Biology II: Physiology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Biology II: Physiology is an in-depth exploration of the functional mechanisms that sustain living organisms, focusing on both plant and animal systems. This course examines key physiological processes such as homeostasis, respiration, circulation, digestion, excretion, movement, and neural and hormonal regulation, providing an integrative understanding of how organisms maintain internal balance and respond to environmental changes. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and case studies, students learn to analyze the interrelationships between structure and function at cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels, preparing them for advanced studies in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sarah has just flown around the world in the last 48 hours.She is having trouble sleeping, a condition known as insomnia.How do you think Sarah's long flights and her insomnia are related to biological rhythms?
Answer: Our sleep-wake cycle is a biological rhythm that lets our body know when it is time to rest.Most likely Sarah has ignored the signals like sleepiness, changes in body temperature, and mood that her body is sending.By ignoring these rhythms she has disrupted the cycle and the body is struggling to maintain homeostasis.
Q2) A placebo is
A) any drug being tested in a clinical trial.
B) any drug in a class of drugs commonly used as pain relievers.
C) a drug or treatment that is expected to have no pharmacological effect.
D) a nutritive and respiratory organ in fetal development.
E) a hole in a cavity wall through which an organ protrudes.
Answer: C
Q3) Why is it necessary to label the axes of a graph?
Answer: A graph with no axis labels is meaningless-without knowing what trend is being illustrated, there is no communication of scientific information.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term polar is used to describe molecules because A) polar covalent molecules are found in colder climates.
B) polar covalent molecules were first discovered in polar bears.
C) there are at least two distinct ends of the molecule regarding electron position and the resulting charge.
D) there are at least two distinct ends of the molecule regarding hydrogen placement. E) such molecules are always linear in shape.
Answer: C
Q2) While every level of a protein's structure is important to the function of that protein, which level of structure is most important to the function of enzymes, and why?
Answer: Enzymes and other globular proteins depend upon the three-dimensional shape resulting from the globular folding.Under conditions in which this shape is altered by denaturing agents such as heat, the protein ceases to function, though the primary and secondary structure may be unchanged.
Q3) The ________ of a solution is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration, expressed in moles per liter of solution.
Answer: pH
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is NOT used to define the structure that separates the contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium?
A) a cell wall
B) a cell membrane
C) plasma membrane
D) plasmalemma
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Centrioles
A) function as pipelines to move fluid through the cell.
B) direct the movement of DNA during cell division.
C) hold the cell's ribosomes in place.
D) are white blood cells out of vessels.
E) provide shape and stability to a cell.
Answer: B
Q3) Every substance that enters or leaves the internal environment of the body must cross an epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following post-translational modification, any misfolded protein will be destroyed by A) ubiquitin.
B) chaperones.
C) methylation.
D) ribonucleases.
Q2) The enzymes that synthesize mRNA from the start codon are called A) ribonucleases.
B) RNA polymerases.
C) DNA polymerases.
D) ATP synthases.
E) lactate dehydrogenases.
Q3) A reversible reaction is one where
A) there are large changes in the net free energy from substrate to product.
B) there are small changes in the net free energy from substrate to product.
C) there is no change in the net free energy from substrate to product.
D) a reaction between products is unlikely due to the high activation energy.
Q4) The activity of metabolic pathways is influenced by the ratio of ________.
Q5) Chemical reactions that require an input of energy are said to be ________.
Q6) Define the law of mass action.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Q1) How are molarity and osmolarity different? What property of salts necessitates this distinction? How does this property affect the behavior of water?
Q2) Na enters the cell
A)resting membrane potential
B)hyperpolarization
C)depolarization
D)repolarization
E)more than one of the answers
Q3) Which of the following would increase the rate of diffusion across a cell membrane?
A) a decrease in the surface area of the membrane
B) a decrease in the concentration gradient
C) a decrease in membrane permeability
D) a decrease in membrane thickness
Q4) Anions will ________ each other.
A) attract
B) repel
C) not react with
Q5) Explain the process of receptor-mediated endocytosis and exocytosis.
Q6) The three types of gated channels are ________, ________, and ________.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intracellular signal molecule that translates a signal from a neurotransmitter or hormone into an intracellular response is called a ________.
Q2) An integrating center
A) is the disturbance or change that sets the pathway in motion.
B) is an electrical and/or chemical signal that travels to the effector.
C) evaluates incoming signals and compares it with the setpoint.
D) is the minimum stimulus that must be achieved to set the reflect response in motion.
Q3) Down-regulation may allow a target cell to
A) only increase its number of receptors for a ligand.
B) only decrease its number of receptors for a ligand.
C) only increase its binding affinity for a ligand.
D) decrease the receptors' binding affinity and increase its number of receptors.
Q4) Describe the signal molecule derivatives of arachidonic acid.
Q5) Describe or diagram the basic pattern of a biological signal transduction pathway.
Q6) Describe the four classes of membrane receptor molecules.
Q7) What general action is shared by about half of the medical drugs currently in use?
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ is a problem with one of the tissues producing trophic hormones.
Q2) The adrenal cortex produces a steroid hormone called ________ that controls Na and K homeostasis and another steroid hormone called ________ that controls blood glucose levels.
Q3) The outer layer of the adrenal gland is called the ________.
Q4) Synergism occurs when
A) one hormone triggers the secretion of a second hormone.
B) one hormone inhibits the release of a second hormone.
C) hormones working together produce a larger effect than predicted.
D) hormones working together produce a smaller effect than predicted.
E) a hormone can exert its full effects only in the presence of another hormone.
Q5) Hormones acting through signal transduction pathways elicit a ________ response compared to hormones that produce genomic effects.
A) faster
B) slower C) equal
Q6) Describe the classic steps for identifying an endocrine gland.Are these steps practical for identifying the sources of all the hormones we know of today? Explain.
Q7) A circulatory route that has two sets of capillaries is known as a ________.
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factors determine the maximum frequency of action potentials conducted by an axon?
Q2) When more action potentials arrive at the axon terminal, how is the postsynaptic cell affected?
A) Neurotransmitter release increases, but does not change the graded potentials that follow.
B) Neurotransmitter release does not change, thus the postsynaptic cell behaves the same way it always behaves.
C) Neurotransmitter release increases, thereby increasing the frequency or magnitude of graded potentials in the postsynaptic cell.
D) Neurotransmitter release does not change, but voltages applied to the postsynaptic cell increase.
Q3) Draw graphs showing the effects on action potentials in a postsynaptic cell of effective doses for each of the listed toxins.Assume that the cell is normally brought to threshold by the stimuli applied to its inputs, so that any abnormality is due to the toxin.
1.curare (prevents receptor from binding neurotransmitter)
2.botulinum toxin (prevents neurotransmitter release)
Q4) Draw and label an action potential, in the form of a graph.
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first multicellular animals to develop neurons were
A) jellyfish and sea anemones.
B) flatworms and sea urchins.
C) segmented worms and sea horses.
D) mollusks and sea stars.
E) fish and sea monkeys.
Q2) temporal lobe
A)primary somatic sensory cortex
B)visual cortex
C)auditory cortex
D)association areas
Q3) tracts of axons that transfer information to and from the brain
A)dorsal horns
B)columns
C)ventral root
D)dorsal root ganglia
E)nuclei
Q4) limbic system
A)structure is composed of gray matter
B)structure is composed of white matter
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the fluid within the vestibular and tympanic duct of the cochlea.
Q2) The hair cell of the semicircular canal hyperpolarize when the stereocilia are bent A) in any direction.
B) towards the kinocilium.
C) away from the kinocilium.
D) towards the longest stereocilia.
E) Hair cells are not hyperpolarized by bending of the sterocilia.
Q3) Explain how vision is affected by the loss of one eye.Explain how hearing is affected by the loss of one ear.In reality, how disadvantaged are people who are blind in one eye or deaf in one ear? Would loss of half the tongue or half the olfactory epithelium have comparable effects on those systems? Explain.
Q4) After an injury, Paul has difficulty recognizing and interpreting certain sounds.These symptoms imply damage to the A) external ear.
B) auditory cortex.
C) middle ear.
D) cochlea.
Q5) Provide three reasons for the greater visual acuity at the fovea.
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) It contains cholinergic neurons.
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
Q2) sympathetic tissue receptor
A)acetylcholine
B)norepinephrine
C)cholinergic nicotinic receptor
D)adrenergic receptor
E)cholinergic muscarinic receptor
Q3) blocks secretion of pancreatic enzymes
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist
Q4) Compare and contrast the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels introduced in Chapter 8, with the acetylcholine receptor/channel.What may be confusing to the beginning physiology student trying to understand the ion specificity of the acetylcholine receptor? What type of change in the cell is produced by ion movement through each type of channel?
Q6) Autonomic neurotransmitters are synthesized in the ________. Page 13
Q5) Cholinergic nicotinic receptors are found in the ________ of the ANS.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gap junctions in cardiac muscle are part of specialized cell junctions that are localized to the ________.
Q2) The heavy chain of myosin contains two important regions: the first acts as ________ to convert energy into movement whereas the second binds to ________.
Q3) For antagonistic muscle groups to move a limb, flexor contraction occurs coincident with
A) contraction of the extensor.
B) relaxation of the extensor.
C) no changes in the extensor.
D) contraction of the tendon.
Q4) Skeletal muscle cells are usually attached to bone by A) fascicles.
B) ligaments.
C) tendons.
D) flexors.
Q5) Factors playing a role in fatigue can be classified into two categories.Define those two categories and provide an example of each.
Q6) Store-operated calcium channels open in response to ________.
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sensory fibers of the muscle spindle organs synapse onto
A) Golgi tendon organs.
B) gamma motor neurons.
C) alpha motor neurons.
D) joint receptors.
Q2) How does the stretch reflex protect a muscle?
Q3) maintain muscle tone at rest through tonic activity
A)muscle spindles
B)Golgi tendon organs
C)both
Q4) It is the middle of winter and you walk over an icy patch and lose your balance.As you begin to fall, you react by extending your arms to catch yourself.In this instance, what type of reflex is occurring?
A) stretch reflex
B) tendon reflex
C) flexor reflex
D) crossed extensor reflex
E) reciprocal reflex
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Q5) Are relaxation of a muscle and inhibition of a muscle the same thing? Explain your answer.
Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) atrial contraction
A)P wave
B)QRS complex
C)T wave
D)PR segment
E)ST segment
Q2) Distinguish between blood flow rate and blood flow velocity.When an expert in the field uses the term blood flow, does that term usually mean rate or velocity?
Q3) The period of time from the beginning of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next is termed the ________.
Q4) The primary function of the cardiovascular system is ________.
Q5) Left ventricular pressure is higher than pressure in the aorta during
A) atrial systole only.
B) ventricular diastole only.
C) ventricular systole only.
D) atrial systole and ventricular systole.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q6) The ________ are calcium channels in cardiac contractile cells.Opening them causes ________.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Q1) Receptors that monitor blood pressure are called ________.
Q2) All of the following would cause an increase in blood pressure EXCEPT
A) an increase in arterial resistance.
B) a decrease in arterial diameter.
C) a decrease in cardiac output.
D) sympathetic stimulation.
Q3) The matching of blood flow to the changing metabolic needs of a tissue is due to A) neural control.
B) hormonal control.
C) local control.
Q4) The turbulent flow of blood causes a noise called a ________ that can be heard through the stethoscope when taking blood pressure.
Q5) The lymphatic system
A) has heart-like pumps called lymph nodes.
B) stores blood when circulatory demand is low.
C) empties the lymph vessels into the veins near the clavicles.
D) can be removed without health consequences.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q6) Capillary exchange involving movement through the cells is called ________ transport.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Q1) The primary stimulus for the release of erythropoietin is
A) hypoxemia only.
B) low oxygen levels in the tissues only.
C) low blood pressure only.
D) hypoxemia and low oxygen levels in the tissues.
E) hypoxemia, low oxygen levels in the tissues, and low blood pressure.
Q2) An individual who becomes dehydrated will have an elevated hematocrit.Explain how dehydration leads to an elevated hematocrit although blood cell production is normal.
Q3) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.
Q4) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor by a damaged endothelium.
D) release of heparin from the liver.
E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Q5) Make a map using the following terms: bile, bilirubin, ferritin, heme, hemoglobin, intestine, iron in diet, kidney, plasma, spleen, transferrin.You may also add additional terms.
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) the total amount of air that can be exchanged at will
A)total lung capacity
B)inspiratory capacity
C)vital capacity
D)functional residual capacity
Q2) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will
A) increase the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood.
C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli.
E) have no effect on either the partial pressure or diffusion rate of gases.
Q3) If a student inhales as deeply as possible and then blows the air out until he cannot exhale any more, the amount of air that he expelled is his
A) tidal volume.
B) inspiratory reserve volume.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) minimal volume.
E) vital capacity.
Q4) List the muscles of inspiration and expiration.
Q5) List and describe the lung volumes.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics makes hemoglobin's structure such a good match for its function as an oxygen carrier?
A) Each hemoglobin molecule can bind one oxygen molecule.
B) Each hemoglobin molecule can bind two oxygen molecules.
C) Each hemoglobin molecule can bind four oxygen molecules.
D) Each hemoglobin molecule can't be saturated by oxygen molecules.
E) Each hemoglobin binds irreversibly to an oxygen molecule.
Q2) Jill lives in St.Louis, which is close to sea level.She decides to spend a month of her summer vacation working in the mountains outside of Denver.After a week in the mountains, what kinds of changes would you expect to see as Jill adapts to the higher altitude?
A) decreased hematocrit
B) decreased blood pressure
C) decreased alveolar ventilation rate
D) decreased PO in the alveoli
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Generally, PCO in arterial blood is ________ than PCO in venous blood.
Q4) Describe the problems that result in low arterial oxygen content.
Q5) Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to ________.
Q6) What force(s)move(s)carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveoli?
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) The force for glomerular filtration is the
A) blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
B) osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
C) fluid pressure produced by the displacement of the fluid in the lumen of the tubules.
D) ATP-dependent processes in the nephron.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) Measurements in a nephron reveal a glomerular hydraulic pressure of 69 mm Hg, and a fluid pressure in the Bowman's capsule of 15 mm Hg.Assuming that the plasma osmotic pressure is 30 mm Hg, and that essentially no plasma proteins are filtered by the glomerulus, what is the net glomerular filtration pressure in this case?
A) -6 mm Hg
B) 24 mm Hg
C) 54 mm Hg
D) 84 mm Hg
E) 114 mm Hg
Q3) List and summarize the forces that influence filtration across the walls of glomerular capillaries.
Q4) The ________ carry blood from the kidneys back to the ________.
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Q1) The cellular mechanisms for renal handling of H and HCO involve several membrane transporters; name three.
Q2) If sodium increases in the ECF, water will move from
A) cells to the ECF, and cells will swell.
B) the ECF to cells, and cells will swell.
C) cells to the ECF, and cells will shrink.
D) the ECF to cells, and cells will shrink.
Q3) When the pH of the extracellular fluid declines, the kidneys
A) excrete more sodium ions.
B) excrete more bicarbonate ions.
C) reabsorb more potassium ions.
D) reabsorb more hydrogen ions.
E) reabsorb less water.
Q4) Diagram the reactions and interactions of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS).Which condition is the primary stimulus for its activation?
Q5) What are the two mechanisms of bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
Q6) Gossip, an undergraduate, has normal PCO levels, high H levels, low pH and bicarbonate levels.What type of disturbance is Gossip suffering from and what might cause this? If his PCO were elevated, would your answer change? Explain.
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Q1) Digestive reflexes originating in the CNS are called ________ reflexes.
A) defecation
B) short
C) long
D) deglutition
Q2) Cody has always carefully controlled her caloric intake, and is lean.During her unplanned pregnancy, she continued to eat the same, hoping that taking prenatal vitamins and minerals would ensure that her fetus would grow normally.Her only complication during pregnancy was persistent constipation and consequent hemorrhoids.She gained only the minimum weight suggested by her doctor, and delivered a healthy, full-term infant; her pre-pregnancy weight was rapidly reestablished.Propose an explanation for how she managed to gain enough weight, did not violate the law of conservation of mass, and for her only complication.What does this suggest about "eating for two" that some pregnant women do?
Q3) In the intestine, the epithelial cells have
A) leaky junctions.
B) tight junctions.
C) electrical gap junctions.
Q4) List the four basic processes of the digestive system, and describe each.
Q5) The enteric nervous system and the CNS have several similarities.What are they?
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) When amino acids are metabolized for energy, the nitrogen is converted to urea and then is excreted from the body by the A) liver.
B) skin.
C) kidneys.
D) sweat glands.
E) spleen.
Q2) Adipocytes secrete the hormone
A) ghrelin.
B) leptin.
C) neuropeptide Y.
D) orexin.
E) insulin.
Q3) The feeding and satiety centers are located in the A) medulla oblongata.
B) pons.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebrum.
E) cerebellum.
Q4) Compare and contrast insulin and glucagon.
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following could describe the function of 11 Beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase?
A) An enzyme located in renal tubules that acts on cortisol.
B) It converts cortisol to a less active form.
C) It aids in preventing crossover effects from cortisol.
D) It converts cortisol to a form with a lower specificity for mineralocorticoid receptors there.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q2) Calcitonin may be an appropriate treatment.
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q3) The effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissue include
A) decreased oxygen consumption.
B) decreased heart rate.
C) increased sensitivity to sympathetic stimulation.
D) increased activity of osteoclasts.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q4) Define hypertrophy and hyperplasia, and describe their hormone regulation.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Q1) ________ are mediators released from white blood cells that regulate the activity of B cells and T cells and enhance nonspecific defense.
Q2) Explain the role of experience in the immune system.Given the importance of experience, is a person's immune response determined by the genes or the environment? Explain.
Q3) Describe the roles of interleukins, kinins, and complement in immunity.How does interleukin-1 mediate the immune response?
Q4) Cytokines function by
A) acting as messengers for growth and activity of other cells.
B) poisoning and killing invading cells.
C) digesting invading cells.
D) acting as messengers for growth and activity of other cells and poisoning and killing invading cells.
E) acting as messengers for growth and activity of other cells, poisoning and killing invading cells, and digesting invading cells.
Q5) Explain each of these terms: antibiotic, antibody, antigen, antihistamine, antiretroviral drug, antiviral drug.
Q6) Draw a concept map illustrating the immune response to bacterial infection.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Q1) During exercise, the most significant factor affecting the pH of body tissues is the production of
A) lactic acid.
B) ketone bodies.
C) organic acids.
D) carbon dioxide.
E) hydrochloric acid.
Q2) Dehydration causes
A) fluid to shift from the ECF to the ICF.
B) decreased secretion of ADH.
C) increased thirst.
D) increased levels of aldosterone.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Cortisol, the catecholamines, and growth hormone do all of the following, EXCEPT
A) mobilize glycogen from the liver.
B) raise plasma glucose levels.
C) promote the conversion of triglycerides to glycerol and fatty acids.
D) enhance deposition of fat in adipose tissue.
Q4) How does exercise hyperventilation maintain nearly normal PO and PCO ?
Q5) What two effects does sympathetic stimulation have on the heart during exercise?
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Out of which structure is an oocyte released during ovulation?
A) primary follicle
B) secondary follicle
C) tertiary follicle
D) dominant follicle
E) corpus luteum
Q2) progesterone, early in pregnancy
A)Leydig cells
B)granulosa cells
C)corpus luteum
D)placenta
Q3) Mitotic divisions in germ cells
A) are complete before birth.
B) begin at puberty.
C) continue throughout life.
D) end at andropause or menopause.
E) The answer depends on gender.
Q4) Explain why observations of basal body temperature are useful for couples who want to get pregnant, but are only of limited use for couples who are trying to avoid getting pregnant.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29