Course Introduction
Biology Laboratory Review
Questions
Biology Laboratory is a practical course designed to complement theoretical biology studies through hands-on experimentation and observation. Students engage in a variety of laboratory techniques, including microscopy, dissection, measurement, data collection, and analysis. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, experimental design, proper use of laboratory equipment, and safe laboratory practices. Through collaborative experiments, students deepen their understanding of core biological concepts such as cell structure, genetics, physiology, and ecology, while developing essential laboratory skills necessary for future scientific research and study.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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55 Chapters
2000 Verified Questions
2000 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between experimental replicates and experimental controls?
A)Replicates are "repeat" samples under a given condition.
B)Replicates decrease sample size.
C)All replicates in an experiment are found under the control conditions.
D)All replicates differ from other replicates by a single factor.
Answer: A
Q2) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning.He asks for your help.You say that you think the battery must be dead,and that if so,then jump-starting the car from a good battery will solve the problem.In doing so,you are _____.
A)only stating a hypothesis for why the car won't start
B)searching for observations that might inspire a hypothesis for why the car won't start
C)stating both a specific hypothesis about why the car won't start and a prediction of the hypothesis
D)performing an experimental test of a hypothesis for why the car won't start
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrogen (N)normally forms only three covalent bonds because it has a valence of five.However,ammonium has four covalent bonds,each to a different hydrogen (H)atom (H has a valence of one).Make a sketch of this molecule.Count the number of electrons in your sketch.Compare this number to the number of valence electrons in one N and four H's.What do you predict to be the charge on this molecule?
A)+1
B)-1
C)+2
D)-2
Answer: A
Q2) Why are some reactions exothermic?
A)The products have lower potential energy than the reactants.
B)They are spontaneous.
C)They are nonspontaneous.
D)The products have higher entropy (are more disordered)than the reactants.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several of the molecules called vitamins act as enzyme cofactors.Vitamin deficiencies cause disease.What is the most direct explanation for this?
A)Vitamins combine with nonprotein molecules to delay the onset of disease.
B)If cofactors are missing,enzymes cannot function properly,and important reaction products will be absent from cells.
C)Normal regulation cannot occur in the absence of cofactors.As a result,all enzymes will function all of the time.
D)Cofactors inhibit enzymes found in disease-causing bacteria and viruses.When cofactors are absent,these disease-causing agents multiply.
Answer: B
Q2) What aspects of amino acid structure vary among different amino acids?
A)the long carbon-hydrogen tails of the molecule
B)the presence of a central C atom
C)the components of the R-group
D)the glycerol molecule that forms the backbone of the amino acid
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Sample Questions
Q1) When nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid _____.
A)a covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second
B)a hydrogen bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second
C)covalent bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides
D)hydrogen bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides
Q2) Which of the terms or phrases below apply to both DNA and RNA?
A)an information-containing structure
B)shows primary,secondary,tertiary,and quaternary structure
C)is the most common type of organic molecule to catalyze chemical reactions in cells
D)All of the above apply.
Q3) What feature of mononucleotides provides the energy needed for polymerization when nucleic acids are formed?
A)their methyl groups
B)their sugar groups
C)their nitrogenous bases
D)their phosphate groups
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peptidoglycan forms sheets that stiffen the cell walls of bacteria.How is the formation of sheets possible?
A)The polysaccharides in peptidoglycan are highly branched and form a network.
B)The glycosidic linkages between monosaccharides in peptidoglycan are extraordinarily strong.
C)Individual strands are joined by peptide bonds a type of covalent bond.
D)The polysaccharides in peptidoglycan form helical structures,as in cellulose.
Q2) Which of these best reflects the following relationship: Monosaccharide versus polysaccharide?
A)glucose versus glycogen
B)glucose versus fructose
C)1,4-glycosidic linkage versus 1,6-glycosidic linkage
D) -linkage versus -linkage
Q3) A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?
A)an amino group
B)a peptide bond
C)a disulfide bond
D)a -pleated sheet
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sodium-potassium pumps _____.
A)move three potassium ions and two sodium ions while producing an ATP for each cycle
B)move two potassium ions and three sodium ions while consuming an ATP for each cycle
C)produce ATP for cells while making the outside of cell membranes negatively charged
D)use ATP molecules to move protons to the inner side of cell membranes
Q2) Steroids such as cholesterol are an important component of animal cell membranes but do not actually form the membrane.Why?
A)The ring structure of steroids is too bulky to form a membrane.
B)Lipids that form membranes are amphipathic with a polar region and a nonpolar region.
C)Steroids cannot interact with other molecules,which is required to form a cell membrane.
D)Steroids are too permeable to charged molecules to form a cell membrane.
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small intestine is the site of digestion and absorption of nutrients.A single layer of epithelial cells lines the small intestine.In the duodenum (the first section of the small intestine),these epithelial cells secrete large quantities of digestive enzymes.Which of the following features would you expect to find in these epithelial cells?
A)They would contain large numbers of lysosomes.
B)They would have more smooth endoplasmic reticulum than rough endoplasmic reticulum.
C)They would contain large quantities of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
D)They would have larger nuclei than cells that secrete large quantities of lipids.
Q2) What can you infer about a high molecular weight protein that cannot be transported into the nucleus?
A)It is too large.
B)It lacks a nuclear localization signal (NLS).
C)It contains errors in its amino acid sequence.
D)It lacks a signal sequence.
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteocytes are bone cells.Collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance between and among the osteocytes.The collagen and calcium salts are _____.
A)components of the plasma membrane of osteocytes
B)part of the extracellular matrix
C)extensions of the endoplasmic reticulum
D)deposited by the circulatory system but not associated with the osteocytes
Q2) Of the following,where would you expect to find tight junctions?
A)in the epithelium of an animal's stomach
B)between the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)between plant cells in a woody plant
D)in the plasma membrane of prokaryotes
Q3) What does it mean to say that a signal is transduced?
A)The signal enters the cell directly and binds to a receptor inside.
B)The physical form of the signal changes between the outside of the cell and the inside.
C)The signal is amplified,such than even a single molecule evokes a large response.
D)The signal triggers a sequence of phosphorylation events inside the cell.
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10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis is active when cellular energy levels are _____;the regulatory enzyme,phosphofructokinase,is _____ by ATP.
A)low;activated
B)low;inhibited
C)high;activated
D)high;inhibited
Q2) Fatty acids usually have an even number of carbons in their structures.They are catabolized by a process called beta-oxidation.The end products of the metabolic pathway are acetyl groups of acetyl CoA molecules.What is the most likely fate of the acetyl groups?
A)They directly enter the electron transport chain.
B)They directly enter the energy-yielding stages of glycolysis.
C)They are directly decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase.
D)They directly enter the Krebs cycle.
Q3) The first CO that is released during aerobic cellular respiration is _____.
A)during glycolysis
B)between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
C)during the Krebs cycle
D)just after the Krebs cycle
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b?
A)Chlorophyll a is a pigment,and chlorophyll b is the enzyme that transfers excited electrons from chlorophyll a to electron carriers of the thylakoid membrane.
B)Chlorophyll a absorbs yellow light,and chlorophyll b absorbs green.
C)Chlorophyll a contains a Mg in its ring structure,whereas chlorophyll b contains iron.
D)Chlorophyll a and b absorb light energy at slightly different wavelengths.
Q2) The proteins of the electron transport chain active in the light-dependent reactions
A)are membrane proteins present in the thylakoid
B)are free proteins present in the thylakoid lumen
C)are considered to be part of the reaction center of photosystem I
D)absorb the same wavelengths of light as their associated chlorophylls
Q3) Chlorophylls absorb light in which colors of the visible range?
A)green and blue
B)blue and red
C)green and red
D)violet and red
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis.For mitosis to take place _____.
A)the parent cell must first dissolve its nuclear membrane
B)the parent cell must first replicate its entire genome
C)the parent cell must first achieve a specified size
D)the parent cell must divide its DNA in half so that each daughter cell gets only the genes it needs
Q2) The microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle.Specifically,it is known as which of the following?
A)microtubulin
B)centrosome
C)centromere
D)kinetochore
Q3) The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in _____.
A)splitting of the cell (cytokinesis)following mitosis
B)triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes
C)dissolving the nuclear membrane
D)separation of sister chromatids
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phase of meiosis would the cell first become haploid because homologous chromosomes
Separate?
A)anaphase I
B)metaphase I
C)anaphase II
D)telophase II
Q2) Meiosis involves the creation of haploid cells from diploid cells.The haploid chromosome number is created when _____.
A)homologous chromosomes separate
B)the S phase of the cell cycle is bypassed during meiotic interphase
C)sister chromatids separate
D)ova and sperm go through their respective maturation processes
Q3) Adaptation to a changing environment occurs most efficiently through which of the following processes?
A)mutation
B)asexual reproduction and genetic recombination
C)sexual reproduction
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14
Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) In birds,sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme that is much like the typical XY scheme seen in humans and many other organisms,except that the system is reversed:
Males are ZZ (similar to XX in humans)and females are ZW (similar to XY in humans).A lethal recessive allele that causes death of the embryo occurs on the Z chromosome in pigeons.What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
A)1:1 male to female
B)4:1 male to female
C)3:1 male to female
D)1:2 male to female
E)2:1 male to female
Q2) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 12 black offspring.When the albino was crossed with a second black animal,6 blacks and 6 albinos were obtained.What is the best explanation for this genetic situation?
A)Albino is recessive;black is dominant.
B)Albino is dominant;black is incompletely dominant.
C)Albino and black are codominant.
D)Albino is recessive;black is codominant.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent studies have shown that xeroderma pigmentosum (an error in the nucleotide excision repair process)can result from mutations in one of seven genes.What can you infer from this finding?
A)There are seven genes that produce the same protein.
B)These seven genes are the most easily damaged by ultraviolet light.
C)There are several enzymes involved in the nucleotide excision repair process.
D)These mutations have resulted from translocation of gene segments.
Q2) Who performed the classic experiments that proved DNA was copied by semiconservative replication?
A)Watson and Crick
B)Meselson and Stahl
C)Hershey and Chase
D)Franklin and Wilkins
Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
Q4) What is a telomere?
A)the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together
B)DNA replication during telophase
C)the site of origin of DNA replication
D)the ends of linear chromosomes
Page 16
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codons,the three base sequences that code for specific amino acids,are part of
A)protein
B)mRNA
C)tRNA
D)rRNA
Q2) Refer to Figure 15.5.If a DNA sequence is GAG,then the amino acid it codes for is
A)phenylalanine
B)methionine
C)aspartic acid
D)histidine
Q3) Refer to Figure 15.4.Homocystinuria is a genetic disorder that results from a defect in one of the enzymes of the metabolic pathway shown.The gene for which enzyme/molecule is most likely defective?
A)methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase
B)methionine synthase
C)tetrahydrofolate reductase
D)cystathione beta synthase
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Figure 16.3.What is the function of the ACC sequence at the 3' end?
A)It attaches to the amino acid.
B)It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.
C)It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.
D)It is the active site of this ribozyme.
Q2) If RNA polymerase is missing _____ then transcription initiation would not occur but elongation could.
A)amino acids
B)mRNA
C)sigma
D)the holoenzyme
Q3) During elongation,RNA polymerase has three prominent channels,or grooves.These channels provide sites for all of the following,except _____.
A)a site for the double-stranded DNA molecule
B)a site for the entry of ribonucleoside triphosphates
C)a site for the exit of the diphosphates removed from the nucleotide triphosphates
D)a site for the growing RNA strand
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recall from Chapter 11 that cyclin-dependent kinases are activated when they bind to a cyclin protein.This form of regulation is _____.
A)constitutive control
B)transcriptional control
C)translational control
D)post-translational control
Q2) E.coli adenylyl cyclase is most active when _____.
A)extracellular glucose levels are low
B)intracellular levels of lactose are low
C)intracellular levels of lactose are high
D)intracellular levels of cAMP are high
Q3) Although the expression of most genes is tightly regulated,some genes are expressed at roughly constant rates (i.e. ,constitutively).Which of the following genes would you predict to be constitutively expressed?
A)genes involved in the biosynthesis of the amino acid tryptophan
B)genes involved in the degradation of tryptophan
C)genes involved in the degradation of arabinose,a sugar
D)genes that code for ribosomal RNAs
E)genes involved in the transport of the sugar maltose
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a biologist wanted to analyze the evolutionary relationship in a gene type that is found in both eukaryotes and bacteria,which of the following would NOT be useful?
A)histone coding genes
B)transfer RNA coding genes
C)ribosomal RNA coding genes
D)hexokinase coding gene for glycolysis
Q2) One way to detect alternative splicing of transcripts from a given gene is to _____.
A)compare the DNA sequence of this gene to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced
B)measure the relative rates of transcription of this gene compared to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced
C)compare the sequences of different primary transcripts made from this gene
D)compare the sequences of different mRNAs made from this gene
Q3) Regulatory transcription factors _____.
A)influence the binding of sigma factor to DNA
B)influence the assembly of the basal transcription complex
C)influence the degree of unwinding of DNA at the promoter
D)open the two strands of DNA so RNA polymerase can begin transcription
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the form of gene therapy used successfully for severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)-X1,the genetic engineering of human cells is done
A)by injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bloodstream
B)by injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bone marrow
C)by treating a relative's cultured bone marrow cells with genetically engineered viruses and then injecting these cells into the patient's bone marrow
D)by isolating the patient's bone marrow cells,infecting them with genetically engineered viruses,and injecting them back into the patient's bone marrow
Q2) Since dideoxy sequencing is based on the chain termination,why are normal deoxynucleotides also included in the reaction?
A)to enhance the chain termination ability of the deoxynucleotides
B)to provide a substrate for DNA polymerase
C)to produce a range of DNA synthesis products that terminate at every occurrence of a particular base
D)to create DNA synthesis products long enough to allow running a gel
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The figure above compares the proportion of genes devoted to various functions in a set of model organisms.Based on this figure,which one of the following statements is false?
A)The function of roughly half of eukaryotic genes is unknown.
B)Humans have the highest proportion of genes devoted to defense and immunity.
C)The mustard plant and yeast have a small fraction of genes devoted to cell communication.
D)A relatively small but similar proportion of genes are devoted to transcription and translation in all these organisms.
E)Drosophila is unusual in having so few genes devoted to protein folding and degradation.
Q2) The bulk of the sequence data in whole genome sequencing comes from _____.
A)relatively large (~ 160 kb)sequences cloned into BACs
B)relatively small (~ 1000 base-pair)sequences cloned into plasmids
C)whole chromosomes obtained without cloning
D)whole chromosomes cloned into plasmids
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was the experimental purpose of the preliminary genetic screening performed in which Nüsslein-Volhard and Wieschaus exposed adult fruit flies to treatments that would cause mutations in their offspring?
A)to evaluate the mutagenic properties of varied treatments
B)to discover the bicoid gene
C)to generate two-tailed fruit-fly embryos
D)to identify fruit flies with mutations in genes that control fruit-fly development
Q2) Communication within and between cells of an embryo can include all of the following except _____.
A)increased concentration of signaling molecules
B)changes in binding to regulatory sequences
C)changes in gene transcription
D)changes in gene sequences
Q3) When is a cell considered differentiated?
A)when a cell first becomes irreversibly committed to a particular fate
B)when a cell begins its pattern formation
C)when a cell manufactures proteins that are specific to a particular cell type
D)when a cell is part of recognizable tissues or organs
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) Which of the following is the most basic process in the developing embryo because all of the other processes listed can occur only after it,or in conjunction with it?
A)organogenesis
B)cell differentiation
C)mitosis
D)morphogenesis
E)germ layer formation
Q2) Many amphibian species release their sperm and eggs directly into a watery environment.All of the following mechanisms might ensure species-specific fertilization in these populations except _____.
A)acrosomal complexes in sperm
B)complex coverings of the egg
C)specific protein binding between sperm and egg
D)fertilization envelopes
E)blocking of non-species-specific mRNA sequences
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the expression of the PHAN gene is blocked in plants,what will be the likely result?
A)Plants will fail to develop leaves.
B)Plants will develop more leaves than usual.
C)Plants will develop leaves in very simple shapes.
D)Plants will develop leaves in inappropriate places.
Q2) The auxin produced in Arabidopsis embryos and Bicoid protein produced in Drosophila embryos have what similar function?
A)Both are regulatory transcription factors that serve as cell-to-cell signals.
B)Both are cytoplasmic determinants they are loaded into eggs by cells in the mother or by female reproductive tissues.
C)Both trigger the transcription of homeotic loci genes that specify the types of structures produced at a certain position.
D)Both establish a concentration gradient that demarcates the anterior-posterior axis.
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following,if discovered,could refute our current understanding of the theory of evolution?
A)no fossils of soft-bodied animals
B)a modern bird having reptile-like scales on its legs
C)radioactive dating of rocks close to the Earth's surface as younger than lower rock strata
D)fossils of animals that arose in the Cambrian in Precambrian rock strata
Q2) Tourist companies start visiting Island X,where a population of medium ground finches (see question 20)feeds on the tough-fruited Tribulus cistoides.The tourist companies set up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes),so that tourists can get a better look at the finches.Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on Island X?
A)evolution of yet larger,deeper beaks over time,until all birds have relatively large,deep beaks
B)evolution of smaller,pointier beaks over time,until all birds have relatively small,pointy beaks
C)increased variation in beak size and shape over time
D)no change in beak size and shape over time
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on whether the population in Figure 25.1 is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,the researchers had already noted that negligible mutation and migration existed in this milkweed population,and the toxin does not affect the butterflies that pollinate these plants.Which of the following would be a logical conclusion about this milkweed population?
A)Genetic drift and selection are negligible.
B)There is either a heterozygote advantage or stabilizing selection.
C)There is either directional selection or sexual selection.
D)There is either disruptive selection or inbreeding.
Q2) Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations?
A)lower average fitness in both populations
B)higher average fitness in both populations
C)increased genetic difference between the two populations
D)decreased genetic difference between the two populations
E)increased genetic drift
Q3) A beneficial point mutation occurs in a plant ovule,which is fertilized.The seed matures,falls to the ground,and starts to grow.Is the plant's population likely to show evolutionary change as a result of this mutation? Why or why not?
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Speciation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two researchers experimentally formed tetraploid frogs by fertilizing diploid eggs from Rana porosa brevipoda with diploid sperm from Rana nigromaculata.When they mated these tetraploid frogs with each other,most of the offspring that survived to maturity were tetraploid,with chromosome sets of both diploid parent species.Based on these results,if this type of tetraploid formed in the wild,what would be the result? (Y.Kondo and A.Kashiwagi.2004.Experimentally induced autotetraploidy and allotetraploidy in two Japanese pond frogs.Journal of Herpetology 38(3): 381-92. )
A)The two parent species would interbreed and fuse into one species.
B)The two parent species would recognize each other as mates.
C)The tetraploids would be reproductively isolated from both parent species.
D)The tetraploids would be selected against.
E)Any of the above answers could be correct,depending on the environment.
Q2) How are two different species most likely to evolve from one ancestral species?
A)sympatrically,by a point mutation affecting morphology or behavior
B)sympatrically,due to extensive inbreeding
C)allopatrically,due to extensive inbreeding
D)allopatrically,after the ancestral species has split into two populations
E)phylogenetically,due to heterozygote advantage in hybrids
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize?
A)a rare worm
B)a common worm
C)a rare squirrel
D)a common squirrel
Q2) Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids.She gives you tissue from seven orchid species and one lily.What is the most likely reason she gave you the lily?
A)to serve as an outgroup
B)to see if it's a cryptic orchid species
C)to see if the lily and the orchids show all the same shared derived characters (synapomorphies)
D)to see if you were paying attention
E)to demonstrate likely homoplasies
Q3) Which of the following likely has the most Hox genes?
A)jellyfish
B)slugs
C)dolphins
D)bees
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Bacteria able to perform the NH + NO N + 2H O reaction have been discovered laboratory bioreactors and wastewater treatment systems.Researchers predicted that these bacteria should exist in oceans.They measured the concentration of NH ,NO ,NO ,and O in the Black Sea as a function of water depth (M.Kuypers et al.2003 Anaerobic ammonium oxidation by anammox bacteria in the Black Sea.Nature 422: 608-11)to determine where in the sea the bacteria might live.Analyzing data presented in Figure 28.1 above,at what depth would you expect to find the bacteria? (Note: In the figure,different scales are used to show concentrations of NH ,NO ,NO ,and O . )
A)in the top 5 meters
B)in the top 50 meters
C)at a depth of 75 meters
D)at a depth of 92 meters
E)below 100 meters
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to lead to PSP (paralytic shellfish poisoning)?
A)dinoflagellates
B)Giardia
C)Plasmodium
D)Toxoplasma
E)diatoms
Q2) One of the fish in your aquarium dies.Adding which protist to the water would allow you to avoid flushing the dead fish by speeding its decay?
A)Apicomplexa
B)Dinoflagellata
C)Oomycota
D)Ciliata
E)Myxogastrida
Q3) Which of the following characteristics is true of all protists?
A)contain a nucleus
B)smaller than animal cells
C)unicellular
D)have a cell wall
E)photosynthetic
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Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Q1) An important fossil fuel is coal,much of which was formed when _____.
A)northern-latitude bogs accumulated peat
B)ancient angiosperms got buried under volcanic ash
C)huge gymnosperms were flooded by an inland sea
D)extensive forests of seedless vascular plants were buried and compressed
Q2) What two major novelties allowed for the first colonization of terrestrial habitats by plants?
A)roots and vascular tissue
B)cuticle and pores
C)roots and true leaves
D)vascular tissue and cuticle
E)tracheids and vessel elements
Q3) The closest relatives of the familiar pine and spruce trees are _____.
A)ferns,horsetails,lycophytes,club mosses
B)hornworts,liverworts,mosses
C)gnetophytes,cycads,ginkgoes
D)elms,maples,aspens
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Based on graphs (e)and (f)in Figure 31.5,which is the most well-supported prediction for the effect on total plant biomass if AMF diversity were increased to eight species?
A)No effect is predicted,because the dominant species is unaffected by AMF diversity.
B)Total biomass for eight species would double in comparison to that for four species.
C)Rare species would produce more biomass compared to the case when fewer AMF are present.
D)No effect is predicted,because the dominant species is non-mycorrhizal.
Q2) Some fungal species can kill herbivores while feeding off of sugars from its plant host.What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host?
A)parasitic
B)mutualistic
C)commensal
D)predatory
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development,how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome and not a deuterostome?
A)There is evidence of cephalization.
B)You see a well-developed coelom.
C)The animal is triploblastic.
D)The animal is clearly bilaterally symmetrical.
E)You see a mouth,but not an anus.
Q2) Suppose a researcher for a pest-control company developed a chemical that inhibited the development of an embryonic mosquito's endodermal cells.Which of the following would be a likely mechanism by which this pesticide works?
A)The mosquito would develop a weakened exoskeleton that would make it vulnerable to trauma.
B)The mosquito would have trouble digesting food,due to impaired gut function.
C)The mosquito would have trouble with respiration and circulation,due to impaired muscle function.
D)The mosquito wouldn't be affected at all.
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) What would be the best anatomical feature to look for to distinguish a gastropod from a chiton?
A)presence of a muscular foot
B)presence of a rasp-like feeding structure
C)production of eggs
D)number of shell plates
Q2) Look at the graph for Cormocephalus morsitans in Figure 33.2.What is the best interpretation of these results?
A)The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time.
B)The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time.
C)The centipede had its spiracles open when CO emission peaked and closed when CO emission was low.
D)The centipede had its spiracles closed when CO emission peaked and open when CO emission was low.
Q3) Which one of these mollusk groups can be classified as suspension feeders?
A)bivalves
B)gastropods
C)chitons
D)cephalopods
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) What group of mammals have (a)embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples,(b)young that feed on milk,and (c)a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta?
A)Eutheria
B)Marsupiala
C)Monotremata
Q2) Which of the following have distinct central disks and long,flexible arms?
A)class Crinoidea
B)class Holothuroidea
C)class Echinoidea
D)class Asteroidea
E)class Ophiuroidea
Q3) If you found a fossil fish and had dated it to 400 mya,what feature might indicate that it is actually younger than you first thought?
A)a bony exoskeleton
B)four limbs
C)a cartilaginous endoskeleton
D)jaws
E)a bony endoskeleton
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following could use reverse transcriptase to transcribe its genome?
A)ssRNA
B)dsRNA
C)ssDNA
D)dsDNA
Q2) Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus?
A)HIV infected humans long before AIDS first become a problem in the early 1980s,but it has now mutated to a more deadly form.
B)HIV mutates so rapidly that the virus of today has very little similarity to the virus in the first AIDS patients from the early 1980s.
C)HIV used to infect only chimps,but it has mutated in such a way that it now infects humans.
D)HIV is now starting to cause diseases other than AIDS,such as rare types of cancers and pneumonias.
Q3) The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virions during _____.
A)both the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle in all host organisms
B)the lysogenic cycle only
C)the lytic cycle only
D)the lytic cycle in all host organisms but the lysogenic cycle only in bacteria
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) What best describes the shape of the entire vascular cambium system in trees?
Visualizing a pine tree helps with this question.
A)hollow cylinder with a smaller diameter at the base of the tree
B)hollow cylinder with a smaller diameter at the top of the tree
C)solid column of cells with a smaller diameter at the base of the tree
D)solid column of cells with a smaller diameter at the top of the tree
Q2) Where is primary growth occurring in an old tree?
A)nowhere;trees have only secondary growth
B)closest to ground level at the base of the tree
C)in young branches where leaves are forming
D)where the vascular cambium and cork cambium are
Q3) In a meristematic region,the cell plate during mitosis is perpendicular to the side of the stem.In what direction will the stem grow?
A)laterally in width
B)vertically in height
Q4) Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between _____.
A)light collection and CO absorption
B)water retention and CO absorption
C)water retention and O absorption
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Water potential ( )can be thought of as the tendency for water to move from one place to another.In plants,it is made up mainly of solute potential and pressure potential.Hypothetical plant cells A and B are adjacent to each other.The solute potential ( S)of cell A is -0.35 MPa,and its pressure potential ( P)is +0.15 MPa.The solute potential ( S)of cell B is -0.30 MPa,and its pressure potential ( P)is +0.05 MPa.In which direction will net water movement occur?
A)Neither;cells A and B are in equilibrium with each other.
B)from cell A to cell B
C)from cell B to cell A
Q2) Which of the following is not a net sink for products of photosynthesis in a deciduous angiosperm tree?
A)leaves in early spring
B)flowers in summer
C)fruits in summer
D)roots in early spring
E)roots in early autumn
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) After mutagenesis and screening,you have found a mutant that is able to grow in soil with high salt content.Chemical analysis showed that this plant has a decreased amount of Na relative to normal plants.What kind of mutation do you predict this plant contains?
A)mutation in the plasma membrane sodium channel
B)mutation in the metallothioneins
C)mutation in the tonoplast sodium channel
D)mutation in the tonoplast antiporter
Q2) Both ectomycorrhizal fungi and rhizobia are able to supply plants with usable forms of nitrogen.From what sources do rhizobia and ectomycorrhizal fungi that are associated with plants obtain nitrogen?
A)Fungi absorb N from the atmosphere,and rhizobia obtain nitrogen by decomposition of organic material.
B)Fungi obtain nitrogen by decomposition of organic material,and rhizobia absorb N from the atmosphere.
C)They both absorb ammonia from soil,which they nitrify to NO .
D)They both obtain nitrogen by decomposition of organic material.
Q3) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) If a Venus flytrap were treated with a drug that inhibited the H -ATPase,which of the following would likely happen?
A)Its cells would become depolarized.
B)It would not be able to close its flytraps.
C)It would not be able to reopen its flytraps once closed.
Q2) What do phototropin and ABA have in common?
A)They induce stomata closing.
B)They regulate opening and closing of water pores in the plasma membrane.
C)They regulate activity of H -ATPases.
D)They are localized in the plasma membrane.
E)All of the above apply.
Q3) Antisense gene sequences can be used to block the transcription of specific genes in a cell or group of cells.Suppose you treated a seed with an antisense sequence that blocked the transcription of GAMyb transcription factor.What would happen to the seed?
A)It would germinate too soon.
B)It would not be responsive to gibberellins.
C)It would not make abscisic acid.
D)It would not grow a hypocotyl during germination.
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n = 12).What is true about the number of chromosomes in the cells of other tissues of this plant?
A)The sperm has 6 chromosomes.
B)The leaves and stems have 12 chromosomes.
C)The zygote has 12 chromosomes.
D)The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.
E)All of these answers apply.
Q2) Cottonwood,aspen,and willow trees have beige flowers,with no petals,that appear before the tree's leaves are out in the spring;and they are dioecious.What does that indicate about these trees?
A)Their insect pollinators are specialists.
B)Early emerging insects are probably the pollinators.
C)Their pollen is dispersed by wind.
D)The trees are self pollinating.
Q3) If a hypocotyl does not elongate during seed germination and early seedling growth,where will the cotyledons be?
A)above ground and above the seed
B)above ground and below the seed
C)in the ground with the seed coat
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about body size and physiology?
A)The amount of food and oxygen an animal requires and the amount of heat and waste it produces are inversely proportional to its mass.
B)The rate at which an animal uses nutrients and produces waste products is independent of its volume.
C)Small and large animals face different physiological challenges because an animal's body mass increases cubically while its surface area increases as a squared function.
D)The wastes produced by an animal double as its volume doubles,and triple as its surface area triples.
Q2) Which one of the following is not a good strategy for increasing the surface area of an object relative to the volume?
A)increase the amount of branching
B)increase the amount of folding
C)enlarge and make more spherical
D)make flatter
E)None of these are good strategies.
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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) Hagfish (Eptatretus cirrhauts)are a jawless marine vertebrate that are isotonic with their environment and are considered to be osmoconformers.How might this interesting adaptation limit the habitat that the hagfish can tolerate?
A)Hagfish are not limited by salinity.
B)Osmoconformers do not face the same osmoregulators pressures as osmoregulators and can live in any marine environment.
C)Individual hagfish will adapt to different salinities over their lifetime and therefore can inhabit any marine environment.
D)Hagfish habitat is limited by the salinity of the environment.
Q2) What is the function of the shark rectal gland?
A)It is involved in osmoregulation.
B)It is responsible for excretion of undigested residue.
C)It secretes a hypotonic solution.
D)It concentrates electrolytes necessary for homeostasis in a hypertonic environment.
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) The active ingredient orlistat acts to decrease the amount of fat that is absorbed by attaching to enzymes that digest fat.Which of the following are potential targets of orlistat?
A)salivary amylase
B)pepsidase
C)pancreatic lipase
D)secretin
Q2) The chemical digestion of proteins begins where?
A)in the mouth
B)in the stomach
C)in the small intestine
D)in the bloodstream
Q3) From the nutrition information contained on the label above,you can infer that apple juice would be useful in the treatment of which of the following vitamin deficiencies?
A)beriberi
B)scurvy
C)anemia
D)rickets
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) What adaptations are observed in trachea and lungs to reduce water loss?
A)A countercurrent exchange system reduces water loss in animals with either trachea or lungs.
B)The location of the trachea and lungs (inside of the body)reduces water loss.
C)Trachea and lungs secrete specialized oxygen-carrying chemicals to reduce water loss.
D)Limbs are used by animals with trachea or lungs to move water over these structures.
Q2) An animal has a cardiac output of 40 mL/min and a stroke volume of 5 mL.What is its heart rate?
A)8 beats/minute
B)200 beats/minute
C)12.5 beats/minute
D)Heart rate cannot be determined with only these two variables.
Q3) Which of the four muscular chambers of the human heart directly propels blood into the pulmonary circulation?
A)right atrium
B)right ventricle
C)left atrium
D)left ventricle
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) A neurophysiologist is investigating nerve reflexes in two different animals a crab and a fish.Action potentials are found to pass more rapidly along the fish's neurons.What is the most likely explanation?
A)The fish's axons are smaller in diameter;small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do.
B)Unlike the crab,the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin.
C)There are more ion channels in the axons of the crab compared with fish axons.
D)Unlike the crab,the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin,and the fish's axons are smaller in diameter;small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do.
Q2) If twice as many inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)as excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in close proximity,is the integration of signals by the postsynaptic neuron likely to produce an action potential?
A)Yes
B)No
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) Researchers surgically fuse two of the three ossicles in the inner ear of a mouse,effectively leaving two functional,linked ossicles in place of three.When the mouse's hearing is tested,what outcome would be expected?
A)The mouse would be more sensitive to sound,but only in the low-frequency range.
B)The mouse would be more sensitive to sound,but only in the high-frequency range.
C)The mouse would be more sensitive to sound in general.
D)The mouse would be less sensitive to sound in general.
Q2) Compared to human eyes,the eyes of cephalopods (squid and octopus)_____.
A)are extremely similar,with no significant differences
B)are not camera eyes and do not have a single lens
C)are inferior because they have few photoreceptors
D)do not have a blind spot
Q3) When a doctor tests your patellar reflex by tapping the tendon on the front of your knee,your lower leg comes forward.Which muscle relaxes in this reflex?
A)hamstring (located in the back of your thigh)
B)quadriceps (located in the front of your thigh)
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following hormones does not act using a second messenger system?
A)glucagon
B)leptin
C)testosterone
D)growth hormone
Q2) You are dissecting a fish in your biology laboratory section.Your teaching assistant points out a long oval structure and tells you it is an endocrine gland.Which of the following would you then know is a true statement about this structure?
A)It secretes a product that is carried in the bloodstream or other fluids to target cells.
B)The gland's product will only interact with receptors on the cell membrane.
C)The gland's product is lipid soluble.
D)The gland produces and secretes its product.
Q3) Polypeptides can have which of the following types of effects?
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)all of the above
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the reproduction of males in Daphnia?
A)Daphnia males are produced asexually from unfertilized eggs.
B)Daphnia males are produced sexually through fertilization of eggs but are sterile from birth.
C)Daphnia males are produced from a pseudo-sexual union of two eggs.
D)Daphnia males are produced asexually but are sterile from birth.
Q2) Aquatic animals that rely on external fertilization for reproduction have a low probability of successful fertilization.Which one of the following is not used by aquatic animals to increase the success of external fertilization?
A)release of pheromones to synchronize gamete release
B)production of a large number of gametes that are released simultaneously
C)moving onto land for fertilization
D)elaborate courtship rituals to synchronize gamete release
Q3) Secretions from which part of the male reproductive anatomy in humans produces molecules that stimulate smooth muscle contractions in the uterus of females?
A)prostate gland
B)seminal vesicles
C)bulbourethral gland
D)testes
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is a difference between B cells and T cells?
A)One has a major role in antibody production,while the other has a major role in cytotoxicity.
B)One uses a receptor called BCR,while the other recognizes a receptor called TCR.
C)B cells are activated by free-floating antigens in the blood or lymph.T cells are activated by membrane-bound antigens.
D)T cells are produced in the thymus and B cells are produced in the bone marrow.
Q2) A boy falls while riding his bike.A scrape on his hand almost immediately begins to bleed and becomes red,warm,and swollen.What response is occurring?
A)inflammatory response
B)lytic response
C)adaptive immune response
D)recist tumor response
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Which is a likely biotic factor limiting songbird distribution in Hawaii to alpine habitats?
A)temperature
B)oxygen content
C)moisture
D)insects causing fatal diseases in songbirds at lower altitudes
Q2) Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors?
A)speciation ecology
B)population ecology
C)community ecology
D)ecosystem ecology
E)None of the above focuses on abiotic factors.
Q3) Wetlands are standing bodies of freshwater,just like lakes and ponds.However,wetlands are different from lakes and ponds because _____.
A)wetlands have shallow water
B)wetlands have emergent vegetation
C)wetlands have oxygen-poor water
D)wetlands have shallow water and emergent vegetation
E)wetlands have emergent vegetation and oxygen-poor water
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Why should a female barn swallow choose a male with long tail feathers?
A)The long tail feathers may indicate superior flying ability.
B)The male will be able to provide her with more food during courtship.
C)The female will be less likely to compete with the male for food because he will be foraging in different parts of their territory.
D)The male may be able to better protect her from predators.
E)The female's offspring might grow more rapidly and survive better.
Q2) How could you test whether male dewlaps (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an anole lizard's throat)were an important cue for female egg production?
A)Remove dewlaps from females and measure corresponding egg production.
B)Relate size of male dewlap to female dewlap.
C)Remove dewlaps from courting males and measure corresponding female egg production.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Which animal is best known for migration using chemotaxis?
A)pigeons
B)arctic terns
C)salmon
D)monarch butterflies
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) In Figure 52.3,which of the lines represents exponential growth?
A)line A
B)line B
C)line C
D)line D
E)all of the above
Q2) It is estimated that snow geese will be able to sustain an r of 0.088 indefinitely.If the flock currently contains 3000 individuals,how long will it take to double?
A)7)9 years
B)34.1 years
C)264 years
Q3) The study of factors that determine the size and structure of populations through time is called _____.
A)population ecology
B)immigration and emigration
C)demography
D)populations
E)logistic growth
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) What does the graph in Figure 53.7 tell you about the definition of a keystone species?
A)A keystone species has little interaction with other species in an environment.
B)Removing a keystone species from the community drastically reduces diversity.
C)Adding a keystone species to the community will make it more robust.
D)A keystone species added to the community can make it more robust.
E)Removing a keystone species from the community will eventually allow for the invasion of a new species.
Q2) In looking at Figure 53.1,what conclusions can be drawn?
A)Species 1 outcompetes species 2 for small seeds.
B)Both species compete for seeds of intermediate size.
C)Both species compete for all sizes of seeds.
D)Both species compete for all sizes of seeds other than those of intermediate size.
E)Species 1 is not capable of cracking open large seeds.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Considering its total area covered,which ecosystem type represented in Figure 54.3 has a very low level of economic impact on Earth's ecosystem?
A)tropical wet forest
B)rock,sand,and ice
C)tropical seasonal forest
D)ocean neritic zone
Q2) Considering the global nitrogen cycle depicted in Figure 54.9,what is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants?
A)industrial nitrogen fixation
B)nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans
D)nitrogen fixation by bacteria
Q3) Regarding soil and organic matter in humus,which of the following statements is true?
A)Humus is composed of inorganic nutrients,and organic matter is composed only of organic matter.
B)Soil organic matter is completely decayed.
C)Completely decayed soil organic matter is called humus.
D)Eventually,the nutrients in soil organic matter are converted to organic form.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455
Sample Questions
Q1) How can biodiversity affect the way we decontaminate industrial sites?
A)Bacteria have been found to be able to detoxify certain chemicals;perhaps there are more.
B)Trees produce sawdust,which can be used to soak up chemicals.
C)Species evolving in contaminated areas could adapt and detoxify the area.
D)None of the answers given is correct.
Q2) In looking at Figure 55.6,what can be said about edge effects?
A)Biomass declines along edges of forest fragments.
B)Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.
C)Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.
D)Fragmentation does not affect biomass.
Q3) Based on Figure 55.2,what snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by a king brown snake?
A)taipan
B)common brown snake
C)red-bellied black snake
D)death adder
E)tiger snake
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