Biology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Biology is the scientific study of life and living organisms, encompassing their structure, function, growth, evolution, distribution, and taxonomy. This course explores the foundational concepts of biology, including cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology. Students will gain an understanding of the diversity of life forms, their complex interactions with each other and their environments, and the molecular mechanisms that underlie biological processes. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and discussions, students will develop critical scientific thinking and problem-solving skills essential to the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ecosystem includes both living and nonliving components.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is an example of categorical data that an ecologist might record for a bird?
A)beak length
B)feather colour
C)wingspan
D)feather number
Answer: B
Q3) A hypothesis is an integrated set of theories.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The biotic and abiotic components of the environment interacting together are referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: ecosystem
Q5) The ________ forms the basic unit in ecology.
Answer: individual organism
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Solar radiation is more direct in tropical latitudes than in temperate latitudes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Habitability
A)is the ability of an organism to survive in a particular habitat.
B)is the ability of the physical environment to support life.
C)is the ability of the organism to take in resources.
D)is the ability of the physical environment to change.
Answer: B
Q3) An east-west oscillation in weather patterns across the Pacific Ocean is referred to as the ________-Southern Oscillation.
Answer: El Niño
Q4) Mean global temperatures change with latitude and season.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) As altitude above sea level increases, both air pressure and density ________. Answer: decrease
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Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ of water is the amount of heat that is required to raise the temperature of water one degree Celsius.
Answer: specific heat
Q2) Water is the dominant environment on Earth and covers ________ of the Earth's surface.
A)25 percent
B)50 percent
C)75 percent
D)95 percent
Answer: C
Q3) The turnover rate of water in the atmosphere is nearly 3000 years.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Aquifers, like the High-Plains Ogallala aquifer, provide a limitless supply of water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a soil is ________.
Q2) Clay particles and salts tend to accumulate in the ________ horizon.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)O
Q3) The movement of solutes through the soil is known as ________.
Q4) Cryosols are characteristic of the high latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Tree roots growing through rock and splitting the rock into smaller pieces is an example of mechanical weathering.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ is the process of maximum leaching from the E horizon of a soil profile.
Q7) Explain and give examples of how mechanical and chemical weathering lead to the formation of soils.
Q8) The vertical reduction or ________ of light through a stand can be estimated by leaf area index.
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ individual has the same alleles at the same locus on homologous chromosomes.
Q2) The acquisition of ________ is probably the most fundamental constraint to life.
Q3) The total collection of alleles across all individuals in a population at any one time is called the ________.
Q4) Humans have contributed to the prevalence of resistant bacteria by inappropriate use of antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Under which of the following conditions would genetic drift exert the greatest influence?
A)a population with a large range
B)a small population
C)a very large population
D)a population that has access to sufficient resources
Q6) ________ mating occurs when individuals choose mates non-randomly.
Q7) Changes due to developmental plasticity are reversible.
A)True
B)False
Q8) ________ is the movement of individuals between local populations. Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plants growing in shade tend to allocate more to leaf production than to root production compared to plants growing in full sun.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Net carbon uptake per unit time by a plant is directly related to
A)the difference between photosynthetic rate and respiration rate.
B)photosynthetic rate.
C)respiration rate.
D)the difference between photosynthetic rate and decomposition rate.
Q3) The process of converting CO into organic molecules is called A)respiration.
B)assimilation.
C)photosynthesis.
D)none of the above.
Q4) The drier the air outside a leaf, the faster water will be lost from the leaf through the stomata.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The portion of sunlight that is available to plants for photosynthesis is called
9
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Colder climates tend to have larger-sized homeotherms. This trend is stated as
A)the rule of diminishing returns.
B)temperature/size trade-off.
C)Bergmann's rule.
D)Hardy-Weinberg principle.
Q2) Use an example to explain how poikilotherms change behaviour and exploit microclimates to regulate body temperature.
Q3) Which of the following is a feature that allows for long-distance transport of oxygen to animal cells?
A)brain
B)heart
C)stomach
D)mouth
Q4) The regulation of body temperature by internal metabolism is called ectothermy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ of body fluids takes place when the body temperature falls below the freezing point without actually freezing.
Q6) Use an example to explain the strategy used by a temporal heterotherm.
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the advantage of the ability of an organism to possess both male and female organs.
Q2) The reproductive strategy in which relatively few young are produced at repeated intervals during an individual's life is referred to as
A)semelparity.
B)iteroparity.
C)altricial.
D)precocial.
Q3) Explain why siblicide is common among bird species when resources are rare. Why is this an effective strategy under these conditions?
Q4) The more seeds a plant produces in a single reproductive episode, the ________ of each seed.
A)greater the probability of survival
B)smaller the size
C)greater the size
D)more irregular the shape
Q5) Describe the different strategies (S, C, and R)as presented in Grime's model of life history variation in plants.
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual plant is often more difficult to recognize than an individual animal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A uniform distribution of individuals within a population occurs if each individual's position is independent of others' positions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of an intentionally introduced species that is a serious threat to diversity in Canadian wetlands is the
A)gypsy moth.
B)purple loosestrife.
C)leafy spurge.
D)zebra mussel.
Q4) Intentional, directional movement between two locations or habitats is called A)migration.
B)dispersal.
C)relocation.
D)cyclic movement.
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In logistic growth, the level at which population growth ceases is referred to as the A)threshold of security.
B)Malthusian parameter.
C)saturation point.
D)carrying capacity.
Q2) What is the Allee effect? Give several examples that illustrate the potential catastrophic impact of small size on population persistence.
Q3) What is the significance of constructing a life table to an ecologist? What information is required to develop a life table and what is this information used for?
Q4) A population in which equals one has reached a stable-age distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Exponential growth is characteristic of populations that inhabit favourable environments at high densities.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ is the study of populations.
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fecundity is unrelated to body size.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The form of competition in which some competing individuals claim enough resources while denying others a share is called
A)scramble competition.
B)contest competition.
C)exploitation competition.
D)interference competition.
Q3) Which statement about stress is incorrect?
A)Stress increases as population density increases.
B)Stress may trigger the release of specific chemical signals or pheromones.
C)Stress can stimulate growth and increase the rate of reproduction.
D)Stress may result in increased vulnerability to disease.
Q4) In general, the size of an animal's territory
A)is smaller when food is abundant and concentrated.
B)is larger when food is abundant and concentrated.
C)is unrelated to animal body size.
D)is unrelated to food availability.
Q5) Explain root grafts in jack pine stands. How are they like altruism?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors can synchronize metapopulation dynamics?
A)environmental stochasticity
B)prevention of dispersal
C)death of immigrants
D)heterogeneous patch quality
Q2) In a metapopulation, the probability of (re)colonization increases with
A)increasing patch size and increasing isolation.
B)increasing patch size and decreasing isolation.
C)decreasing patch size and increasing isolation.
D)decreasing patch size and decreasing isolation.
Q3) Explain how territory fragmentation effects survival of metapopulations.
Q4) Contrast sink and source populations. Discuss the importance of source-sink dynamics to species conservation.
Q5) At the ________, or within-patch scale, individuals move and interact with each other in the course of their routine feeding and breeding activities.
Q6) Population densities are usually ________ in smaller species than in large species.
Q7) The extinction rate (E)of a metapopulation ________ as the proportion of patches occupied (P)increases.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how it is possible for a diversity of potential competitors to coexist in the same community, despite the competitive exclusion principle.
Q2) Because all plants require the same few resources (light, water, essential nutrients), resource partitioning is rarely observed for plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Changes in the outcome of competition over an environmental gradient are mediated by multiple environmental variables.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Competition can be difficult to demonstrate in the field because it is difficult to know whether populations are at or below their carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the significance between generalists and specialists when describing niche compression and competitive release.
Q6) Explain what is meant by a transplant experiment.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Predation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered an evolved defence of prey against predators?
A)cryptic colouration
B)Batesian mimicry
C)flashing colouration
D)character displacement
Q2) What is the primary prediction of the basic Lotka-Volterra equations of predator-prey interactions? Is this prediction realistic? Does it fit with our observations of predators and prey in nature?
Q3) The sigmoidal relationship between prey density and per capita predation rate in a type III functional response can be explained by all of the following factors, EXCEPT
A)prey access to refuge.
B)predator preference.
C)recognition of prey by predator.
D)predator density.
Q4) Use a real or hypothetical example to describe coevolution. What happens when a predator and/or its prey is unable to respond appropriately?
Q5) ________ is the consumption of one living organism by another.
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Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Draw a graph that illustrates the impact of one species on the carrying capacity of another according to the Lotka-Volterra models of mutualism.
Q2) Hemiparasites are plants that do not conduct photosynthesis because they obtain water and nutrients from another host plant.
A)True B)False
Q3) In a commensalistic relationship between two species, both species benefit. A)True B)False
Q4) A ________ lives on or within the host organism for some period of its life.
Q5) Plant parasites that are photosynthetic but draw water and nutrients from their host plant are referred to as A)mycorrhizae.
B)vectors.
C)parasitoids.
D)hemiparasites.
Q6) The relationship between ants and acacias represents a pollination mutualism. A)True B)False
18
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Variation in environmental conditions within a community, or environmental ________, can have a strong influence on the diversity of a community.
Q2) Explain the difference between bottom-up and top-down control of community structure. Do you think one or the other is most important, or some combination of both? Why?
Q3) In a well-stratified lake in summer, the second layer of water, characterized by a steep and rapid decline in temperature with depth, is called the A)epilimnion.
B)metalimnion.
C)hypolimnion.
D)benthic zone.
Q4) A set of interconnected food chains with linkages representing a wide variety of species interactions is referred to as a food ________.
Q5) The removal of a single species from a community can have unpredictable consequences.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a forest community, the upper layer is called the ________.
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organismal concept of communities argues that species distributions along environmental gradients form clusters because they are interdependent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Autogenic environmental change is a direct result of the organisms within a community.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The view of communities as species responding independently to the underlying features of the environment, rather than being interdependent, is referred to as the ________ concept of communities.
A)autogenic
B)organismal
C)individualistic, or continuum
D)allogenic
Q4) Explain the difference between the organismal concept of communities and the individualistic continuum concept. Which do you think most accurately describes real communities and why?
Q5) Outline and describe the three proposed mechanisms used in early succession.
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Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals can function as agents of disturbance. A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify and describe three forms of anthropogenic disturbance, specifying what type of damage results from each.
Q3) Discuss the differences in diversity between large and small habitat patches. What are the reasons for these differences?
Q4) The ________ effect refers to the rich diversity of life that occurs along the border between adjacent habitat patches, represented by species from both adjacent patches and species adapted to edge habitats.
Q5) Large habitat patches typically contain more species than smaller habitat patches. A)True
B)False
Q6) A wide transition zone between one patch and another, in which the characteristics of one patch blend gradually with the characteristics of the other, is called a(n)________.
Q7) Discuss the major ecological differences between edge species and interior species.
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tilman found that monocultures always out-performed mixed communities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A key element in BEF is that diversity drives ecosystem function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stress thresholds that, once surpassed, shift an ecosystem into an alternative stable state are known as
A)critical variables.
B)essential nutrients.
C)tipping points.
D)tolerance limits.
Q4) Competition for below ground resources is considered to be asymmetric because larger plants have a disproportionate advantage in competition for those resources.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why the ecosystem can be considered the basic unit of nature.
Q6) Compared to a manufactured system, outline how biological systems differ.
Q7) Explain the ecosystem concept. How is it different from population ecology?
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Sample Questions
Q1) An inverted biomass pyramid may exist in aquatic systems because
A)zooplankton are much larger than phytoplankton.
B)phytoplankton are heavily grazed and biomass can't accumulate.
C)more energy is inputted through allochthonous processes.
D)of none of the above. This cannot happen as it goes against the 2 law of thermodynamics.
Q2) ________ primary production is the total rate of photosynthesis, or energy assimilated by plants.
Q3) In a grazing food chain, energy flow is unidirectional, whereas in a detrital food chain, energy is recycled.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ law of thermodynamics states that energy is neither created nor destroyed.
Q5) Explain the difference between primary production and secondary production. How is secondary production affected by primary production?
Q6) In a body of water, the depth at which the availability of light is such that the rate of photosynthesis equals the rate of respiration is called the ________ depth.
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Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the nutrients in the leaves of a deciduous plant are lost when the leaves senesce and drop to the ground.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In ________, the process of nutrient cycling is sometimes described as nutrient spiraling.
A)streams and rivers
B)oceans
C)lakes
D)forests
Q3) Soil organic matter typically has a residence time of ________ years.
A)1 - 2
B)20 - 50
C)50 - 100
D)> 1000
Q4) Decomposition proceeds faster in moist environments than in dry environments.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using nitrogen cycling, explain the feedback between primary production and decomposition.
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Describe how ozone is formed at different levels of the atmosphere and how biological organisms are affected by ozone.
Q2) Carbon dioxide occurs in both the atmosphere and in oceans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The atmosphere is the largest pool of nitrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outline possible anthropogenic influences on forest dieback.
Q5) Of the carbon actively involved in the global cycle, most is in the oceans.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe a pathway of nitrogen from the atmosphere into the body tissue of an herbivore.
Q7) Explain the difference between the two basic types of biogeochemical cycles, using specific examples of each.
Q8) The difference between the rate of carbon uptake in photosynthesis and the rate of carbon loss due to autotrophic and heterotrophic respiration is the net ________ productivity.
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) The dry forests of tropical regions are referred to as tropical savannahs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the differences in structure and climate between tropical rain forest and dry tropical forest.
Q3) In the tropical latitudes, the length of the dry season increases with distance from the equator.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tundra occurs only at high latitudes in polar regions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Topographic features, such as mountains and valleys, influence the climate of a region.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Temperate shrublands are the dominant biomes in regions with a Mediterranean climate.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) A lake that forms through tectonic movement is known as a ________ lake. A)tarn
B)kettle
C)oxbow
D)rift
Q2) The organisms living on the bottom of the ocean are collectively referred to as A)nekton. B)benthos. C)meiofauna. D)epifauna.
Q3) Invertebrates that feed on the algal coating of stones and rubble in streams and rivers are referred to as A)shredders. B)gougers. C)grazers. D)collectors.
Q4) In lakes and ponds, the primary place of decomposition occurs in the ________ zone.
Q5) Describe the types of organisms and biological activities that occur within the littoral, limnetic, and benthic zones of a lake.
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) Freshwater wetlands dominated by emergent herbaceous vegetation are called
Q2) In rocky shore communities of the ocean, the supralittoral or supratidal zone is covered and uncovered daily by the tides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tiny organisms living between the particles of sand and mud on beaches are collectively referred to as ________.
Q4) Outline the interacting components that have led to the degradation of the Coote's Paradise Marsh in Lake Ontario. Can it recover?
Q5) In peatlands, the rate of decomposition exceeds the rate of organic production. A)True
B)False
Q6) Mangrove swamps
A)are formed by a single species of tree adapted to variable salinities.
B)have relatively anoxic soils.
C)occur mostly in temperate latitudes.
D)typically occur along rocky coastlines subjected to heavy wave action.
Q7) Discuss the flow of water and nutrients in three topographic types of wetlands.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) The strategy of harvesting a resource at a rate equal to the rate at which it is renewed is referred to as the maximum ________ yield.
Q2) Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resources, and give two examples of each.
Q3) One of the strengths of traditional models of sustainable harvest in fisheries is that they see stocks of fish species as components of a larger ecological system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amount of resource harvested per unit time is called the A)crop. B)yield.
C)take.
D)net harvest.
Q5) Increased pesticide use is one component of efforts toward sustainable farming practices today.
A)True B)False
Q6) Explain how a natural ecosystem 'manages' its nutrients.
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) Small species of mammals are more vulnerable to extinction than large species of mammals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A species with a 20% or greater probability of extinction within 20 years or 5 generations, whichever is longer, is considered to be a(n)________ species.
Q3) Discuss three major causes of modern species extinctions. Which is the primary cause?
Q4) As structural diversity within plant communities increases, the number of animal species ________.
Q5) As latitude increases, marine productivity ________.
Q6) In terrestrial habitats, species richness is negatively correlated with primary productivity.
A)True B)False
Q7) The primary cause of current species extinctions is the destruction of ________.
Q8) Aquatic environments are not affected by the introduction of exotic species.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Q1) Deforestation is a major cause of the recent rise in concentrations of the atmospheric gas ________.
Q2) Plants usually react to increased atmospheric carbon dioxide by increasing their rate of ________.
Q3) The albedo of vegetation is higher than it is for snow and ice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Within the past century, the major source of carbon emissions into the atmospheric has been
A)deforestation.
B)volcanic eruptions.
C)the combustion of fossil fuels.
D)forest fires.
Q5) Most species of agricultural crops will benefit from a rise in carbon dioxide concentrations by increasing crop yields.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The atmospheric concentration of ________ has increased by more than 25% in the past century, largely due to the burning of fossil fuels.
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