Biology in Society Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Biology in Society explores the fundamental principles of biology and examines their impact on individuals, communities, and global issues. This course investigates how biological knowledge informs debates on health, environment, biotechnology, and ethics. Students will analyze case studies such as genetic engineering, climate change, and disease outbreaks to understand the relationships between scientific discoveries and societal decisions. Through discussions and activities, the course fosters scientific literacy and critical thinking about the role of biology in shaping contemporary society.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Biology for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Michele Shuster
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42 Chapters
4375 Verified Questions
4375 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Process of Science Java Report
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of a scientific hypothesis EXCEPT
A) it is an opinion.
B) it is an educated guess to explain an observation.
C) there must be a way to test the hypothesis.
D) there must exist a possibility of obtaining a result that could prove your hypothesis wrong.
E) there must exist a possibility of obtaining a result that could support your hypothesis.
Answer: A
Q2) You have two experiments to review.One looks at 1000 of the 1,000,000 rabbits in an area.The other study looks at 100 of the 100,000 wolves in an area.Is one study more statistically accurate than the other? Why or why not?
Answer: Neither,they both looked at 1 out of every 1000 individuals.
Q3) Experiments with a small sample size are ____ likely to produce statistically significant results than experiments with a large sample size.
Answer: less
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Chapter 2: Chemistry and Molecules of Life Mission to Mars
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Sample Questions
Q1) A substance that is dissolved in water is called a A) solute.
B) solution.
C) solvent.
D) suspension.
E) salt.
Answer: A
Q2) If you add salt to water,how does that affect the freezing point?
Answer: It can lower it to as low as minus 50 degrees Fahrenheit.
Q3) An element's identity is defined by its
A) protons.
B) neutrons.
C) electrons.
D) protons and neutrons.
E) protons and electrons.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Function and Structure Wonder Drug
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Sample Questions
Q1) What were Fleming's initial observations about organisms on a Petri dish that led him to discover penicillin?
A) A zone of clearing formed around bacterial colonies.
B) Bacterial mycelium inhibited mold growth.
C) Fungal colonies grew around bacterial colonies.
D) Bacteria inhibited the growth of mold.
E) A mold inhibited the growth of bacterial colonies.
Answer: E
Q2) Plants and some fungi have a cell wall,as do bacteria.Why,then,does penicillin only affect bacteria?
Answer: Penicillin works by interfering with the formation of peptidoglycan,and only bacteria use peptidoglycan in the formation of their cell walls.
Q3) Define osmosis.
Answer: Water crosses a semipermeable membrane to dilute a solute that is unable to cross the membrane.
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Chapter 4: Nutrition,metabolism,enzymes the Peanut Butter Project
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells utilize these macromolecules for energy requirements.
A) nucleotides
B) sugars
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids
E) carbohydrates
Q2) Many traditional diets are based on a combination of a grain and a legume (e.g.,corn and beans,rice and lentils).Eaten together,the grain and legume provide complete protein for the human diet.This means that they have all the ______________ needed by humans.
A) essential amino acids
B) vitamins and minerals
C) essential enzymes
D) full-length proteins
E) essential nutrients
Q3) Lactose is a sugar found in milk that is made of two simple sugars bonded together.If someone is lactose intolerant,they cannot digest lactose into its two parts.What,specifically,do you imagine is the cause for this problem?
Q4) What is the difference between a catabolic reaction and an anabolic reaction?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy Flow and Photosynthesis the Future of Fuel
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first stage of photosynthesis converts sunlight energy into A) kinetic energy.
B) glucose.
C) chemical energy.
D) heat.
E) water.
Q2) A rock sitting on top of a hill has _____ energy.While rolling down the hill the rock would have _____ energy.
A) potential; chemical
B) kinetic; kinetic
C) kinetic; potential
D) potential; kinetic
E) kinetic; potential
Q3) Visible light has wavelengths in the range of
A) 100-450 nm.
B) 300-675 nm.
C) 375-920 nm.
D) 400-750 nm.
E) 600-900 nm.
Q4) Why are fossil fuels considered non-renewable energy?
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Chapter 6: Dietary Energy and Cellular Respiration
Supersize Me
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Sample Questions
Q1) You go outside and take a walk down the street and back.Which of the following are you most likely to be using for energy?
A) fat
B) glycogen
C) nucleic acids
D) protein
E) triglycerides
Q2) The outputs for aerobic respiration are
A) glucose, carbon dioxide, and oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide, water, and energy.
C) oxygen, water, and glucose.
D) carbon dioxide and energy.
E) glucose, oxygen, and energy.
Q3) If a child is born without mitochondria,can the cells still make ATP? If so,what process(es)will the cell use to make ATP,and what will be the waste product(s)?
Q4) An average bacon,lettuce,and tomato sandwich contains 20g of fat,35g of carbohydrate,and 10g protein.How many calories are coming from each of these three?
Q5) Define calorie and Calorie.Which of these is the term used in food labels?
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Replication Biologically
Unique
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are chromosomes located in eukaryotic cells?
A) cytoplasm
B) nucleus
C) specialized protein sacs
D) tightly wrapped together
E) centromeres
Q2) The "coding" region of DNA is the DNA sequence that
A) encodes a specific protein sequence.
B) is unique among individuals.
C) provides a genetic "fingerprint," because of individual variation.
D) encodes a specific carbohydrate sequence.
E) encodes the double-helix shape.
Q3) Why can DNA extraction be a very painstaking process for forensic scientists?
A) It can be difficult to obtain enough cells in a sample to yield enough DNA.
B) Samples can become contaminated with foreign DNA from improper handling.
C) Samples stored improperly can degrade too much to be used.
D) Samples from the crime scene may contain DNA from multiple individuals.
E) All of the above
Q4) Forensic scientists create DNA profiles using non-coding DNA sequences known as
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Chapter 8: Genes to Proteins Medicine From Milk
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Sample Questions
Q1) CAU is a(n)
A) codon.
B) anticodon.
C) amino acid.
D) nucleic acid.
E) protein.
Q2) Which statement is FALSE?
A) Some proteins contain more than one amino acid chain.
B) A protein's function can be altered by just one amino acid change.
C) The side chains of amino acids are responsible for protein folding.
D) All proteins begin with the amino acid methionine.
E) All proteins fold into the same basic three-dimensional shape.
Q3) A mutation in a gene results in a protein with a distorted three-dimensional structure.What is the likely effect of that mutation on the cell,and why?
Q4) What happens when a chromosome is finished making mRNA?
Q5) Put the following terms in the order they would be needed when a gene is expressed: amino acid,DNA,mRNA,protein,ribosome,transcription,tRNA
Q6) Compare anticodons and codons.
Q7) Explain the function of DNA.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Cell Division and Mitosis Natures Pharmacy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomes pull apart because the spindle gets shorter during this stage.
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase
Q2) Sister chromatids are held together by
A) a chromomere.
B) a chromosome fiber.
C) a centromere.
D) a centrosome.
E) a centriole.
Q3) Where do cancer cells differ in their cell cycle from normal cells?
Q4) In drawings of chromosomes,the "X" shape indicates that
A) the DNA has been replicated.
B) two sister chromatids exist.
C) cell division hasn't yet occurred.
D) the cell is probably ready for mitosis.
E) All of the above.
Q5) Why would a chromosome condense during mitosis?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Mutations and Cancer Fighting Fate
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that copies DNA makes a mistake approximately every 10,000 to 100,000 bases.Surprisingly,however,if we examine newly copied DNA,we see that the actual error rate is lower than this.How is that possible?
A) The bases are self-correcting; the DNA will fix any errors as it is copied.
B) The cell is immediately killed if it contains a mistake in its DNA.
C) There are other enzymes that find errors in DNA and repair them.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q2) Why aren't all mutations that occur in DNA inherited by our offspring?
A) Only mutations in the DNA contained in the sperm and eggs will be inherited.
B) Each cell has different DNA in it, with only the genes that cell needs.
C) DNA that is mutated can't be inherited; the cell corrects it before passing it on.
D) DNA that is inherited can't have more than one mutation in it.
E) Some mutations occur in noncoding regions of genes, so they are not inherited.
Q3) Mutations in a gene can lead to the development of new ______ for the gene.
Q4) How can mutations in BRCA1 lead to an accumulation of mutations in the cell?
Q5) Why do people become more likely to develop cancer as they age?
Q6) What is a carcinogen?
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Chapter 11: Single-Gene Inheritance and Meiosis Rock for a Cause
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sister chromatids are held together at the A) kinetochore.
B) centrioles.
C) chromosome.
D) centromere.
E) centrosome.
Q2) A woman has a child with cystic fibrosis,but she is unsure who the father is.One possible father has cystic fibrosis and the other does not.Is paternity certain? Why or why not?
Q3) In a cross between two heterozygous parents for two genes,what is the chance that any progeny will be homozygous recessive for both traits?
A) 9:16
B) 1:16
C) 1:4
D) 1:1
E) 1:32
Q4) What impact can protein misfolding have on its normal function?
Q5) Explain the role of a modifier gene.
Q7) What is the difference between genotype and phenotype? Page 13
Q6) Explain how males inherit more DNA from their mothers than from their fathers.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Complex Inheritance Qa: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zygotes with _______ usually cannot survive until birth.
A) three X chromosomes
B) a single X chromosome
C) no X chromosome
D) two X chromosomes
E) an X and a Y chromosome
Q2) Why do investigators use the Y chromosome for genetic analysis?
A) The Y chromosome is technically easier to extract from cells than the X chromosome.
B) The Y chromosome rarely undergoes genetic recombination because there is no homologous partner.
C) The X chromosome passes through generations largely unchanged and is therefore useless for tracking mutations
D) The Y chromosome mutates easily allowing ancestry to be traced over many generations.
E) When the X chromosome recombines with the Y chromosome the Y chromosome more accurately reflects inheritance from both parents
Q3) Is it possible for a female to be color blind? Why or why not?
Q4) Explain why the incidence of aneuploidy increases as a woman's age increases.
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Stem Cells and Cell Differentiation Grow Your
Own
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an egg is fertilized by a sperm,all of the following result,EXCEPT
A) a cell that will continue to divide, giving rise to all the cells of the body.
B) a mass of cells that will include stem cells.
C) a cell that will divide and give rise to cells with different DNA.
D) a cell that will divide and give rise to cells with the exact same DNA.
E) All of the above occur.
Q2) Differential gene expression is
A)use of a unique set of genes in each cell type.
B)the pathway to a cells specialization.
C)required for different cell types.
D)required for a cells function and physical shape.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Induced pluripotent stem cells have been created by
A) inserting four genes into a differentiated skin cell.
B) inserting 18 genes into an embryonic stem cell.
C) starting with a blastocyst cell.
D) inserting "dedifferentiating" proteins into an adult stem cell.
E) None of the above.
Q4) Explain the difference between therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Natural Selection and Adaptation Bugs That Resist Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human birth weight is an example of
A) directional selection.
B) diversifying selection.
C) guided selection.
D) stabilizing selection.
E) uniform selection.
Q2) Binary fission is a form of
A) nuclear division.
B) aerobic reproduction.
C) anaerobic reproduction.
D) asexual reproduction.
E) sexual reproduction.
Q3) What would the outcome be if a homogeneous (no variation)antibiotic-sensitive strain of S.aureus was grown in the presence of antibiotics? Why?
Q4) What is decreased as a result of stabilizing selection?
A) the middle phenotypic range of variation
B) one extreme of the phenotypic variation range
C) the most suited phenotypic range
D) population growth
E) the range of phenotypic variation
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Chapter 15: A: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium you can conclude that all populations are evolving. Explain.
Q2) Human populations are known to isolate themselves from other groups based on cultural identity,language religion,etc.Some of these communities in North America include the Ashkenazi (descendants of European Jewish communities,Yiddish speakers),the Cajun population of Louisiana,the Arcadian population of Canada,and the Old Order Amish community of Pennsylvania.One in every 27 members of the Ashkenazi community,the Cajun population of Louisiana,the Arcadian population of Canada,and the Old Order Amish community of Pennsylvania carry the recessive Tay Sachs gene (Tay Sachs disease is caused by a recessive mutation on chromosome 15,and children with Tay Sachs rarely live beyond age 5),but this recessive gene is only found in 1 of every 250 people in the general North American population.Explain the high incidence of Tay Sachs among the Ashkenazi,Cajun,Arcadian,and Old Order Amish populations.
Q3) Which of the following are types of nonadaptive evolution?
A) natural selection
B) bottleneck effect
C) founder effect
D) Both B and C
E) A, B, and C
Page 18
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Chapter 15: B: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic bottlenecks can be caused by A) flood.
B) extreme temperatures.
C) hunting.
D) overfishing.
E) All of the above.
Q2) What would be advantageous for reducing genetic bottleneck effects?
A) geographic isolation
B) control the founder population
C) a large, genetically diverse population
D) a small, actively reproducing population
E) natural disasters
Q3) Which of the following is likely to result in the GREATEST loss of allelic diversity?
A) losing 25% of a population of 100 individuals
B) losing 50% of a population of 100 individuals
C) losing 25% of a population of 1000 individuals
D) losing 50% of a population of 1000 individuals
E) All of the above.
Q4) Why is mitochondrial DNA slower to change than nuclear DNA?
19
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Chapter 16: Evidence for Evolution a Fish With Fingers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is TRUE of fossil formation?
A) Fossils may only form when an animal is buried in sediment.
B) Fossils may only form when an animal dries out.
C) Fossils may only form if the organism is preserved quickly.
D) Fossils may only form if the hard parts of the body mineralize.
E) Fossils may only form if soft tissue remains intact.
Q2) The most direct evidence of evolution comes from
A) radiometric dating.
B) homologous skeletons.
C) mitochondrial DNA.
D) similar mating habits.
E) the fossil record.
Q3) If a protein is found in humans,chimps,birds,fish,and tetrapods,in which did it most likely evolve?
A) humans
B) chimps
C) fish
D) tetrapods
E) birds
Q4) What circumstances would keep an animal from becoming a fossil?
Page 20
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Chapter 17: Life on Earth Qa: Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) India was an island _____ million years ago.
A) 500
B) 1
C) 65
D) 135
E) 245
Q2) What percentage of lead-206 would a 9-billion-year-old rock have?
Q3) Compare today's temperatures with the temperature of the planet when life first began.
Q4) Which element has the longest half-life?
A) rubidium-87
B) lead-214
C) uranium-238
D) carbon-14
E) potassium-40
Q5) List the three currently recognized domains of life.
Q6) If fossils are most often found in sedimentary rock but sedimentary rock cannot be aged using radiometric methods,then how can a scientist know how old a fossil is?
Q7) Why are there no polar bears in the Antarctic?
Page 21
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Chapter 18: Prokaryotic Diversity Lost City
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods is the most reliable way to identify a new species of prokaryote?
A) differences in membrane structure and composition
B) differences in cell surface proteins and carbohydrates
C) differences in DNA sequences
D) differences in ribosomal RNA
E) differences in proteins
Q2) Define nitrogen fixation,what types of organisms are responsible for fixing nitrogen,and explain the importance of nitrogen fixation to life on Earth.
Q3) Why are scientists so interested in studying the microbes that inhabit microbial vents?
Q4) What is the advantage of keeping food refrigerated? Please be very specific.
Q5) Why do scientists who collect microbes from hydrothermal vents have to be so careful when handling those microbes on the surface? Specifically,what about the surface is so dangerous for the microbes?
Q6) Describe the process of serpentinization.
Q7) Explain the role of heterotrophic bacteria in recycling nutrients.
Q8) List at least three important differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: A: Eukaryotic Diversity Rain Forest Riches
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sunny,south-facing slopes of the Olympic Mountains are relatively dry.In the forests there,you would expect to find
A) relatively few bryophytes, but numerous ferns, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.
B) fewer bryophytes and ferns than gymnosperms and angiosperms.
C) fewer ferns than bryophytes, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.
D) fewer gymnosperms than bryophytes, ferns, and angiosperms.
E) fewer angiosperms than bryophytes, ferns, and gymnosperms.
Q2) All of the following are true of algae,EXCEPT
A) they are plants.
B) some are single celled.
C) some are multicelled.
D) they are autotrophs.
E) they lack adaptations for living on land.
Q3) What feature do all members of Eukarya share?
A) They have a cell wall.
B) They can move.
C) They live on land.
D) They have a nucleus.
E) They live in extreme environments.
Q4) List three of the four kingdoms belonging to domain Eukarya.
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Chapter 19: B: Eukaryotic Diversity Rain Forest Riches
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of algae,EXCEPT
A) they are plants.
B) some are single celled.
C) some are multicelled.
D) they are autotrophs.
E) they lack adaptations for living on land.
Q2) These single-celled fungi can ferment sugars or cause disease.
A) yeast
B) shelf fungi
C) molds
D) truffles
E) mushrooms
Q3) List three of the four kingdoms belonging to domain Eukarya.
Q4) Which of the following lists plant terrestrial adaptations from earliest to most recent?
A) vascular, seeds, flowers, and cones
B) nonvascular, vascular, seeds, and flowers
C) nonvascular, seeds, vascular, and flowers
D) vascular, seeds, flowers, and nonvascular
E) vascular, seeds, nonvascular, and flowers
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Chapter 20: Human Evolution Skin Deep
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Sample Questions
Q1) It would be expected that a population geographically located where UVB exposure is minimal to have a skin tone that is
A) very light.
B) light.
C) medium.
D) dark.
E) very dark.
Q2) How is mitochondrial DNA different from nuclear DNA?
Q3) What fact was used to determine that mitochondrial Eve is every human's ancestor?
A) Only males pass on mitochondrial genes in the sperm.
B) The sperm and egg's chromosomes undergo meiosis and independent assortment.
C) Only females pass on mitochondrial genes in the egg cell.
D) The sperm contains mitochondria in its flagella, which is passed on to the zygote.
E) Egg cells have no mitochondria to be passed on to the developing zygote.
Q4) If humans had evolved in northern climates,what do you think humans would look like today in terms of body hair and skin pigmentation?
Q5) Why is mitochondrial DNA inherited only from the mother?
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Page 25
Chapter 21: A: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in natural resources will ____.
A) increase the carrying capacity
B) stimulate an increase in reproductive rate
C) cause a reduction in habitat area
D) decrease the carrying capacity
E) eliminate the population
Q2) The term _______ describes the interacting populations (e.g.,moose and ticks)within an ecosystem.
A) competition
B) community
C) niche
D) habitat
E) predator-prey relationships
Q3) What is the difference between a community and an ecosystem?
Q4) You are discussing population growth with a friend who says that once you know how many deer can live in 100 square miles in your state,then you know that is the same number of deer that can live in 100 square miles anywhere in the country.Do you agree or disagree? Explain your answer.
Q5) What defines an ecosystem?
Page 26
Q6) Explain how temperature,ticks,moose,and wolves are all related.
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Chapter 21: B: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Sample Questions
Q1) A species of highly territorial individuals with limited territory and a large population is most likely to have a ____ distribution.
A) random
B) linear
C) spherical
D) clumped
E) uniform
Q2) With the current ability of people to travel widely and even relocate across the globe,what does the term population mean in the human context? How many human populations exist on the planet? Explain your answer.
Q3) How can an abiotic factor be a density-dependent factor as well? Give an example.
Q4) Which would NOT be examined in the study of a community?
A) prey population
B) predator population
C) trees and vegetation
D) rainfall and drought
E) All of the above.
Q5) Describe the method used to assess moose population size on Isle Royale.
Page 28
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Chapter 22: A: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are parts of the male reproductive system of an angiosperm?
A) anthers, stigma, and style
B) stamen, pollen, anthers, and filament
C) ovule, style, and ovary
D) pollen, stamen, style, and anther
E) style, stamen, and ovule
Q2) When a coyote eats a mouse,approximately how much of the mouse's energy is converted into coyote tissue?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
E) 20%
Q3) What is a keystone species and why are they so important?
Q4) If only 10% of the energy available in a plant is turned into body tissue of a cow,what happens to the other 90%?
Q5) Explain how human activities are causing honey bee populations to decline.
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Q6) Earth can support more people who are vegetarians than people who regularly consume meat.Why do you think this is?
Chapter 22: B: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given what you know about moose and wolf ecology on Isle Royale,would you consider one of these species to be a keystone species? If so,which one? Explain your answer.
Q2) The economic value of crops pollinated by honey bees was estimated in 2000 to be
A) $14 billion.
B) $14 million.
C) $1 million.
D) $4 billion.
E) $4 million.
Q3) Without honey bees humans would lose all of the following foods,EXCEPT A) apples.
B) broccoli.
C) carrots.
D) corn.
E) onions.
Q4) The relationship between bees and plants is mutually beneficial to both species.Why? What does each species gain from the relationship?
Q5) List and define the three types of symbioses possible between organisms.
Q6) What is a keystone species and why are they so important?
Q7) Name at least three factors implicated in causing colony collapse disorder. Page 30
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The range of the sugar maple tree can be predicted to migrate______ because of global warming.
A) southwest
B) west
C) north
D) south
E) east
Q2) Explain how planting forests can help reduce global warming.
Q3) Canadian production of maple syrup is increasing because of A) marketing.
B) government subsidies.
C) improved technologies.
D) climate change.
E) All of the above.
Q4) Some animals have a very broad,varied diet,while others have very specialized diets.Which type of diet do you think will allow an animal to adapt to climate change the easiest? Explain your answer.
Q5) Explain why the Arctic and Antarctic have warmed twice as much as other regions of the world.
Q6) Explain how the greenhouse effect warms Earth and list two greenhouse gases.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT a naturally occurring greenhouse gas?
A) methane
B) carbon dioxide
C) water vapor
D) nitrous oxide
E) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Q2) Scientists project that the temperature in the Arctic may rise by______ in the next century.
A) 1° - 2°C
B) 2° - 4°C
C) 4° -7°C
D) 8° - 10°C
E) 10° - 12°C
Q3) Canadian production of maple syrup is increasing because of A) marketing.
B) government subsidies.
C) improved technologies.
D) climate change.
E) All of the above.
Q4) Explain how planting forests can help reduce global warming.
Page 33
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Chapter 24: A: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three drawbacks of using nuclear power and two advantages.
Q2) Which contains the most freshwater on our planet?
A) glaciers and ice caps
B) rivers and streams
C) oceans
D) aquifers
E) groundwater
Q3) How do trees and green rooftops fit into a plan for an environmentally friendly city?
Q4) Between 1970 and 2005,the number of individuals in the populations studied by the World Wildlife Fund decreased by
A) 12%.
B) 23%.
C) 30%.
D) 46%.
E) 58%.
Q5) Even if the United States could meet all of its energy demands from renewable energy resources,do you think it is best to rely on one or two sources or a great variety of sources? Explain your answer.
Q6) Explain how a vegetarian diet can reduce water use.
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Chapter 24: B: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ecological footprints calculate
A) the amount of water and fossil fuel needed to support producers and consumers.
B) the amount of land needed to support a population and absorb their waste.
C) the amount of carbon that consumers require and produce as waste.
D) the amount of land and water a population requires to produce the resources it consumes and assimilate the waste it produces.
E) the damage left on an environment from using natural resources unwisely by a population.
Q2) Where is the most freshwater located on our planet?
A) North America
B) Antarctica
C) Greenland
D) Australia
E) Asia
Q3) Describe how water cycles on Earth.
Q4) Even if the United States could meet all of its energy demands from renewable energy resources,do you think it is best to rely on one or two sources or a great variety of sources? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 25: A: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical response of the human body to cold is for blood vessels ______ to ______.
A) near the skin's surface; dilate
B) in the body's core; dilate
C) near the skin's surface; constrict
D) in the body's core; constrict
E) near the skin's surface; shiver
Q2) The hypothalamus is
A) the size of a lemon.
B) located in the throat.
C) in the frontal lobe of the brain.
D) located at the base of the brain.
E) part of the liver.
Q3) What is an effector?
Q4) Which of the following is most similar in function to whale blubber?
A) a bird's feathers
B) a snake's scales
C) a bat's brown fat
D) a bat's white fat
E) a human's muscles
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Chapter 25: B: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the information presented in your text about blood-glucose regulation,it is reasonable to infer that
A)the pancreas regulates fat metabolism.
B)glucagon is stored in the liver in reaction to high blood glucose.
C)glycogen is made up of glucose subunits.
D)A and B.
E)B and C.
Q2) Explain how vasodilation cools the body.
Q3) What is the proper order for the following four events? I.glucagon is released
II)blood glucose drops
III)insulin is released
IV)blood glucose rises
A) IV, I, II, III
B) III, IV, I, II
C) II, III, IV, I
D) III, I, II, IV
E) I, IV, III, II
Q4) An organ is composed of different _________ types that work together to carry out a common function.
Q5) Name the types of animal tissues.
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Chapter 26: Digestive System Drastic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The definition of stool is ________.
Q2) Compare and contrast plant nutrition to our nutrition,noting where food comes from,how it is used and stored,and where nutrients come from.
Q3) The organ where most absorption occurs is the _______.
Q4) Dietary fiber is digested in the __________.
A) colon
B) stomach
C) small intestine
D) mouth
E) liver
Q5) Which organ stores and secretes bile salts,which help break down fat?
A) pancreas
B) liver
C) duodenum
D) gallbladder
E) rectum
Q6) If you were morbidly obese,would you try gastric bypass,gastric banding,or diet modification without surgery? Explain your answer.
Q7) What is pepsin?
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Chapter 27: A: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholesterol in the blood must be carried by LDL or HDL because of what property?
A) It is hydrophilic lipid.
B) It is a hydrophobic lipid.
C) It is a hydrophilic specialized protein.
D) It is a hydrophobic specialized protein.
E) Cholesterol is a lipid-protein complex that must bind LDL or HDL to be able to reside in blood.
Q2) Which of the following describes the main differences between fish and human circulation of blood throughout the body?
A) Humans have a four-chambered heart and fish have a two-chambered heart.
B) Humans, unlike fish, must move blood from the atrium to the ventricle, which supplies the blood pressure.
C) Fish, unlike humans, must overcome a lowering of blood pressure as the blood is oxygenated before it goes directly to the systemic body.
D) A and C
E) All of the above are hurdles.
Q3) If the heart is full of blood,why must the heart have its own dedicated blood supply?
Q4) What is the primary function of the combined cardiovascular system structures?
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Chapter 27: B: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Q1) What cultural differences and/or changes in our society can lead to an increase in BMI (body mass index)and a corresponding increase in cardiovascular disease?
A) There is a decrease in physical activity due to distractions such as TV.
B) Food portion sizes have increased, and so, there are a larger number of calories being eaten.
C) Diets high in cholesterol and saturated fats tend to concentrate in certain regional diets.
D) Limited physical activity tends to be concentrated in regions where the climate does not allow for outdoor exercise.
E) All of the above.
Q2) If the heart is full of blood,why must the heart have its own dedicated blood supply?
Q3) ___________ move blood away from the heart and ____________ return blood to the heart.
A)Arteries; veins
B)Veins; arteries
C)Pulmonary circuits; systemic circuits
D)Systemic circuits; pulmonary circuits
E)Veins; veins
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Chapter 28: Respiratory System Peak Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What sickness can develop when the oxygen-carrying homeostasis is abruptly altered due to a quick change in the partial pressure of oxygen?
A) altitude sickness
B) recovery training
C) asthma
D) anemia
E) barometric sickness
Q2) Aerobic respiration powered by the oxygen supplied through the cardiovascular system produces what product necessary for the cell?
A) carbon dioxide
B) glucose
C) fermentation products
D) diffusion
E) ATP
Q3) Blood flow in the gill filament of a fish moves in the opposite direction of the water.Why does this flow make sense considering where the gas exchange is occurring?
Q4) Why does high altitude not affect sprint athletes as much as it does endurance athletes who have trained only at sea level?
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Chapter 29: A: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Q1) Nicotine causes a release of _______ in the brain.
A) melatonin
B) boron
C) neurons
D) dopamine
E) ephedrine
Q2) In the propagation of an action potential,the entering of ________ into the neuron stimulates _________.
A)sodium ions; entering of more sodium ions
B)potassium ions; entering of sodium ions
C)sodium ions; entering of potassium ions
D)A and C.
E)None of the above.
Q3) The amygdala processes _______.
A) temperature fluctuations
B) input from the olfactory nerves
C) fear and anxiety
D) the sex drive
E) memory and learning
Q4) The root word in dendrite means "tree." Explain why this is an appropriate name.
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Chapter 29: B: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ control contractions of skeletal muscle.
A) Interneurons
B) Glial cells
C) Potassium ions
D) Motor neurons
E) Skeletal neurons
Q2) Having fewer dopamine receptors is associated with _______.
A) chronic abuse of many drugs
B) longer times to complete a straight-line walking test
C) chronically low dopamine levels
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q3) The arrival of an action potential at an axon terminal stimulates _______.
A) the release of sodium ions
B) the uptake of neurotransmitters
C) the release of neurotransmitters
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q4) What is a neurotransmitter?
Q5) What is the role of the myelin sheath in a neuron?
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Chapter 30: Reproductive System Too Many Multiples
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most males have ________ testes.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
E) 3
Q2) All of the following are potential causes of human male infertility,EXCEPT ________.
A) low testosterone
B) abnormal sperm
C) meiosis
D) varicose veins
E) erectile dysfunction
Q3) The vas deferens connects the ________ and the testes.
A) prostate gland
B) ureter
C) urethra
D) penis
E) seminiferous vesicles
Q4) Describe the journey of a sperm from its production to ejaculation.
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Chapter 31: Immune System Viral Mysteries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first time we are exposed to a pathogen,we often become ill because
A) we can't build an immune response the first time we are exposed to a pathogen
B) our primary immune response takes 7 to 10 days to develop
C) our secondary immune response takes 7 to 10 days to develop
D) our immune systems are weak
E) A and D
Q2) Excessive inflammation in the lungs is potentially deadly because _________.
A) it can cause the buildup of fluid and dead cells in the air spaces of the lungs, preventing gas exchange from taking place
B) the buildup of white blood cells shuts down blood supply to the lungs; oxygen can't enter the blood and tissues
C) dilated blood vessels collapse and can't carry oxygen to body tissues
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
Q3) You have a friend who is sure that she gets the flu from the flu vaccine and has stopped being vaccinated.How could you explain to her that it is unlikely that she got the flu from the vaccine? Can you think of two alternative reasons that she felt sick?
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Chapter 32: A: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vines can curl around trellises because auxin becomes concentrated _______.
A) on the side of the stem touching the trellis
B) on the side of the stem away from the trellis
C) on the sunny side
D) on the shady side
E) on the side that is down-in the direction of gravity
Q2) The organelle responsible for photosynthesis is the _______.
A) nucleus
B) chloroplast
C) central vacuole
D) cell wall
E) turgor pressure
Q3) The main photosynthetic organs of most plants are the _______.
A) chloroplasts
B) roots
C) stems
D) leaves
E) flowers
Q4) List at least three ways plants disperse their seeds.
Q5) Why do leaves of deciduous trees change color in the fall?
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Chapter 32: B: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A seed is best described as _______.
A) a plant embryo
B) a plant embryo along with nutrients for early growth and development
C) a plant embryo along with nutrients and a cone
D) a plant embryo along with nutrients and a fruit to attract dispersers
E) a plant embryo with nutrients and a structure to allow wind dispersal
Q2) To conserve water,many desert plants close their _______ during the day.
A) flowers
B) stomata
C) leaves
D) root hairs
E) endodermis
Q3) The organelle that creates a plant cell's turgor pressure is the _______.
A) chloroplast
B) vacuole
C) nucleus
D) secondary cell wall
E) endoplasmic reticulum
Q4) List at least three ways plants disperse their seeds.
Q5) Water is transported by the _______.
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