Biology II Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Biology II is an advanced exploration of the fundamental principles governing living organisms, building on foundational concepts introduced in introductory biology courses. This course delves into topics such as evolution, ecology, plant and animal physiology, and the diversity of life. Students are introduced to the mechanisms of homeostasis, development, and adaptation, while examining the structure and function of organ systems in various organisms. Laboratory activities complement theoretical lessons, fostering skills in experimental design, data analysis, and scientific communication. By integrating molecular, cellular, and systemic perspectives, Biology II equips students with a comprehensive understanding of biological systems and their interactions within the environment.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Recall Pasteur's experiment on spontaneous generation.Originally,he used sealed and unsealed flasks instead of swan-necked and unsealed flasks.Critics claimed that the experiment was inconclusive.Which of the following criticisms would be addressed by using a swan-necked flask instead of the sealed flask?
A)The broth was heated too intensively.
B)There had not been enough time for spontaneous generation to occur.
C)Fresh air is required for spontaneous generation.
D)The broth was not nutritious enough.
Answer: C
Q2) On the tree of life,branches that lead to several groups of green algae branch off from the one that leads to land plants.Which one of the following statements is correct?
A)Green algae and land plants are not related.
B)Green algae are very closely related to the fungi.
C)Land plants appeared first in the fossil record.
D)Land plants and algae have a common ancestor.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is not a property of liquid water?
A)Its density is greater than ice.
B)Its specific heat is higher than that of most other substances.
C)Its heat of vaporization is lower than that of most other substances.
D)It is polar.
Answer: C
Q2) The first chemicals that provided potential energy on Earth may have been formaldehyde and hydrogen cyanide.While these were produced by sunlight-driven reactions,they also occur around deep-sea vents.If the first organisms on Earth evolved around these vents,the first life on Earth was
A)photosynthetic and obtained energy from the sun.
B)chemosynthetic and obtained energy from chemicals.
C)herbivorous and obtained energy from plants.
D)carnivorous and obtained energy from animals.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) You are studying reaction X.Which of the following scenarios would likely NOT help you to increase the rate of this reaction?
A)Adding more product to an excess of substrate.
B)Adding more enzyme to an excess of substrate.
C)Adding more substrate to an excess of enzyme.
Answer: A
Q2) When,and by whom,was the lock-and-key model of enzyme specificity developed?
A)1894 by Fischer
B)1894 by Miller
C)1936 by Fischer
D)1956 by Fischer
E)1974 by Haldane and Oparin
Answer: A
Q3) Why are polymerization reactions endergonic?
A)They reduce entropy.
B)They release heat,making the reactant monomers move faster.
C)Because the condensation and hydrolysis reactions are equally spontaneous.
D)Because polymers are energetically more stable and have lower potential energy than monomers do.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) If the cytosine is positively charged (+)before self-cleavage,what would its charge be after self-cleavage?
A)+ (positive)
B)- (negative)
C)0 (neutral)
D)no way to predict
Q2) What does it mean when some bands on an autoradiograph are darker than others?
A)The concentration of the radioactive molecule in that band is higher.
B)This is normal because most of the radioactivity migrates to the same place.
C)The experiment failed because the radioactivity should be evenly distributed throughout the gel.
D)The darker bands represent larger molecules.
Q3) The work of Bartel's group on the ribozyme RNA replicase supports which conclusion?
A)An RNA world could produce molecules that could self-replicate.
B)Natural selection does not work unless humans are present to help it.
C)DNA must have come before RNA.
D)Life cannot come from nonlife.
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6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Kawakubo's group created a glycoprotein with a terminal NAG (i.e.,a protein with NAG attached to its end).Their hypothesis is that the terminal NAG-and not the protein component-is responsible for the damage to the cell wall in H.pylori.What would be the most appropriate control for testing this hypothesis?
A)Grow H.pylori in a test tube (in vitro)with no glycoprotein.
B)Destroy the H.pylori by exposing them to a hypotonic solution.Then add the glycoprotein and observe.
C)Expose other species of bacteria to the glycoprotein.
D)Grow H.pylori in a test tube with glycoprotein that has its terminal NAG removed.
Q2) Which of these best reflects the following relationship: monosaccharide versus polysaccharide?
A)glucose versus glycogen
B)glucose versus fructose
C)1,4-glycosidic linkage versus 1,6-glycosidic linkage
D) -linkage versus -linkage
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Why do lipid bilayers form spontaneously?
A)The process is endergonic.
B)The process is exergonic.
C)The process leads to a huge decrease in entropy and no change in potential energy.
D)The process is endothermic.
Q2) Which of the following is not a difference between passive facilitated transport and active transport?
A)Active transport requires energy input in the form of ATP,while facilitated transport does not.
B)Active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient,while facilitated transport moves substances down their concentrations gradient.
C)Active transport requires a membrane protein to move molecules across the plasma membrane,while facilitated transport does not.
D)Active transport and facilitated transport both play a role in maintaining proper concentrations of substances in the intra- and extracellular environments.
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8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following cytoskeletal proteins are important in changing cell shape or location (any type of cell movement)?
A)Microfilaments are the only cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
B)Microfilaments and myosin are among the cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
C)Microfilaments,microtubules,and intermediate filaments are equally important in cell movement.
D)Intermediate filaments are the only cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
Q2) Which of the following would be true for lysosomes that lack mannose-6-phosphate receptors?
A)They function equally as well as those that possess mannose 6-phosphate receptors.
B)They do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus.
C)They have unstable membranes.
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Hormones function as
A)cell receptors.
B)second messengers.
C)signal molecules.
D)neurotransmitters.
Q2) If cancer cells detach from neighboring cells,what is a likely outcome of this event?
A)loss of desmosomes
B)loss of surface hormone receptors
C)loss of G-proteins
D)loss of second messenger molecules
Q3) Plant cells are typically exposed to a hypotonic environment.Therefore,you would expect
A)a microscopic space between the plasma membrane and the cell wall.
B)occasional contact between the plasma membrane and the cell wall.
C)the plasma membrane to exert outward force on the cell wall.
D)no communication between the cell wall and the cell membrane.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) The chemiosmotic hypothesis is an important key to understanding general metabolism because
A)it explains how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force.
B)it explains how electron transport can fuel substrate-level phosphorylation.
C)it explains the sequence of the electron transport chain molecules.
D)it explains the reduction of oxygen to water in the final steps of oxidative metabolism.
Q2) A metabolic pathway,glycolysis,is active when cellular energy levels are ________;the regulatory enzyme,phosphofructokinase,is ________ by ATP.
A)low;activated
B)low;inhibited
C)high;activated
D)high;inhibited
Q3) The glucose molecule has a great deal of energy in its ________.
A)C-H bonds
B)C-N bonds
C)number of oxygen atoms
D)polar structure
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11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What is the difference between NAD and NADP?
A)NAD functions as an electron transporter,whereas NADP does not.
B)NAD functions as a free energy source for cells,whereas NADP does not.
C)Both function as electron carriers,but NADP has a phosphate group and NAD does not.
D)Both transport electrons to the electron transport chain (ETC)found on the inner mitochondrial membrane,but NADP transfers its electrons to the ETC at a higher energy level.
Q2) In autumn,the leaves of deciduous trees change colors.This is because the chlorophyll is degraded,and
A)the carotenoids and other pigments are still present in the leaves.
B)degraded chlorophyll becomes a pigment with different colors.
C)water supply to the leaves has been reduced.
D)the cells of the leaves begin to die.
Q3) The process of photosynthesis probably originated
A)in plants.
B)in prokaryotes.
C)in fungi.
D)three separate times.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the eukaryotic cell cycle?
A)hormones
B)cyclins
C)cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)
D)p53
E)ribosomes
Q2) A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis.For mitosis to take place
A)the parent cell must first be fertilized.
B)the parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis.
C)the parent cell must reproduce its DNA during telophase.
D)the parent cell must divide its DNA in half so each daughter cell gets only the genes needed to carry out its functions.In this way,differentiation occurs.
Q3) At the end of mitosis,each G daughter cell has
A)twice the DNA and half the cytoplasm of the G parent cell.
B)identical DNA to that of the G parent cell.
C)half the DNA and half the cytoplasm of the G parent cell.
D)twice the cytoplasm and the same amount of DNA as the G parent cell.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) The egg of a fruit fly has 4 chromosomes.How many chromosomes are in a somatic cell of a fruit fly?
A)4
B)2
C)8
D)16
Q2) Different types of organisms have different types of life cycles."Alternation of generations" is a life cycle found among land plants and several groups of algae.It is characterized by which of the following?
A)a multicellular diploid state
B)a multicellular haploid state
C)tetraploidy
D)both a multicellular diploid state and a multicellular haploid state
Q3) Quaking aspen can send out underground stems.New trees can sprout from these stems.This is an example of what type of reproduction?
A)Sexual
B)Alternation of generations
C)Haploid
D)Asexual
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele.If a woman and her husband are both carriers,what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl?
A)1/4
B)1/16
C)1)0
D)3/16
E)3/8
Q2) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)is inherited as a recessive allele of an X-linked gene in humans.A woman whose father suffered from G6PD marries a normal man.(a)What proportion of their sons is expected to be G6PD? (b)If the husband was not normal but was G6PD deficient,would you change your answer in part (a)?
A)(a)100%;(b)no
B)(a)1/2;(b)yes
C)(a)2/3;(b)no
D)(a)1/2;(b)no
E)(a)zero;(b)no
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) What is a telomere?
A)the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together
B)the reorganization of the cell nucleus that takes place during telophase
C)the site of origin of DNA replication
D)the ends of linear chromosomes
Q2) In humans,xeroderma pigmentosum is a disorder of the nucleotide excision repair mechanism.These individuals are unable to repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet light.Which of the following are the most prominent types of mutations in individuals suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?
A)mismatch errors
B)telomere shortening
C)methylation of purines
D)pyrimidine dimers
Q3) DNA is synthesized through a process known as A)semiconservative replication.
B)conservative replication.
C)dispersive replication.
D)transcription.
Q4) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) Refer to the figure above.If an organism is given E in their diet,they survive.However,if the same organism is given only substrate A,B,C,or D in their diet,they die.Which of the enzymes is most likely defective?
A)Enzyme 1
B)Enzyme 2
C)Enzyme 3
D)Enzyme 4
Q2) Homogentisic acid would accumulate under which of the following conditions?
A)a deficiency of p-hydroxyphenolypyruvate
B)defective enzyme 1
C)defective enzyme 2
D)a deficiency of 4-maleylacetoacetic acid
Q3) Which molecule carries the message from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm where the code is translated?
A)mRNA
B)DNA
C)rRNA
D)tRNA
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Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) During elongation,RNA polymerase has three prominent channels,or grooves.These channels provide sites for all of the following,EXCEPT
A)a site for the double-stranded DNA molecule.
B)a site for the entry of ribonucleoside triphosphates.
C)a site for the exit of the diphosphates removed from the nucleotide triphosphates.
D)a site for the growing RNA strand.
Q2) As scientists were unraveling the mysteries associated with transcription and translation,they discovered there was not a one-to-one correspondence between nucleotide sequence of a gene and base sequence of the mRNA it codes for.They proposed the genes-in-pieces hypothesis.How can the genes-in-pieces hypothesis be explained?
A)Introns are noncoding segments of DNA that are present in the initial transcript,but are removed by splicing.
B)Introns are noncoding segments of DNA that are not read or transcribed by RNA polymerase II.
C)Exons are noncoding segments of DNA that are not read or transcribed by RNA polymerase II.
D)Several related genes are found in the genomes of humans and other animals.
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) The product of the lacI gene is most like a car's
A)parking brake.
B)accelerator pedal.
C)steering wheel.
D)engine.
E)wheels.
Q2) CAP is said to be responsible for positive regulation of the lac operon because
A)CAP binds cAMP.
B)CAP binds the CAP binding site.
C)CAP prevents binding of the repressor to the operator.
D)CAP bound to the CAP binding site increases the frequency of transcription initiation.
E)Extracellular glucose levels influence the ability of CAP to bind to the CAP binding site.
Q3) E.coli adenylyl cyclase is most active when
A)extracellular glucose levels are low.
B)intracellular levels of lactose are low.
C)intracellular levels of lactose are high.
D)intracellular levels of cAMP are high.
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) What is a key property of DNase that makes it useful for assessing whether chromatin is in a closed (tightly condensed)or open (loosely packed)configuration?
A)DNase is a protein.
B)DNase digests only mammalian DNA.
C)DNase preferentially digests DNA not associated with protein.
D)DNase cuts at specific DNA sequences.
Q2) An important way to regulate the stability of mRNA is through
A)controlling the rate of transcription.
B)activating chromatin remodeling complexes.
C)controlling the rate of translation.
D)RNA interference.
Q3) p53 activates genes that
A)increase mutation rate.
B)prevent DNA damage.
C)increase the rate of endocytosis.
D)arrest the cell cycle.
E)promote metastasis.
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20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Why might retroviral vectors for gene therapy increase the patient's risk of developing cancer?
A)They might fail to introduce genes into any of the patient's cells.
B)They might not express the genes that were introduced into a patient's cells.
C)They might not integrate their recombinant DNA into the patient's genome.
D)They might integrate recombinant DNA into the genome in ways that misregulate the expression of genes at or near the site of integration.
Q2) Genetically engineered crops in the United States
A)may soon be ready for commercial planting.
B)have seen some limited commercial success.
C)are currently available only for rice.
D)are widespread for many major crop species.
E)are the only types of crops now being planted.
Q3) Which of the following is a gene library?
A)a collection of DNAs cut by a restriction enzyme
B)a collection of plasmids cut by a restriction enzyme
C)a collection of different DNA fragments ligated into plasmids
D)a collection of genes that have been sequenced from a particular organism
E)a collection of PCR-amplified DNAs
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) The figure above compares the proportion of genes devoted to various functions in a set of model organisms.Based on this figure,which one of the following statements is FALSE?
A)The function of roughly half of eukaryotic genes is unknown.
B)Humans have the highest proportion of genes devoted to defense and immunity.
C)The mustard plant and yeast have a small fraction of genes devoted to cell communication.
D)A relatively small but similar proportion of genes are devoted to transcription and translation in all these organisms.
E)Drosophila is unusual in having so few genes devoted to protein folding and degradation.
Q2) The bulk of the sequence data in whole genome sequencing comes from
A)relatively large (~ 160 kb)sequences cloned into BACs.
B)relatively small (~ 1000 base-pair)sequences cloned into plasmids.
C)whole chromosomes obtained without cloning.
D)whole chromosomes cloned into plasmids.
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Cells in a developing embryo are subject to a number of regulatory pressures.Which of the following is NOT a source of regulatory signals in animal development?
A)oocyte cytoplasm
B)sperm nucleus
C)nearby cells
D)extracellular matrix
Q2) In snake populations,rare individuals are found that have well-developed hind limbs.They are normal in all other respects.This finding shows that
A)some snakes have mutations in Hox genes that permit development of limbs.
B)snakes retain the genes for hindlimb pattern formation,even though the genes are usually not activated during development.
C)some snakes may lack the regulatory inhibitors necessary for normal limbless development.
D)all of the above might explain this rare condition.
Q3) For which of the following reasons are adult stem cells said to be multipotent?
A)They can divide and develop into any part of the multicellular organism.
B)They can only divide and develop into a limited number of related cells types.
C)They can divide and develop to form a complete multicellular organism.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) During gastrulation in amphibians,the presumptive mesoderm moves into the interior of the embryo by following fibrils of fibronectin.The fibronectin is probably secreted by which cells?
A)endodermal cells on the exterior of the embryo
B)mesodermal cells that develop on the inside of the blastocyst
C)ectodermal cells that line the inside of the blastocoel
D)endodermal cells that migrate to the inside of the blastoceol
Q2) During organogenesis,the first organ system to begin forming in animal embryos is A)the digestive system.
B)the nervous system.
C)the endocrine system.
D)the circulatory system.
E)the excretory system.
Q3) In mammals,the zona pellucida is digested during the process of fertilization.This structure is probably similar to
A)the cortical granules of the sea urchin egg.
B)the jelly layer of the sea urchin egg.
C)the vitelline envelope of the sea urchin egg.
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Interactions between proteins on the surface of the pollen grain and on the surface of the stigma are necessary for fertilization to proceed.What is the correct sequence of events that follow this interaction?
A)growth of pollen tube,double fertilization,formation of sperm
B)formation of sperm,growth of pollen tube,double fertilization
C)double fertilization,growth of pollen tube,formation of sperm
D)formation of sperm,double fertilization,growth of pollen tube
E)growth of pollen tube,formation of sperm,double fertilization
Q2) The basal cell in a plant embryo
A)develops from the root of the embryo.
B)forms the suspensor that anchors the embryo.
C)differentiates after gastrulation.
D)divides to form cotyledons.
E)divides to form hypocotyls.
Q3) All of the following statements are true of the endosperm except that
A)it may be likened to the yolk of an animal egg.
B)it is a triploid tissue.
C)it is used as a food source by the embryo.
D)it is formed from equal contributions of both parents.
E)it is the major energy source for germination.
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Evolutionary theory predicts that species are related,not independent.Four of the following examples provide support for this prediction,but one is irrelevant.Which one of these examples does not support the claim that species are related?
A)Many dinosaurs and other organisms went extinct following a huge asteroid impact at the end of the Cretaceous.
B)The endostyle of lancelets (invertebrate chordates)and the thyroid gland of vertebrates develop similarly,and both produce iodinated proteins.
C)All prokaryotes and eukaryotes use DNA to carry their genetic information.
D)Ground squirrel species found on the north and south sides of the Grand Canyon are very similar to each other.
E)Before synthetic insulin was available,diabetics used injections of purified pig insulin to manage their disease.
Q2) Gill pouches in chick,human,and house-cat embryos are an example of
A)structural homology.
B)developmental homology.
C)genetic homology.
D)the inheritance of acquired characters.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) In a small population of alpine foxes,you observe increased ear length over a 10-year period.Can you conclude that increase in ear length is advantageous in this population?
A)yes
B)no
Q2) If an allele is found at a frequency of 0.8 in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,and an individual is heterozygous for that allele,what is the probability they will pass on that allele to their offspring?
A)0)8
B)0)2
C)0)5
D)0)64
Q3) Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations?
A)lower average fitness in both populations
B)higher average fitness in both populations
C)increased genetic difference between the two populations
D)decreased genetic difference between the two populations
E)increased genetic drift
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) A population of ground squirrels is separated by a glacier.Changes in which of the following would most likely result in reproductive isolation if the two populations came into contact several generations later?
A)A change in the fur colour of one group.
B)A change in the diet of one group.
C)A change in the gene encoding of a receptor on the egg-cell surface in one group.
D)A change in the alarm call of one group to warn of predators.
Q2) The two populations are
A)different subspecies,under the morphospecies concept.
B)different species,under the biological species concept.
C)different species,under the phylogenetic species concept.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following describes the most likely order of events in speciation?
A)genetic drift,genetic isolation,divergence
B)genetic isolation,divergence,genetic drift
C)divergence,genetic drift,genetic isolation
D)divergence,genetic isolation,genetic drift
E)genetic isolation,genetic drift,divergence
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Dicynodonts were pig-sized reptiles that lived during the Permian geologic period.An increase in dicynodont species diversity occurred soon after the Permian extinction.Given what you know of this period,this increase in dicynodont species diversity represents ________,most likely due to ________.
A)competitive exclusion;the fact that they needed new food sources
B)adaptive radiation;a morphological innovation among dicynodonts
C)adaptive radiation;the availability of previously unoccupied niches
D)competitive exclusion;intrasexual selection leading to anagenesis
Q2) To use a genetic sequence as a molecular clock,the changes in nucleotides in the sequence must have accumulated at a steady pace over time.Drawing on what you know about codons and redundancy in the genetic code,which type of change would most likely be the type that is useful for a molecular clock?
A)changes in the first nucleotide pair in the codon
B)changes in the second nucleotide pair in the codon
C)changes in the third nucleotide pair in the codon
D)All of these changes are equally useful for a molecular clock.
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are evolutionarily more closely related?
A)bacteria and archaea
B)archaea and eukarya
C)bacteria and eukarya
D)Bacteria,eukarya,and archaea are equally related to each other.
Q2) What is the major goal of cellular respiration?
A)reduce an electron acceptor molecule
B)supply cell with fixed carbon
C)produce ATP
D)generate O
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) When some bacteria use lactose as a source of energy,they produce propionic acid and CO .What is the name for this process?
A)fermentation
B)cellular respiration
C)chemical synthesis
D)photosynthesis
E)carbon fixation
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Which of the following movements are matched correctly with the appendage that facilitates that movement in protists?
A)cell crawling;flagella
B)swimming;pseudopodia
C)cell crawling;cilia
D)swimming;flagella
Q2) Which of the major lineages of eukaryotes contain pronounced "feeding grooves" for digesting prey or organic debris?
A)Plantae
B)Excavata
C)Alveotata
D)Rhizaria
Q3) Imagine there are 25 different species of protists living in a tide pool.Some of these species reproduce both sexually and asexually,and some of them can reproduce only asexually.The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses and bacteria.Which species are more likely to thrive in the changing environment?
A)the sexually reproducing species
B)the asexually reproducing species
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Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the fossil record,plants colonized terrestrial habitats
A)in conjunction with insects that pollinated them.
B)in conjunction with fungi that helped provide them with nutrients from the soil.
C)from marine habitats.
D)only about 150 million years ago.
Q2) Plant systematists working with angiosperm DNA have determined that
A)dicots appear to have developed from more than one ancestor.
B)dicots are not really angiosperms.
C)monocots are not really angiosperms.
D)monocots appear to have developed from more than one ancestor.
Q3) What is the significance of measuring fruit production?
A)It is a measure of pollination success.
B)It is a measure of seed dispersal success.
C)It is easier than counting flowers.
D)It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Most coal was formed during the Carboniferous period.What is a reasonable hypothesis that explains this observation?
A)Plants from this period did not require fungal associations.
B)There were not many saprophytic fungi during this period.
C)There were not many mycorrhizal fungi during this period.
D)Coal was formed from an explosion of fungal species during this period.
Q2) The plants in graphs (b),(c),(e),and (f)have mycorrhizal associations.True or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fungi are most closely related to which of these groups?
A)plants
B)green algae
C)animals
D)red algae
Q4) Which fungal class is not matched with its most common habitat?
A)EMF northern coniferous forests
B)EMF warm climate forests
C)AMF tropics
D)AMF grasslands
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following species would you not classify as an animal?
A)sponges
B)horses
C)blue whales
D)choanoflagellates
Q2) While looking at some seawater through your microscope,you spot the egg of an unknown animal.Which of the following tests could you not use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome?
A)See whether the ectoderm forms the mature animal's skin/exoskeleton or nervous system
B)See whether the animal exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavage during early development.
C)See whether the coelom is formed from a split in the mesoderm or from mesodermal pockets pinched off the gut.
D)See whether the pore formed during gastrulation becomes the mature animal's mouth or its anus.
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) What is not true of all arthropods?
A)They metamorphose during development.
B)They have jointed limbs.
C)They grow by molting.
D)They have segmented bodies.
E)They have an exoskeleton or cuticle.
Q2) How would a terrestrial centipede most likely benefit from the ability to close its spiracles?
A)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to move more quickly.
B)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to retain more moisture in its tissues.
C)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to stay warmer.
D)Closing spiracles would allow more oxygen from the environment to reach the centipede's tissues.
E)The centipede would not benefit at all.
Q3) The common ancestor of the protostomes had a coelom.What does this suggest?
A)All lophotrochozoans have a coelom.
B)There are no pseudocoelomates within the protostomes.
C)There are no acoelomates within the protostomes.
D)None of the above answers apply.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) How does a swim bladder help the ray-finned fishes maintain buoyancy?
A)It removes water from the digestive tract.
B)It removes oxygen from the water and stores it.
C)Gas is added to the bladder as the fish's depth increases.
D)Gas is removed from the bladder as the fish's depth increases.
E)It adds and removes salt from the water stored in the bladder,which changes its density and,thus,its buoyancy.
Q2) Which of the following groups is classified as Homo sapiens?
A)Neanderthals
B)Cro-Magnons
C)Paranthropus
D)Australopithecus
E)None of the above
Q3) How did the development of the jaw contribute to evolutionary diversification of early vertebrate lineages?
A)It allowed for more modes of communication.
B)It allowed vertebrates to grow a bony skull.
C)It increased their mobility.
D)It allowed vertebrates to feed on a wider variety of food sources.
E)It provided for an appreciation of a wider variety of foods.
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) What is a significant difference between lytic and lysogenic viral growth?
A)In lytic growth,there are no mature viruses produced.
B)In lysogenic growth,the viral genome gets incorporated into the host genome.
C)In lytic growth,the host cells are not destroyed.
D)In lysogenic growth,there is a continuous release of mature viral particles throughout the infection.
Q2) You are a physician,and you suspect your patient has a viral infection that has never been seen in humans.The infection is localized in the cells along the lining of the small intestine.The cells in this area are regularly sloughed off and replaced with new cells;that is,these cells are constantly dividing.When you isolate this new virus and incubate it in culture,you discover that it does not replicate well in cultures that have slowly dividing cells,but it does much more damage in cultures that have actively dividing cells.What do these findings suggest about this new virus?
A)It is a double-stranded RNA virus.
B)It is a negative-sense,single-stranded RNA virus.
C)It is a double-stranded DNA virus.
D)It is a single-stranded DNA virus.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an annual ring,the first-formed cells in the spring are large;the ring looks light because you are seeing open cavities of the tracheids (and vessel elements).The darker part of the annual ring is wood formed in the summer,and the diameter of the cells formed is smaller.Which kind of wood is probably stronger? Why? Where is the fall and winter wood?
Q2) Monocot vascular bundles do not have a vascular cambium between the xylem and phloem.This means that
A)monocots are much less efficient at conducting water and sugars.
B)monocots have very thin stems.
C)monocots do not produce wood in annual rings.
D)all of the above answers apply.
Q3) Plant leaf epidermal cells have an amazing array of trichomes.What is not a function of trichomes?
A)Impale insects that try to lay eggs on the leaves.
B)Reflect sunlight in sunny locations.
C)Open and close for gas exchange.
D)Repel or trap insects with toxic compounds.
E)Decrease water loss from leaves.
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis,the volume of the cell increases until it bursts.This does not happen to plant cells,because
A)they have large central vacuoles,which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water.
B)the composition of their plasma membranes differs from that of animal-cell plasma membranes in a way that provides much greater strength.
C)they have cell walls,which prevent the entry of water by osmosis.
D)they have cell walls,which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water.
E)certain proteins embedded in their plasma membranes act as "check valves," releasing excess water before it can cause the cell to burst.
Q2) Water potential in plants consists mainly of
A)solute potential and osmotic potential.
B)solute potential and membrane potential.
C)pressure potential and solute potential.
D)pressure potential and membrane potential.
E)solute potential only.
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine the requirement of chlorine for plant growth,you decided to perform a hydroponic experiment.What solution are you going to use to grow control plants for comparison with chlorine-derived plants?
A)pure water
B)water with chlorine
C)water with macronutrients and chlorine
D)water with micronutrients and chlorine
E)water with essential elements
Q2) How would you expect the root system of a plant grown by hydroponics to compare to the root system of a plant grown in soil?
A)more developed
B)less developed
C)the same
D)absent
Q3) What is phytoremediation?
A)use of plants as medicine
B)use of plants in alternative medicine
C)use of plants to reduce soil erosion
D)use of plants to clean up contaminated soil and water
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Charles and Francis Darwin first documented phototropism,why was it important that they germinated the grass seeds in the dark before beginning the experiment?
A)so the young shoots would grow slowly
B)so the young shoots would grow quickly
C)so the young shoots would grow straight
D)so the young shoots would be soft enough to bend
Q2) Mammalian eyes sense light because they have cells containing molecules called opsins,which change structure when exposed to light.Which of the following plant molecule(s)would be analogous to mammalian opsins in their light-sensing ability?
A)auxin
B)statoliths
C)phytochromes
D)cytokinins
E)gibberellins
Q3) Plant C is a long-day plant.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) You find a fruit that has little hooks around the outside of the pericarp.You can assume that ________ is/are the pollinator.
A)wind
B)birds
C)mammals
D)cannot answer based on the information given
Q2) The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n = 12).What is true about the number of chromosomes in the cells of other tissues of this plant?
A)The sperm has 6 chromosomes.
B)The leaves and stems have 12 chromosomes.
C)The zygote has 12 chromosomes.
D)The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.
E)All of these answers apply.
Q3) The flowering hormone is made in ________ and alters development of
A)flowers;leaves
B)flowers;root meristem
C)leaves;apical meristem
D)leaves;flowers
E)roots;flowers
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman standing and watching the stars on a cool,calm night will lose most of her body heat by which mechanism?
A)radiation
B)convection
C)conduction
D)evaporation
E)A and B only
Q2) Choose the statement below that is TRUE regarding thermoregulation strategy.
A)An Atlantic salmon regulates its body temperature to match the surrounding air temperature.
B)A rooster's internal temperature is kept strictly at 39°C.
C)An ant's body temperature fluctuates with the surrounding environment.
D)A kangaroo's body temperature conforms to the surrounding environment.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a structure that has an increased surface area for absorption?
A)a cow's digestive tract consisting of 3 stomachs
B)an earthworm's segmented body
C)a cheetah's large nostrils
D)a human's lungs with many thin-walled alveoli
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paramecia live in pond water (a hypotonic environment).They have a structural feature,a contractile vacuole,that enables them to osmoregulate.If you observed paramecia in the following solutions,at which sucrose concentration would you expect the contractile vacuole to be most active?
A)0)0 mM sucrose
B)0)05 mM saline
C)0)08 mM sucrose
D)1)0 mM saline
Q2) Which of the following are soluble compounds that contribute to intracellular osmolarity in shark tissues?
A)excessively high levels of sodium and chloride
B)glucose and amino acids
C)a proton pump
D)urea and trimethylamine oxide
Q3) Which of the following is an example of equilibrium?
A)A substance moves into and out of a cell at the same rate.
B)A concentration gradient drives the movement of a substance into a cell.
C)ATP powers movement of a substance into a cell against its concentration gradient.
D)An electrochemical gradient drives the movement of a substance into a cell.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) If there is a strong genetic link for type II diabetes mellitus in your family,how might you minimize your risk of developing the disorder?
A)Monitor your blood glucose levels daily.
B)Take oral insulin daily.
C)Diet and exercise.
D)Eat carbohydrates like starch instead of sweets.
Q2) What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in a diet?
A)They are most commonly used to meet cell energy demands.
B)Proteins serve a variety of functions,and the body does not store excess quantities of protein.
C)They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities.
D)Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites.
Q3) From the information contained on the label above,you can infer that apple juice is a good source of which of the following?
A)vitamin A
B)vitamin C
C)calcium
D)sodium
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) What is the rate of diffusion in the gas-exchange organ of an air-breathing animal where the area for gas exchange in the lung is 200 mm²,the diffusion constant is 0.08,the PO (partial pressure of oxygen)of the air in the lung is 140 mm Hg,the PO in blood flowing into the lung is 90 mmHg,and the thickness of the gas exchange membrane is 0.001 mm?
A)800,000
B)125
C)00032
D)10,000,000
Q2) A rabbit taken from a meadow near sea level and moved to a meadow high on a mountainside would have some trouble breathing.Why?
A)The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level.
B)The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level.
C)The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level.
D)The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level.
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) The axons of most neurons contain just one type of sodium channel,but several types of potassium channels.
A)true
B)false
Q2) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to a large influx of Na ions into the cell?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) The autonomic nervous system does NOT control A)airway diameter.
B)contraction of skeletal muscle.
C)heart rate.
D)pupil dilation and constriction.
E)stomach activity.
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) When an action potential from a motor neuron arrives at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ),a series of events occurs that leads to muscle contraction.Which of the following events will occur last (i.e.,after all of the others)?
A)ACh release
B)action potential propagation down the T-tubules
C)conformational change in troponin
D)depolarization of the muscle cell
E)release of Ca from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q2) What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A)to store and release ATP
B)to store and release ACh
C)to store and release Ca
D)to store and release myosin
E)to store and release troponin
Q3) When a doctor tests your patellar reflex by tapping the tendon on the front of your knee,your lower leg comes forward.Which muscle is activated in this reflex?
A)hamstring (located in the back of your thigh)
B)quadriceps (located in the front of your thigh)
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered a second messenger?
A)cAMP
B)IP3
C)norepinephrine
D)DAG
Q2) What is the only type of chemical signal that is not intended to alter the physiology of the animal producing that signal?
A)neural
B)paracrine
C)neuroendocrine
D)pheromones
E)only A and C
Q3) When an ant locates a food source,it leaves a trail that other ants can follow to locate the same food source.What type of chemical signalling is this an example of?
A)neural
B)paracrine
C)pheromones
D)autocrine
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following hormones would you use if you want to induce ovulation right away?
A)estradiol (estrogen)
B)progesterone
C)luteinizing hormones (LH)
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Q2) Which one of the following criteria is not required to induce Daphnia to switch from asexual to sexual reproduction?
A)water from crowded populations of Daphnia
B)the absence of males in the population
C)short day lengths
D)low food supply
Q3) What structure in female humans is analogous to the sensitive tissues of the penis?
A)clitoris
B)labia minora
C)labia majora
D)vagina
E)cervix
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) You cut your finger,and after putting pressure on the wound for several minutes,you notice that it is still bleeding profusely.What may be the problem?
A)Platelets are not functioning properly,or there are too few to be effective.
B)Mast cells are not releasing their chemical messengers.
C)There are too many antigens to allow clotting.
D)Answers A and B are both correct.
E)Answers B and C are both correct.
Q2) What causes rejection by the body's immune system after a transplant of an improperly matched organ?
A)non-self proteins in the tissue
B)the presence of foreign MHC proteins on the donor tissue
C)antibodies and cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)responding to foreign tissue
D)all of the above
E)A and C only
Q3) What do neutrophils and macrophages have in common?
A)Both ingest and kill bacteria.
B)Both arrive simultaneously at a wound site.
C)Both secrete cytokines.
D)Both secrete lysozymes.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) In which terrestrial area is global warming most likely to allow coniferous trees to encroach?
A)tropical wet forests
B)arctic tundra
C)temperate forests
D)boreal forests
Q2) You are measuring the effect of increased sunlight on a tropical wet forest biome.Which of the following would you measure?
A)NPP as it indicates the biomass available for other organisms to use.
B)Species diversity as it indicates the number of species present and their relative numbers.
C)The number of parasites in the area as it indicates the health of the biome.
D)All of A,B,and C.
E)Both A and B.
Q3) Theoretically,which would be the most effective way to disrupt a Hadley cell?
A)Remove all equatorial moisture and convection.
B)Extensively water the deserts.
C)Heat the poles.
D)Shift the Sun to apply direct rays 30 degrees south latitude.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) You observe a species of bird that,upon hatching,has contact with its parents only while being fed.You also never hear the parents sing during the feeding process.What would you propose about song learning in this species of bird?
A)Song learning in this species is most likely learned.
B)The period of imprinting is likely later in the bird's life.
C)This species does not hear.
D)Song learning in this species is most likely innate.
Q2) In the figure above,do the data support the hypothesis that females need spring-like light conditions to produce mature follicles?
A)yes
B)no
C)cannot be determined
Q3) In the size-advantage hypothesis,if a group of fish are living in a territory dominated by a single male,females should switch from female to male when they become very large.Which of the following observations best supports this hypothesis?
A)A large female switches to a male,takes over a harem,and has more offspring.
B)A small female switches to a male,takes over a harem,and has more offspring.
C)As males in the vicinity increase in number,more females begin to switch sex.
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If 40 individuals were alive in 1921 and 856 existed in 2007,what is r?
A)0)020
B)0)249
C)0)05
D)0)036
Q2) In the figure above,which of the arrows represents the most rapid growth?
A)arrow A
B)arrow B
C)arrow C
Q3) Looking at figure above,the white rhinoceros [more than 1 000 kg (2 200 lb)] is likely to exhibit which of the following?
A)survivorship curve A and a SHORT generation time.
B)survivorship curve C and a SHORT generation time.
C)survivorship curve A and a LONG generation time.
D)survivorship curve B and a LONG generation time.
E)survivorship curve C and a LONG generation time.
Q4) In the figure above,which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity?
A)arrow A
B)arrow B
C)arrow C
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the figure above,what result would you expect if you replaced the crabs with broken mussel shells?
A)the same result as the experiment with crabs
B)no difference in shell thickness
C)a higher degree of difference than the crab experiment
D)impossible to hypothesize
Q2) Treehoppers (a type of insect)produce honeydew,which ants use for food.Treehoppers have a major predator,the jumping spider.Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders.In an experiment,researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared them to a control plot.In the figure above,what can you conclude?
A)Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders.
B)Ants do not protect the treehoppers from spiders.
C)Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers.
D)No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure.
Q3) The competitive exclusion principle states that
A)it is not possible for two species with the same niche to coexist.
B)it is possible for two species with the same niche to coexist.
C)it is not possible for two species with different niches to coexist.
D)it is possible for two species with different niches to coexist.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important?
A)Carbon is the chief source of food,and burning it reduces available food for primary consumers.
B)Global carbon availability is directly related to the water cycle.
C)Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas,and increasing atmospheric concentrations could alter Earth's climate.
D)Carbon can be recycled only a limited number of times.
Q2) After looking at the figure above,what can be said about productivity in this ecosystem?
A)Nothing can be said based on this information.
B)Between 80 and 90% of the energy is lost at the next highest trophic level.
C)Between 10 and 20% of the energy is lost at the next highest trophic level.
D)Productivity increases with each trophic level.
Q3) Regarding soil and organic matter in humus,which of the following statements is true?
A)Humus is composed of inorganic nutrients,and organic matter is composed only of organic matter.
B)Soil organic matter is completely decayed.
C)Completely decayed soil organic matter is called humus.
D)Eventually,the nutrients in soil organic matter are converted to organic form.
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) You discover,in your massive 2000-hectare forest,a species of bat that is not found anywhere else.The habitat of your bat population is designated as a protected area.What,if any,would be an advantage of removing a small number of bats and placing them in a zoo?
A)Removing bats would do too much harm to the original population.
B)Some animals in the zoo could breed more readily and maybe repopulate another area.
C)It is better to isolate bats into breeding groups in the wild than to put them in a zoo.
D)Zoos offer no advantage at all to the population.
Q2) Environmental sequencing has brought to light what crucial finding?
A)Genetic diversity is highest in the most complex ecosystems.
B)Genetic diversity is very difficult to detect in small ecosystems.
C)Even the world's simplest ecosystems contain an enormous amount of genetic diversity.
D)Individual diversity is as important as ecosystem diversity.
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