on the enzyme folacin.
B)Folic acid is stored in the liver.
C)Folic acid is essential for RNA and DNA synthesis within erythrocytes.
D)Folic acid is absorbed in the upper small intestine.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid Function
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46461
Sample Questions
Q1) A person has lab drawn and the white blood cell count is much higher than normal. The healthcare professional understands which facts about this finding? (Select all that apply.)
A)The person has leukocytosis.
B)The person has leukopenia.
C)The person may have an infection.
D)The person may have a myeloproliferative disorder.
E)The person needs a bone marrow biopsy.
Q2) In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect?
A)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
B)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
C)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
D)Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Q3) What are the clinical manifestations of advanced non-African Burkitt lymphoma? (Select all that apply.)
A)Abdominal swelling
B)Night sweats
C)Fever
D)Weight gain
E)Dementia
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of polycythemia in the fetus?
A)Fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen as a result of diphosphoglycerate (DPG).
B)The fetus has a different hemoglobin structure of two a- and two g-chains rather than two a-and two b-chains.
C)Increased erythropoiesis occurs in response to the hypoxic intrauterine environment.
D)The lungs of the fetus are undeveloped and unable to diffuse oxygen adequately to the pulmonary capillaries.
Q2) Which mother does the healthcare professional prepare to administer Rh immune globulin (Rho-GAM) to?
A)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
B)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
C)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O
D)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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39 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the heart are the receptors for neurotransmitters located?
A)Semilunar and atrioventricular (AV) valves
B)Endocardium and sinoatrial (SA) node
C)Myocardium and coronary vessels
D)Epicardium and AV node
Q2) Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel?
A)Superior vena cava
B)Pulmonary veins
C)Pulmonary artery
D)Coronary veins
Q3) The coronary sinus empties into which cardiac structure?
A)Right atrium
B)Left atrium
C)Superior vena cava
D)Aorta
Q4) What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
A)Arterial stiffening
B)Decreased left ventricular wall tension
C)Decreased aortic wall thickness
D)Arteriosclerosis
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professions student learns which facts about mitral valve stenosis?
(Select all that apply.)
A)It is an uncommon valvular disorder.
B)It mostly affects women.
C)May result from genetic factors
D)Most cases are asymptomatic.
E)Symptoms tend to be vague.
Q2) Which statement is true concerning the cells' ability to synthesize cholesterol?
A)Cell production of cholesterol is affected by the aging process.
B)Cells produce cholesterol only when dietary fat intake is low.
C)Most body cells are capable of producing cholesterol.
D)Most cholesterol produced by the cells is converted to the low-density form.
Q3) What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
A)Atherosclerosis causes ischemia of the intima.
B)It increases nitric oxide.
C)Atherosclerosis erodes the vessel wall.
D)It obstructs the vessel.
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35
Chapter 34: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent brings a 10-year-old child to the clinic and reports a mottled appearance to the skin and legs cramps when the child is in physical education class. What diagnostic testing or treatment does the healthcare professional prepare the family for?
A)Immediate cardiac catheterization
B)Administration of prostaglandin
C)Multiple-stage surgical correction
D)An echocardiogram
Q2) Where can coarctation of the aorta (COA) be located?
A)Exclusively on the aortic arch
B)Proximal to the brachiocephalic artery
C)Between the origin of the aortic arch and the bifurcation of the aorta in the lower abdomen
D)Between the origin of the aortic arch and the origin of the first intercostal artery
Q3) What is the initial manifestation of aortic coarctation observed in a neonate?
A)Heart failure (HF)
B)Cor pulmonale
C)Pulmonary hypertension
D)Cerebral hypertension
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional wants to determine the adequacy of a person's alveolar ventilation. What assessment finding is most important for the professional to consider?
A)Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min
B)Ventilatory pattern is regular and rhythmic.
C)Respiratory effort is strained with muscle involvement.
D)Arterial blood gas shows a PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 44 mmHg.
Q2) The student asks the professor to explain what characteristic is demonstrated by lungs with decreased compliance?
A)Difficult deflation
B)Easy inflation
C)Stiffness
D)Inability to diffuse oxygen
Q3) How low must the partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO ) drop before the peripheral chemoreceptors influence ventilation?
A)Below 100 mmHg
B)Below 80 mmHg
C)Below 70 mmHg
D)Below 60 mmHg
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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47 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is best described as a tumor that causes which alterations?
A)Abscesses and ectopic hormone production
B)Pneumonia and atelectasis
C)Pleural effusion and shortness of breath
D)Chest wall pain and early metastasis
Q2) Pulmonary artery hypertension (PAH) results from which alteration?
A)Narrowed pulmonary capillaries
B)Narrowed bronchi and bronchioles
C)Destruction of alveoli
D)Ischemia of the myocardium
Q3) What medical term is used for a condition that results from pulmonary hypertension, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle?
A)Hypoxemia
B)Hypoxia
C)Bronchiectasis
D)Cor pulmonale
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
A)Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
B)Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging
C)Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
D)Pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Q2) What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
A)Consolidation
B)Pulmonary edema
C)Atelectasis
D)Bronchiolar plugging
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process makes it possible for ureters to be transplanted successfully?
A)Compensatory hypertrophy
B)Erythropoietin secretion
C)Peristalsis
D)Collateral circulation
Q2) Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?
A)Peripheral nerves
B)Parasympathetic fibers
C)Sympathetic nervous system
D)Tenth thoracic nerve roots
Q3) Which structures are parts of the nephron? (Select all that apply.)
A)Loop of Henle
B)Renal corpuscle
C)Proximal convoluted tubule
D)Calyx
E)Collecting duct
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pyelonephritis is usually caused by which type of organism?
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Viruses
D)Parasites
Q2) Bladder cancer is associated with the gene mutation of which gene?
A)c-erbB2
B)Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)
C)TP53
D)myc
Q3) Goodpasture syndrome is an example of which of these?
A)Antiglomerular basement membrane disease
B)Acute glomerulonephritis
C)Chronic glomerulonephritis
D)Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy
Q4) Hypercalciuria is primarily attributable to which alteration?
A)Defective renal calcium reabsorption
B)Intestinal hyperabsorption of dietary calcium
C)Bone demineralization caused by prolonged immobilization
D)Hyperparathyroidism
41
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional has taught a parent group about the causes of enuresis. What statement by a parent indicates the professional needs to give more information?
A)A maturational lag may cause enuresis.
B)Enuresis may be related to increased light sleep.
C)Obstructive sleep apnea may be a symptom of enuresis.
D)Elevated nocturnal levels of vasopressin may cause enuresis.
Q2) What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the autoimmune disorder of hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)?
A)Immunoglobulin A (IgA) coats erythrocytes that are destroyed by the spleen, and remnants are excreted through the kidneys.
B)Verotoxin from Escherichia coli is absorbed from the intestines and damages erythrocytes and endothelial cells.
C)Endotoxins from E. coli block the erythropoietin produced by the kidneys, which reduces the number of erythrocytes produced by the bone marrow.
D)Failure of the nephron to filter urea increases the blood urea nitrogen, which binds to erythrocytes that are subsequently destroyed by the spleen.
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates?
A)Trypsin
B)Amylase
C)Lipase
D)Chymotrypsin
Q2) Bilirubin is a byproduct of the destruction of which aged cells?
A)Platelets
B)Protein
C)Leukocytes
D)Erythrocytes
Q3) Which enzyme breaks down protein-forming polypeptides in the stomach?
A)Acetylcholine
B)Pepsin
C)Gastrin
D)Secretin
Q4) Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
A)Parietal
B)Chief
C)G
D)D
43
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information about chronic gastritis does the student learn? (Select all that apply.)
A)Chronic gastritis tends to occur more in older adults.
B)It causes thinning and degeneration of the stomach wall.
C)Chronic gastritis results in chronic inflammation and mucosal atrophy.
D)Mucosal atrophy is a common outcome of chronic gastritis.
E)Epithelial metaplasia is often observed with chronic gastritis.
Q2) A patient has portal hypertension-induced splenomegaly. Which lab value would the healthcare professional associate with this condition?
A)Low white blood cell count
B)Low platelet count
C)High red cell count
D)High hemoglobin and hematocrit
Q3) The adult intestine processes approximately how many liters of luminal content per day? A)3
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44
Chapter 43: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cirrhosis causes intrahepatic portal hypertension in children as a result of which mechanism?
A)Fibrosis that increases the resistance to blood flow within the portal system
B)Increased pressure from the twisting of the common bile ducts
C)Development of collateral circulation within the portal system
D)Shunting of fluid to the spleen or abdomen
Q2) Incomplete fusion of the nasomedial and intermaxillary process during the fourth week of embryonic development causes which condition in an infant?
A)Cleft palate
B)Sinus dysfunction
C)Cleft lip
D)Esophageal malformation
Q3) An infant has gluten-sensitive enteropathy and the parents ask the healthcare professional to explain why the baby bruises so easily. The professional explains that the baby has which deficit?
A)Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
B)Bone marrow function depression
C)Iron, folate, and B deficiency anemias
D)Prescribed daily warfarin
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student has learned about aging and the musculoskeletal system. What statement by the student indicates a need for more study on the topic?
A)Haversian system erodes, the canals nearest the marrow cavity widen, and the endosteal cortex converts to spongy bone.
B)The remodeling cycle increases because of a decreased ability of the basic multicellular units to resorb and deposit bone.
C)Cartilaginous rigidity increases because of decreasing water content and decreasing concentrations of glycosaminoglycans.
D)Muscle ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis declines, although the regenerative function of muscle tissue is reportedly normal in older adults.
Q2) In adults, hematopoiesis typically takes place in which bone marrow cavities? (Select all that apply.)
A)Skull
B)Shoulders
C)Sternum
D)Long bones
E)Pelvis
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient finding would lead the health care professional to assess the patient for inflammatory joint disease?
A)Unilateral joint involvement
B)Normal joint synovial fluid
C)Absence of synovial membrane inflammation
D)Systemic symptoms of inflammation
Q2) A patient seen in the clinic has tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon. What diagnosis does the health care professional document?
A)Lateral epicondylopathy
B)Medial epicondylopathy
C)Bursitis
D)Lateral tendinitis
Q3) A patient in the clinic had a femur x-ray that was read as having a "moth-eaten" appearance. What treatment option does the health care professional discuss with the patient?
A)Limb-salvaging surgery
B)Amputation
C)Oral bisphosphonates
D)Calcium and vitamin D supplements
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Q1) The student wants to know how the clinical manifestations and onset of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) differ from those of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in adults. What answer by the healthcare professional is best?
A)JIA begins insidiously with systemic signs of inflammation.
B)JIA predominantly affects large joints.
C)JIA has more severe joint pain than adult RA.
D)JIA has a rapid onset of generalized aches as the first symptom.
Q2) A child has Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What complication does the healthcare professional teach the parents is most important to control?
A)Respiratory infection
B)Joint contractures
C)Urinary tract infection
D)Fractures from falling
Q3) An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
A)C
B)B12
C)B6
D)D
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Chapter 47: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Q1) A healthcare professional assesses a patient who has elevated lesions on the face that are waxy and yellowish. What condition does the professional discuss with the patient?
A)Basal keratosis
B)Seborrheic keratosis
C)Keratoacanthoma
D)Actinic keratosis
Q2) What clinical manifestations do allergic contact and stasis dermatitis have in common?
A)Petechiae and hyperpigmentation
B)Edema and vesicular lesions
C)Scaling and crusting of lesions
D)Erythema and pruritus
Q3) Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin?
A)Histiocytes
B)Fibroblasts
C)Mast cells
D)Macrophages
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Chapter 48: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Escherichia coli
D)Candida albicans
Q2) The healthcare professional is educating a parenting class on Koplik spots? What information is most appropriate to include? (Select all that apply.)
A)Koplik spots are associated with rubeola.
B)They appear as white spots.
C)The lesions are surrounded by a red ring.
D)The lesions of Koplik spots are large in size.
E)Koplik spots are primarily found on buccal mucosa.
Q3) Which contagious disease is caused by the itch mite?
A)Miliaria
B)Tinea corporis
C)Pediculosis
D)Scabies
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Q1) What is the final outcome of impaired cellular metabolism?
A)Cellular alterations in the heart and brain
B)Buildup of cellular waste products
C)Cellular alterations in the vasculature structures and kidneys
D)Impairment of urine excretion
Q2) What assessment finding would indicate to the healthcare professional that the patient is no longer in burn shock?
A)Blood pressure 100/58 mmHg
B)Pulse rate 98 beats/min
C)Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min
D)Urine output 35 mL/hour for 4 hours
Q3) A healthcare professional is determining the disposition of four burn patients in the Emergency department. Which patients will the professional refer to the burn center? (Select all that apply.)
A)Partial thickness burn 20% TBSA
B)Burn of the genitals
C)Lightening injury
D)Both arms burned
E)Concomitant trauma
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Chapter 50: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Children
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23 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46481
Sample Questions
Q1) A child has a burn injury. What does the healthcare provider assess for when determining the child's chance of surviving?
A)Immunosuppression
B)Hypermetabolism
C)Inhalation injury
D)Hypertrophic scarring
Q2) Which behaviors in newborns would support the possibility of shock? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreased heart rate variability
B)Temperature instability
C)Hyperalertness
D)Increased muscle tone
E)Hypoglycemia
Q3) A 2-year-old is in shock. The healthcare professional assesses the child's heart rate as 52 beats/min. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)Get an ECG.
B)Increase the intravenous rate.
C)Sedate the child.
D)Begin CPR.
52
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