

Biology II
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology II is a continuation of introductory biology that delves deeper into the principles, concepts, and processes fundamental to living organisms. This course covers topics such as evolution, biodiversity, plant and animal form and function, ecology, and complex biological systems. Emphasis is placed on how organisms interact with each other and their environments, the mechanisms underlying development and adaptation, as well as current issues in biology. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory investigations, and discussions, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the complexity and interconnectedness of life.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) On an evolutionary tree,any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one-tribe").Recall the current evolutionary tree for Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya.According to this tree,are all organisms alive today monophyletic?
A)yes
B)no
Answer: A
Q2) Current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among organisms _____.
A)are always based only on molecular data
B)may change,as more species are discovered and studied
C)represent a complete and unchanging data set
D)tell us nothing about the history of life on Earth
Answer: B
Q3) In comparison to eukaryotes,prokaryotes _____.
A)are more structurally complex
B)are larger
C)are smaller
D)lack any cell membranes
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the functional groups below acts like an acid in solution?
A)amino
B)carbonyl
C)carboxyl
D)hydroxyl
Answer: C
Q2) Silicon's atomic number is 14;in the periodic table it is directly beneath carbon.Silicon is abundant in the Earth's crust,yet,unlike C,N,O,and H,silicon is not a common element in organisms.What about the atomic structure of silicon probably accounts for this?
A)The nucleus of silicon is probably too small to form long chains of Si-Si molecules (analogous to long chains of carbon molecules).
B)The nucleus of silicon is probably too big to form long chains of Si-Si molecules (analogous to long chains of carbon molecules).
C)Silicon only has three valence electrons,so it can make fewer covalent bonds than carbon.
D)Silicon is too electronegative to be an element common in living organisms.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the structure of an amino acid enable it to play its most important roles in cells?
A)It can serve a wide variety of functions in a cell,because it contains the atoms most commonly found in organisms (C,H,N,and O).
B)Because both carboxyl and amino groups are present,polymerization is exergonic.In addition,the presence of a side chain makes the molecule water soluble.
C)The presence of carboxyl and amino groups gives it the ability to form peptide bonds,and its side chain gives it unique chemical properties.
D)Because each amino acid contains a variety of functional groups,they can participate in a wide variety of chemical reactions.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would be an example of a cofactor?
A)an enzyme active site that contains an -helix
B)the nonprotein heme group in a hemoglobin molecule
C)the disulfide bridge that forms between cysteine residues
D)a -pleated sheet hidden on the inside of a protein's tertiary structure
Answer: B
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) RNA and proteins combine in cells to form structures called ribosomes.Ribosomes contain the active site for peptide bond formation.Based on their chemical structures,do you think protein or RNA molecules actually form the active site within the ribosome?
A)protein,because RNA cannot catalyze reactions
B)RNA,because proteins cannot catalyze a reaction that involves another protein
C)proteins,because only proteins can catalyze a reaction that involves another protein
D)It could be either,because both molecules have catalytic properties.
Q2) Which one of the following is not a way that RNA is seen as intermediate between DNA and proteins?
A)RNA contains genetic information like DNA,but is not as stable.
B)RNA can catalyze reactions,but not as well as can proteins.
C)RNA is composed of nucleotides,but forms tertiary and quaternary structures like a protein.
D)RNA has 5 and 3 termini like DNA,but it also has amino and carboxy termini like protein.
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following best explains why "carbs" (carbohydrates)are advertised by manufacturers of candy bars and sports drinks as a "quick energy boost"?
A)The energy in them can be stored as fat,which has high energy per unit weight.
B)The carbons in carbs are rich in energy because they are highly oxidized.
C)Carbs are reduced molecules that have high-energy electrons.
D)This is an advertising gimmick that has no scientific evidence to support it.
Q2) A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?
A)an amino group
B)a peptide bond
C)a disulfide bond
D)a -pleated sheet
Q3) The chemical formula for fat is C H O .The analogous chemical formula for carbohydrates is C H O .Given the differences in their chemical formulas,why do you think that plants generally store their energy in the form of carbohydrates,but animals generally store their energy in the form of fats?
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) In an experiment involving planar bilayers,a solution of table salt (sodium and chloride ions in water)is added on the left side of the membrane while pure water is added on the right side.After 30 minutes the researchers test for the presence of ions on each side of the membrane.The right side tests negative for ions.What can you conclude?
A)The experiment failed.
B)The water somehow blocked the movement of ions across the membrane.
C)The left side would probably also test negative for ions.
D)Ions cannot cross planar bilayers.
Q2) If you mechanically shook a mixture of amphipathic lipids and water,what would you expect to see when you observe the solution using an electron microscope?
A)The lipids and water will have separated into two distinct layers because the lipids are partially nonpolar.
B)The lipids will have formed tiny vesicles filled with water.
C)The lipids will have formed planar bilayer membranes.
D)The lipids will have completely dissolved in solution because they are partially polar.
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following cytoskeletal proteins are important in changing cell shape or location (any type of cell movement)?
A)Microfilaments are the only cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
B)Microfilaments and myosin are among the cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
C)Microfilaments,microtubules,and intermediate filaments are equally important in cell movement.
D)Microfilaments and intermediate filaments are the only cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.
Q2) Researchers tried to explain how vesicular transport occurs in cells by attempting to assemble the transport components.They set up microtubular tracks along which vesicles could be transported,and they added vesicles and ATP (because they knew the transport process requires energy).Yet,when they put everything together,there was no movement or transport of vesicles.What were they missing?
A)an axon
B)contractile microfilaments
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)motor proteins
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the function of a target organ.For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone,it must _____.
A)modify its plasma membrane to alter hormone entering the cytoplasm
B)be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone
C)experiencing an imbalance that disrupts its normal function
D)have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule
Q2) Intercalated discs are cell-cell junctions found between cardiac muscle cells.One feature of these intercalated discs is that they contain a large number of gap junctions,which means that _____.
A)an extension of smooth endoplasmic reticulum goes through the gap junction,making it continuous from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
B)water ions and small molecules can readily pass from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
C)cardiac cells can function independently when necessary
D)RNA from one cardiac muscle cell can be transported into an adjacent cell through the gap junction
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Page 10

Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Canine phosphofructokinase (PFK)deficiency afflicts springer spaniels,affecting an estimated 10% of the breed.PFK is the glycolytic enzyme that phosphorylates fructose-1-phosphate and catalyzes the committed step in glycolysis.Given its critical role in glycolysis,one implication of the genetic defect resulting in PFK deficiency in dogs is _____.
A)early embryonic mortality
B)elevated blood-glucose levels in the dog's blood
C)an intolerance for exercise
D)a reduced life span
Q2) Refer to Figure 9.1 in the text.What characteristic of this molecule (ATP)is responsible for its high energy level?
A)the three phosphate groups
B)the phosphorus atoms in the phosphate groups
C)the C-H bonds of the ribose sugar
D)the closely spaced negative charges associated with the phosphate groups
Q3) The first CO that is released during aerobic cellular respiration is _____.
A)during glycolysis
B)between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
C)during the Krebs cycle
D)just after the Krebs cycle
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis related?
A)The products of the light-independent reactions are used in the light-dependent reactions.
B)The products of light-dependent reactions are used in light-independent reactions.
C)The products of light-independent reactions must be present for light-dependent reactions to take place.
D)They are not related.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning chloroplasts is false?
A)They are unrelated to plastids.
B)They have both outer and inner membranes.
C)They have their own DNA.
D)They have an internal membrane system known as the thylakoid.
Q3) Chlorophylls absorb light in which colors of the visible range?
A)green and blue
B)blue and red
C)green and red
D)violet and red
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12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metaphase occurs prior to the splitting of centromeres.It is characterized by _____.
A)aligning of chromosomes on the equator
B)splitting of the centromeres
C)cytokinesis
D)separation of sister chromatids
Q2) Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle.They find a group of cells that have 1½ times more DNA than do G phase cells.The cells of this group are _____.
A)between the G and S phases in the cell cycle
B)in the G phase of the cell cycle
C)in the M phase of the cell cycle
D)in the S phase of the cell cycle
Q3) In eukaryotic cells,chromosomes are composed of _____.
A)DNA and RNA
B)DNA only
C)DNA and proteins
D)DNA and phospholipids
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13

Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis?
A)Homologues align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.
B)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis II.
C)Meiosis II takes place in a haploid cell,while mitosis takes place in diploid cells.
D)Crossover takes place in meiosis II.
Q2) Male grasshoppers (such as the karyotype type shown here),have a single X chromosome.How many chromosomes would be in a sperm cell from this grasshopper?
A)11
B)12
C)22
D)23
Q3) What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?
A)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis I.
B)DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis,but not before meiosis I.
C)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis II.
D)Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) A homozygous tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a homozygous tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers.The F all had red fruit and yellow flowers.The following phenotypes were obtained in the F :
Red fruit and yellow flowers-41
Red fruit and white flowers-7
Golden fruit and yellow flowers-8
Golden fruit and white flowers-44
How many map units separate these genes?
A)17.6
B)15
C)17.1
D)18.1
E)35
Q2) Different ratios occur in crosses with single gene pairs or two gene pairs.What types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses dealing with a single gene pair?
A)9:3:3:1,1:2:1
B)1:1:1:1,1:4:6:4:1
C)3:1,1:1,1:2:1
D)4:1,1:1,1:4:1
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Page 15

Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the lagging strand during duplication of DNA starting from a double helix in Figure 14.2.
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
Q2) The bacterial transduction experiments done by Hershey and Chase,and the bacterial transformation experiments done by Griffith,supported the same conclusion,which was _____.
A)pathogenic molecules affect the health of all living organisms
B)DNA is the molecular substance of genetic inheritance
C)RNA is the molecular substance of genetic inheritance
D)lateral gene transfer is not possible between bacteria
Q3) In Figure 14.2,which is the template strand?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
Q4) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is a single base substitution mutation least likely to be deleterious?
A)when the single base change results in a stop codon
B)when the single base change results in a codon that specifies the same amino acid as the original codon
C)when the base change results in an amino acid substitution that alters the tertiary structure of the protein
D)when the base change results in an amino acid substitution at the active site of an enzyme
Q2) Which of the following is directly related to a single amino acid?
A)the base sequence of the tRNA
B)the amino acetyl tRNA synthase
C)the three-base sequence of mRNA
D)the complementarity of DNA and RNA
Q3) The HIV virus that causes AIDS is an RNA virus.What is an RNA virus?
A)a DNA virus that uses DNA as a template in the process of translation
B)an RNA virus that makes proteins directly from RNA
C)an RNA virus that has reverse transcriptase,enabling it to make DNA from RNA
D)a DNA virus that is acellular and is able to reproduce outside a living cell
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Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Q1) Post-translational modifications include all of the following except _____.
A)removal of introns
B)formation of hydrogen bonds among carbonyl and amino groups of the polypeptide backbone
C)formation of covalent bonds between cysteine residues of the amino acid side chains
D)addition of carbohydrates to form a glycoprotein
Q2) How are RNA hairpin turns related to termination?
A)The turns are formed from complementary base pairing and cause separation of the RNA transcript and RNA polymerase.
B)A three-base repeat signals a stop sequence,and the RNA transcript is released.
C)Release factors bind to sites on the hairpin turn,causing release of the RNA transcript.
D)The hairpin turn prevents more nucleoside triphosphates from entering the active site of the enzymes,effectively shutting off the process of polymerization.
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) Imagine that you've set up a genetic screen to identify E.coli mutants that cannot metabolize the amino acid tryptophan.Beginning with a master plate containing many colonies,you prepare replica plates on medium with glucose or tryptophan as the only energy source.You would look for colonies that _____.
A)cannot grow on either type of media
B)can grow on both types of media
C)can grow only on the plates with tryptophan
D)can grow only on the plates with glucose
Q2) The trp repressor blocks transcription of the trp operon when the repressor _____.
A)binds to inducer
B)is not bound to inducer
C)binds to tryptophan
D)is not bound to tryptophan
E)is not bound to the operator
Q3) Which of the following is associated with negative control of the lac operon?
A)glucose
B)repressor
C)CAP
D)adenylyl cyclase
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which of the following is most critical for the association between histones and DNA?
A)Histones are small proteins.
B)Histones are highly conserved (i.e. ,histones are very similar in every eukaryote).
C)Histones are synthesized in the cytoplasm.
D)There are at least five different histone proteins in every eukaryote.
E)Histones are positively charged.
Q2) Elsewhere in the paper,Chen et al.state that "BDNF is encoded by a complex gene with four well-characterized promoters that give rise to at least eight different mRNAs." What mechanism could account for the production of these different BDNF mRNAs from the same gene?
A)chromatin condensation control
B)alternative splicing
C)translational control
D)post-translational control
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) A gene library from a particular human's retinal cell would be?
A)a collection of DNAs cut by a restriction enzyme
B)a collection of plasmids cut by a restriction enzyme
C)a collection of different DNA fragments ligated into plasmids
D)a collection of genes that have been sequenced from a particular organism
E)a collection of PCR-amplified DNAs
Q2) In early forensic applications of DNA fingerprinting,DNA was extracted from crime scene material,digested with restriction enzymes,and then used to prepare a Southern blot.Today,PCR is used in the early steps of forensic DNA analysis.What advantage does PCR provide over the former method?
A)PCR produces many more bands for fingerprint analysis,making it a more informative technique.
B)PCR can cut DNA at many more sites than can restriction enzymes.
C)PCR requires much less DNA for analysis.
D)PCR can analyze DNA,proteins,and carbohydrates,whereas restriction enzyme analysis is limited to DNA.
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21

Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) Forensic DNA fingerprinting often involves recovery of minute quantities of DNA from a crime scene.What is a concern in analyzing this DNA?
A)There is seldom enough DNA to allow PCR amplification.
B)Even with these tiny amounts of DNA,there may be too much DNA for efficient PCR.
C)Restriction enzymes may not work efficiently on the PCR-amplified DNA.
D)It is critical to avoid the introduction of contaminating human DNA unrelated to the crime.
Q2) A current view of how the human and chimpanzee can share most of their nucleotide sequence yet exhibit significant phenotypic differences is that many of the most important sequence differences alter _____.
A)structural genes
B)the number of repeated sequences
C)regulatory sequences and proteins
D)environmental factors
E)adults but not immature phenotypes
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) When the Bicoid protein is expressed in Drosophila,the embryo is still syncytial (divisions between cells are not yet fully developed).This information helps to explain which observation by Nüsslein-Volhard and Wieschaus?
A)mRNA from the egg is translated into the Bicoid protein.
B)Bicoid protein diffuses throughout the embryo in a concentration gradient.
C)Bicoid protein serves as a transcription regulator.
D)Bicoid protein determines the dorsoventral axis of the embryo.
Q2) During Drosophila development,there is a regulatory cascade of gene activation.The proper sequence for this cascade is _____.
A)bicoid,gap genes,pair-rule genes,and segment polarity genes
B)bicoid,pair-rule genes,gap genes,and segment polarity genes
C)bicoid,segment-polarity genes,gap genes,and pair-rule genes
D)bicoid,gap genes,segment polarity genes,and pair-rule genes
Q3) The protein of the bicoid gene in Drosophila determines the _____ of the embryo.
A)anterior-posterior axis
B)anterior-lateral axis
C)posterior-dorsal axis
D)posterior-ventral axis
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) During organogenesis,the first organ system to begin forming in animal embryos is the _____ system.
A)digestive
B)nervous
C)endocrine
D)circulatory
E)excretory
Q2) During gastrulation in amphibians,the presumptive mesoderm moves into the interior of the embryo by following fibrils of fibronectin.Given what you know about gastrulation,you predict that the fibronectin is most likely secreted by which cells?
A)endodermal cells on the exterior of the embryo
B)mesodermal cells that develop on the inside of the blastocyst
C)ectodermal cells that line the inside of the blastocoel
D)endodermal cells that migrate to the inside of the blastocoel
Q3) What happens during gastrulation?
A)The neural tube forms.
B)The blastula forms.
C)The somites form.
D)The three embryonic tissue germ layers form.
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Page 24

Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Plant and animal development share a number of features,but differ in major ways as well.Which of the following best summarizes the differences between the two forms of development?
A)Animal tissues are irreversibly differentiated;plant tissues retain plasticity throughout life.
B)Animal cells frequently undergo programmed cell death;plant cells do not.
C)Animal development is controlled by regulatory gene sets such as Hox genes;plants have no similar control systems.
D)Animal gametes are produced only after maturity is reached;plant gametes can be produced throughout a plant's lifetime.
Q2) What does the ABC model of flower development attempt to explain?
A)how different combinations of gene products trigger the formation of different floral organs
B)why petals are found on the inside of the whorl of sepals instead of on the outside C)why the four types of floral organs occur in whorls
D)why apical meristems are converted to floral meristems in response to specific cell-to-cell signals
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) The figure above shows the distribution of pocket-mouse coat colors in several Arizona populations found either on light-colored granite substrate or on dark volcanic rock (dark substrate).The Melanocortin-1 receptor (Mc1r)alleles,D and d,differ by four amino acids.Mice with DD and Dd genotypes have dark coats,whereas mice with the dd genotype are light colored.What sort of genotype frequencies might you expect to find in the Xmas,Mid,and O'Neill populations?
A)Xmas high DD frequency;Mid high Dd frequency,O'Neill high dd frequency
B)Xmas high Dd frequency;Mid high DD frequency,O'Neill high dd frequency
C)Xmas high Dd frequency;Mid high dd frequency,O'Neill high DD frequency
D)Xmas high dd frequency;Mid high Dd frequency,O'Neill high DD frequency
E)Xmas high dd frequency;Mid high DD frequency,O'Neill high Dd frequency
Q2) Many crustaceans (e.g. ,lobsters,shrimp,and crayfish)use their tails to swim,but crabs have reduced tails that curl under their shells and are not used in swimming.This is an example of _____.
A)an adaptation
B)a homologous structure
C)natural selection
D)a vestigial trait
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Researchers (Helle et al. ,2004)analyzed rates of twin births in the Sami population of Northern Scandinavia during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.They found that (1)a baby born from a singleton pregnancy was more likely to survive to adulthood than a baby born from a twin pregnancy,and (2)the average number of offspring raised to adulthood was higher for women who had twins than for those who never had twins.These data suggest that in this population,human twinning rate was _____.
A)under direction selection
B)under stabilizing selection
C)under disruptive selection
D)under sexual selection
E)undergoing genetic drift
Q2) Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations?
A)lower average fitness in both populations
B)higher average fitness in both populations
C)increased genetic difference between the two populations
D)decreased genetic difference between the two populations
E)increased genetic drift
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) There is an island in the middle of a large river that houses a large population of ants.Damming of the river causes the island to flood and only the highest points of the island are now above water.The ants cannot swim,so are now in multiple isolated populations.Which of the following best describes this event?
A)isolation by dispersal
B)isolation by vicariance
C)a form of sympatric speciation
D)only a rare development of polyploidy could lead to speciation in this case.
E)speciation will not occur in this case because of gene flow
Q2) Refer to the paragraph about the formation of the Isthmus of Panama.The sister populations on opposite sides of the isthmus are true species under which species concept?
A)the morphospecies concept
B)the biological species concept
C)the phylogenetic species concept
D)both the morphospecies and phylogenetic species concepts
E)the morphospecies,biological species,and phylogenetic species concepts
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following would be least likely in the fossil record?
A)burrowing species
B)marine-dwelling species
C)marsh-dwelling species
D)desert-dwelling species
Q2) You are the lucky student of a wacky professor who develops a time machine and he asks if you will test it with him.You get in and there's an immediate glitch-the date readout fails so that when you land you're not sure what era you're in.Your professor begins to panic,but you see something that tells you you're in the Cenozoic era.Which of the following could it be?
A)a rabbit eating a daisy
B)a water lily floating in a pond
C)masses of green ferns with dragonflies hovering above them
D)a bee pollinating a flower
E)many birds flying and roosting near the time machine
Q3) The phenetic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?
A)morphospecies concept
B)biological species concept
C)phylogenetic species concept
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?
A)pathogenic,omnipresent,morphologically diverse
B)extremophiles,tiny,abundant
C)small,harmful,fast-growing
D)tiny,ubiquitous,metabolically diverse
E)morphologically diverse,metabolically diverse,extremophiles
Q2) Imagine that you are given some chemoorganotrophic bacteria to grow.What should you use as a source of energy for this type of bacteria?
A)light
B)methane
C)ammonia
D)hydrogen sulfide
E)sugar
Q3) The purple non-sulfur bacterium Rhodospirillum grows best as a photoheterotroph.What are the most favorable sources of energy and carbon for this bacterium?
A)methane and CO
B)fructose and light
C)light and CO
D)glucose
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al.and Figure 29.3.Latrunculin A is a reversible toxin that disrupts the formation of actin fibers.A culture of a particular species of diatom was treated with this toxin diluted in a buffer,while another culture was treated only with the buffer (no toxin;control).The motility of cells in each culture was assessed by counting the number of cells that were moving during a defined period of time.Which of the following conclusion statements is reasonable based on the above figure?
A)Formation of actin fibers is not necessary for the movement in this species of diatom.
B)The buffer alone largely inhibited movement in this species of diatom.
C)In this species of diatom,fully formed actin fibers are necessary for movement.
Q2) The manufacture of which of the following products involves using materials that once belonged to a Phaetophyte?
A)cosmetics
B)filters
C)chalk
D)sushi
E)insecticides
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Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Questions
Q1) Why have biologists hypothesized that the first land plants had a low,sprawling growth habit?
A)At the time of the first land plants,the carbon dioxide,which is necessary for photosynthesis,was primarily located close to the ground.
B)They were tied to the water for reproduction and thus needed to remain in close contact with the moist soil.
C)The ancestors of land plants,green algae,lack the structural support to stand erect in air.
D)Land animals of that period were small so they needed short plants to eat.
E)There was less competition for space;only once land plants spread out did they start to grow upright.
Q2) An important fossil fuel is coal,much of which was formed when _____.
A)northern-latitude bogs accumulated peat
B)ancient angiosperms got buried under volcanic ash
C)huge gymnosperms were flooded by an inland sea
D)extensive forests of seedless vascular plants were buried and compressed
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell has two haploid nuclei.This means it is _____.
A)yeast
B)a zygote
C)haploid
D)diploid
E)dikaryotic
Q2) Refer to Figure 31.2.Which of the following results would support Simard et al.'s (1997)hypothesis that fungi can move carbon from one plant to another? Hypothesis: Sugars made by one plant during photosynthesis can travel through a mycorrhizal fungus and be incorporated into the tissues of another plant.
A)Carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.
B)Carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.
C)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.
D)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) The digestive system of most animals is lined with cells through which nutrients are absorbed.What is the embryonic origin of these cells?
A)endoderm
B)ectoderm
C)mesoderm
Q2) Due to its unusual habitat (inside the digestive tracts of other animals),the tapeworm lacks _____.
A)a head
B)a mouth
C)a digestive tract
D)a mouth and a digestive tract
E)a head,a mouth,and a digestive tract
Q3) Which of the following species would you not classify as an animal?
A)sponges
B)coral
C)jellyfish
D)choanoflagellates
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) The protostome developmental sequence arose just once in evolutionary history,resulting in two main subgroups Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa.What does this finding suggest?
A)These two subgroups have a common ancestor that was a deuterostome.
B)The protostomes are a polyphyletic group.
C)Division of these two groups occurred after the protostome developmental sequence appeared.
D)The lophotrochozoans are monophyletic.
Q2) You find a multi-legged animal in your garden and want to determine if it is a centipede or a millipede.You take the animal to a university where a myriapodologist quickly tells you that you've found a centipede.Which of the following may have allowed her to make this distinction?
A)segmentation
B)poison-filled glands
C)the total number of legs
D)egg-laying
E)molting
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Page 35

Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Suppose,while out camping in a forest,you found a chordate with a long,slender,limbless body slithering across the ground near your tent.To which of the following lineages could it belong?
A)Myxinoidea
B)Dipnoi
C)Mammalia
D)Amphibia
E)Chondrichthyes
Q2) As you are walking along a beach,you find an animal and believe that it belongs to the class Asteroidea.Which of the following characteristics would support your hypothesis that the animal is a sea star and not another type of echinoderm?
A)It is pentaradially symmetric.
B)It has five arms.
C)It feeds on other animals.
D)It has a hydrostatic skeleton,formed from its water vascular system.
E)Its central region is not well-delineated from its appendages.
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Mimivirus contains some of the genes required for protein synthesis.This is cited as support for which hypothesis about the origins of viruses?
A)degeneration
B)origin of life
C)escaped-genes
D)transposable elements
Q2) A population of viruses with similar characteristics is called a _____.
A)strain
B)species
C)type
D)genome
E)sense
Q3) To make a vaccine against mumps,measles,or rabies,which type of viruses would be useful?
A)dsDNA viruses
B)negative-sense ssRNA viruses
C)retroviruses
D)positive-sense ssRNA viruses
E)dsRNA viruses
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Page 37

Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?
A)the region of cell division
B)immature buds and leaves
C)give rise to the protoderm,ground meristem,and procambium
D)all of the above
Q2) What part of the root is responsible for water and nutrient absorption?
A)root cap
B)mucigel
C)zone of cellular division
D)trichomes
E)zone of cellular maturation
Q3) The center of many stems contains only parenchyma cells;it is therefore best called a _____.
A)simple tissue
B)complex tissue
C)dermal tissue
D)vascular tissue
E)meristematic tissue
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
38
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell?
A)Flaccid cell has higher pressure potential.
B)Flaccid cell has lower pressure potential.
C)Flaccid cell has higher solute potential.
D)Flaccid cell has lower solute potential.
Q2) Researchers using a dendrograph found that the trunk diameter of a beech tree increased and decreased slightly on a daily basis and that this variation correlated negatively with transpiration rate.Under which of the following sets of conditions should the daily changes in trunk diameter be the smallest?
A)cool spring day,no wind,high soil moisture
B)cool spring day,no wind,soil partially frozen
C)hot summer day,windy,low soil moisture
D)hot summer day,no wind,low soil moisture
E)hot summer day,windy,high soil moisture
Q3) Loss of water from the aerial parts of plants is called _____.
A)dehydration
B)high heat of vaporization
C)respiration
D)gas exchange
E)transpiration
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true about tropical soils?
A)They are nutrient poor.
B)They are alkaline.
C)They contain high concentration of iron oxides.
D)They are rich in soil bacteria.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) What is a typical habitat for carnivorous plants?
A)wet areas with high salinity
B)wet areas with high levels of humus
C)wet areas with low decomposition rates
D)dry areas with low levels of available oxygen
E)dry areas with high levels of peat
Q3) What kind of climate is most often associated with epiphytic plants?
A)warm
B)humid
C)sunny
D)all of the above
Q4) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mammalian eyes sense light because they contain cells having molecules called opsins,which change structure when exposed to light.Which of the following plant molecule(s)would be analogous to mammalian opsins in their light-sensing ability?
A)auxin and phototropins
B)auxin and Pf
C)Pf and phototropins
D)cytokinins and phototropins
E)ABA and Pf
Q2) Refer to Table 39.1.Plant C is a long-day plant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Refer to the paragraph on how caterpillar-damaged plants protect themselves by attracting parasitic wasps.How could you test the hypothesis that caterpillar saliva and a wound are both necessary to attract the parasitoid wasps?
A)Slash the corn leaves with a razor blade.
B)Put caterpillar saliva on a leaf wound.
C)Put caterpillar saliva on an intact leaf.
D)All of the above actions are necessary for testing the hypothesis.
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) The sperm and egg each contribute 50% of the nuclear genetic material to the zygote that becomes the embryo and the new plant.Mitochondria and plastids that become chloroplasts are passed primarily from the female parent.What feature of the male or female gametophytes accounts for this?
A)The female gametophyte is small and mobile and can pack a lot of cytoplasm into a tiny space.
B)The female gametophyte is larger and formed from one surviving megaspore.
C)The male gametophyte is formed in the anthers.
D)Meiosis is not involved in the formation of the female gametophyte.
Q2) The hammer orchids resemble female thyranide wasps and release a chemical signal called pheromone to deceive male thyranide wasps and accomplish pollination.Compared to food-deceiving orchids,is it more or less likely that pollen of hammer orchid will be transferred to the flower of the same species than to flower of the different species?
A)more likely
B)less likely
C)similar probability
Q3) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of this phenomenon?
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an organism was discovered that had no epithelial tissues,it would require adaptations to maintain homeostasis in which of the following areas?
A)The organism would require adaptations in its skeleton for structure.
B)The organism would require adaptation in its circulatory system for transport of blood.
C)The organism would require adaptations in its nervous system for sensing external stimuli.
D)The organism would require adaptations that would prevent water loss from the body in a terrestrial environment.
E)The organism would required adaptations in its muscular system for movement.
Q2) What is the main reason that a person sitting on the beach with an air temperature of 15°C loses heat less rapidly than when immersed in lake water at 15°C?
A)Water conducts heat more efficiently than air does.
B)Water evaporates,and heat is lost to evaporation.
C)Metabolic heat production is greater in air than in water.
D)Air is a poor insulator.
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43

Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) What is the function of the osmotic gradient found in the kidney?
A)The osmotic gradient allows for electrolytes to move from low to high concentrations in the absence of ATP.
B)The osmotic gradient allows for the precise control of the retention of water and electrolytes.
C)The osmotic gradient allows for the loop of Henle to deliver water to the renal vein.
D)The osmotic gradient allows for the filtration of large cells at the glomerulus.
Q2) In flour beetles and desert locusts,how is water conserved?
A)The pre-urine formed in the Malpighian tubules is hypertonic.
B)Urine that is formed is isotonic to hemolymph,but the muscle cells surrounding spiracles of these organisms are able to significantly limit water loss due to respiration.
C)Water is transported into hindgut cells through endocytosis.
D)Sodium and chloride are actively transported out of pre-urine,and water follows,forming a hypertonic urine.
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Food labels provide nutrient information,and express the amount of a given nutrient as _____.
A)a percentage of the Recommended Dietary Allowances
B)International Units
C)percent composition of the food product
D)calories
Q2) The pancreas is involved in the digestion of which of the following?
A)protein,fat,and carbohydrates
B)protein and fat
C)fat
D)fat and nuclease
Q3) Which of the following are the most likely to have teeth adapted for grinding and/or tearing?
A)suspension feeders
B)mass feeders
C)deposit feeders
D)fluid feeders
Q4) The electron micrograms in Figure 43.2 are images of mouthparts of different animals.Which of the mouthparts are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following statements supports the hypothesis that the bidirectional gas flow occurring in humans (air goes in and out through the same passages)is less efficient than the unidirectional flow in fish?
A)Bidirectional flow in humans does not take advantage of countercurrent exchange.
B)About one-third of the air in human lungs is trapped in "dead space" where gas exchange with the circulation cannot occur.
C)Neither "bidirectional flow in humans does not take advantage of countercurrent exchange" nor "about one-third of the air in human lungs is trapped in 'dead space' where gas exchange with the circulation cannot occur" is true.
D)Bidirectional flow in humans does not take advantage of countercurrent exchange;about one-third of the air in human lungs is trapped in "dead space" where gas exchange with the circulation cannot occur.
Q2) Atria contract _____.
A)just prior to the beginning of diastole
B)during diastole
C)immediately after systole
D)during systole
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) A neurophysiologist is investigating nerve reflexes in two different animals a crab and a fish.Action potentials are found to pass more rapidly along the fish's neurons.What is the most likely explanation?
A)The fish's axons are smaller in diameter;small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do.
B)Unlike the crab,the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin.
C)There are more ion channels in the axons of the crab compared with fish axons.
D)Unlike the crab,the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin,and the fish's axons are smaller in diameter;small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do.
Q2) Neurotransmitter is released _____.
A)in response to an action potential depolarizing the presynaptic membrane
B)when threshold potential is reached
C)when enough voltage-gated sodium channels open
Q3) Most synapses found so far in the mammalian central nervous system (CNS)are classified as chemical rather than electrical.
A)True
B)False
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Page 47

Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) How does the ear allow humans to distinguish the volume of different sounds?
A)Louder sounds cause larger action potentials than do softer sounds.
B)Louder sounds cause smaller action potentials than do softer sounds.
C)Louder sounds induce a higher frequency of action potentials than do softer sounds.
D)Louder sounds induce a lower frequency of action potentials than do softer sounds.
E)Louder sounds cause larger action potentials than do softer sounds,and louder sounds induce a higher frequency of action potentials than do softer sounds.
Q2) When a neurobiologist is interested in determining if an animal can see in color what structures are they looking for in the eye?
A)opsins
B)electroreceptors
C)pupil
D)lens
Q3) Acidic amino acids taste sour.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the hypothalamus (H)and the anterior (AP)and posterior (PP)lobes of the pituitary?
A)The H is the neural system that releases hormones directly into the AP and communicates with the PP only through the circulation.
B)The AP regulates the H through negative feedback mechanisms while the PP regulates the H through positive feedback.
C)The H communicates directly with the PP and indirectly with the AP through the circulatory system.
D)The H regulates secretions from the PP,which then regulates all secretions from the AP.
Q2) Patients diagnosed with hypercortisolism may have tumors that secrete _____.
A)growth hormone
B)ACTH
C)estrogen
D)leptin
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) By what mechanism does a second male mating with a female gain an advantage in sperm competition in some insects?
A)The second male's semen has chemicals that kill the first male's sperm.
B)The accessory fluids from the second male's semen can displace stored sperm from competing males.
C)The second male will have larger testes and so produce larger numbers of sperm.
D)The second male is larger than the first male.
Q2) You decide to study two species of birds,both of which form monogamous pairs (one male and one female).In species 1,you find that the eggs in a pair's nest are in fact almost always the offspring of that pair.In species 2,you are surprised to find that many of the eggs in a nest were actually fathered by males of neighboring pairs.Apparently,mating outside of monogamous pairings is widespread in species 2.Given this information,what would be the logical prediction to make before comparing testis size of males of the two species?
A)Testes of species 1 are larger than testes of species 2.
B)Testes of species 2 are larger than testes of species 1.
C)There is no relationship between this observation and the size of testes.
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is an antigen?
A)Antigens are immunoglobulins.
B)Antigens are used by the immune system to neutralize foreign objects.
C)Antigens are molecules used during an immune response to enhance the binding of antibodies to damaged cells.
D)Antigens are produced by white blood cells.
Q2) Which of the following are effective treatments for some allergic reactions?
A)antihistamines
B)epinephrine
C)corticosteroids
D)antihistamines,epinephrine,and corticosteroids
E)both antihistamines and epinephrine
Q3) Which of the following is true of the allergic response?
A)Sufferers produce the IgE class of gamma globulins in response to allergens.
B)Upon the very first exposure to an allergen,an allergy sufferer will probably experience a runny nose,watery eyes,and mild wheezing.
C)It is a normal,healthy,adaptive response to an allergen.
D)All of the above answers are true.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Theoretically,which would be the most effective way to disrupt a Hadley cell?
A)Remove all equatorial moisture and convection.
B)Extensively water the deserts.
C)Heat the poles.
D)Shift the Sun to apply direct rays 30 degrees south latitude.
Q2) Based on the data in Figure 50.2,which of the following statements is true?
A)Area 1 could be called a boreal forest.
B)Area 2 could be called a temperate grassland.
C)Area 1 could be called a tropical wet forest.
D)Area 2 could be tundra.
Q3) A fish species known for its success in the aphotic zone would likely not have which of the following characteristics?
A)symbioses with photosynthetic organisms
B)highly developed chemoreception
C)adaptations for burrowing
D)adaptations for sit-and-wait predation
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Any process in which a signal from one individual modifies the behavior of a recipient individual is termed _____.
A)cognition
B)communication
C)reflex
D)perception
E)conditioning
Q2) The behavioral response associated with the escape behavior of kangaroo rats is an example of a _____.
A)behavior that is modified through learning
B)highly flexible,condition-dependent behavior
C)sign stimulus
D)fixed action pattern
E)behavior that is modified through learning and a highly flexible,condition-dependent behavior
Q3) In Figure 51.2,do the data support the hypothesis that females need spring-like light conditions to produce mature follicles?
A)yes
B)no
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Page 53

Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) The regular fluctuations in size of animal populations are termed _____.
A)population cycles
B)population dynamics
C)growth factors
D)all of the above
Q2) Which statement about K is false?
A)K varies among populations.
B)K varies in space.
C)K varies in time.
D)K is specific for a given species.
Q3) A model that estimates the likelihood that a population will avoid extinction for a given period of time is called a(n)_____.
A)metapopulation
B)population viability analysis
C)age pyramid
D)life table
Q4) Which of the two graphs in Figure 52.8 shows a population of organisms that has a strong population cycle?
A)(a)
B)(b)
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) Treehoppers (a type of insect)produce honeydew,which ants use for food.Treehoppers have a major predator,the jumping spider.Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders.In an experiment,researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared them to a control plot.In Figure 53.6,what can you conclude?
A)Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders.
B)Ants eat the honeydew produced by treehoppers
C)Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers.
D)No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure.
E)Treehoppers do not produce honeydew in July and are not protected by the ants.
Q2) People with at least one copy of the HLA-B53 gene are better able to beat back malarial infections before the infection progresses.If this is a coevolutionary arms race between Plasmodium and humans,what would the next step in this race be?
A)to see humans with more than one copy of the HLA-B53 gene
B)to see humans without the HLA-B53 gene
C)to see Plasmodium populations that counter the HLA-B53 gene
D)to see Plasmodium populations that have the HLA-B53 gene
E)to see a mutation in the HLA-B53 gene that makes it more effective against malarial infections
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Once heat is transferred to the soil,where does it go afterward (Noormets et al.2004)?
A)The heat is emitted back to the atmosphere.
B)The heat is transferred to other soil layers.
C)The heat is stored in the soil.
D)The heat is both emitted back to the atmosphere and transferred to other soil layers.
E)The heat is emitted back to the atmosphere,transferred to other soil layers,and stored in the soil.
Q2) How much nitrogen is fixed from human processes?
A)It is equal to the amount fixed by natural means.
B)It is about half that fixed by natural means.
C)It is about double that fixed by natural means.
D)We cannot calculate this value.
Q3) After looking at the experiment in Figure 54.7,what can be said about nutrient export in ecosystems?
A)Nutrient export is typically 10 times lower in a clear-cut watershed.
B)Nutrient export is typically 10 times higher in a clear-cut watershed.
C)Nutrient export is typically 10 times higher in an uncut watershed.
D)Nutrient export is not affected by any form of cutting.
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on Figure 55.9,what can you conclude about land-use legacy in New England?
A)Population growth has increasingly devastated the forests.
B)A spike in lake sediments caused massive deforestation due to loss of soil nutrients.
C)Sediment spikes correlate with massive population growth.
D)Lake sediments reflect deforestation and despite reforestation,do not recover.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) Based on the species-area plot in Figure 55.7,if habitable area on an island were reduced from 10,000 km² to 1000 km²,roughly what percentage of the species would disappear?
A)0)3 percent
B)3 percent
C)30 percent
D)60 percent
Q3) The main factor that leads to the loss of biodiversity is _____.
A)habitat fragmentation
B)habitat destruction
C)industrialization
D)transportation
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