Biology I Textbook Exam Questions - 2596 Verified Questions

Page 1


Biology I

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of living systems, focusing on the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of life. Students will examine processes such as cellular respiration, photosynthesis, DNA replication, and gene expression, gaining an understanding of how organisms grow, reproduce, and interact with their environment. The course also highlights scientific inquiry, experimentation, and data analysis, providing a foundation for advanced studies in biological sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Biology The Essentials 1st Edition by Marille Hoefnagels

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Scientific Study of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does not evolve?

A)humans

B)bacteria

C)flowering plants

D)limestone rock

E)mushrooms

Answer: D

Q2) In an experiment designed to measure the distance a golf ball is hit by clubs made of different material,the independent variable is

A)the wind direction when the experiment takes place.

B)the distance the golf ball travels.

C)the type of material the golf ball is made of.

D)the speed of the golf club prior to hitting the golf ball.

E)the type of material the club is made of.

Answer: E

Q3) The cell is the basic unit of life.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) The three major components in a nucleotide are

A)glucose,a nitrogen base,and a phosphate group.

B)glucose,a fatty acid,and glycerol.

C)a nitrogen base,a carboxyl group,and an R group.

D)a nitrogen base,a five-carbon sugar,and a phosphate group.

E)a carboxyl group,an R group,and an amino group.

Answer: D

Q2) In a covalent bond

A)atoms share electrons.

B)atoms of opposite charges attract each other.

C)atoms share protons.

D)atoms share neutrons.

E)atoms are repelled by each other.

Answer: A

Q3) A fatty acid is unsaturated if there is at least one double bond between the carbon atoms in the hydrocarbon chains.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) The three domains in the Woese system of classification are

A)Bacteria,Animalia,and Plantae.

B)Fungi,Protista,and Animalia.

C)Archaea,Eukarya,and Protista.

D)Monera,Bacteria,and Eukarya.

E)Archaea,Bacteria,and Eukarya.

Answer: E

Q2) Mitochondrial DNA in most mammals is inherited only from the mother because a sperm cell contains no mitochondria.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Mitochondria are known for all of the following except that they do not

A)have their own DNA.

B)extract energy from food.

C)have two membranes.

D)have cristae.

E)carry out photosynthesis.

Answer: E

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Page 5

Chapter 4: The Energy of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) An enzyme is a lipid that catalyzes chemical reactions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A ball at the top of a hill is an example of______ and a ball rolling down the hill is an example of ______.

A)potential energy;kinetic energy

B)kinetic energy;potential energy

C)exergonic reaction;endergonic reaction

D)noncompetitive inhibition;competitive inhibition

E)competitive inhibition;noncompetitive inhibition

Q3) Energy is harvested from ______ and used ______.

A)food,light,and chemicals;to do endergonic reactions

B)endergonic reactions;to do cellular processes

C)active transport;facilitated diffusion

D)endocytosis;exocytosis

E)exocytosis;endocytosis

Q4) Reduction is the gain of electrons.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Leaves of many plants change colors in the fall because

A)the cooler weather causes plants to produce more of the accessory photosynthetic pigments.

B)chlorophyll in the leaves degrades with shorter days and cooler temperatures.

C)the decrease in daylight hours causes the plant to produce more of the accessory photosynthetic pigments.

D)plants produce more chlorophyll.

E)All answers are correct.

Q2) The light reactions of photosynthesis can occur in the day and night.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is released at each step of an electron transport chain?

A)ultraviolet wavelengths

B)electrons

C)photons

D)energy

E)All answers are correct.

Q4) The primary photosynthetic pigment molecule,chlorophyll a,is an orange pigment.

A)True

B)False

Page 7

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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the reactants are exposed to oxygen during production of yogurt with bacterium Lactobacillus,then

A)no lactic acid will be produced because it requires anaerobic conditions.

B)aerobic respiration will occur.

C)All answers are correct.

D)yogurt will not be produceD.

E)fermentation will not occur.

Q2) The main reason that cellular respiration needs to occur step by step is because

A)cells do not store enough oxygen.

B)cells do not contain many mitochondria.

C)glucose breaks down slowly inside a cell.

D)it enables cells to harness energy released at each step.

E)cells produce the enzymes needed for cellular respiration very slowly.

Q3) The chemical formula for glucose is ______.

A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>

B)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>12</sub>

C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>12</sub>

D)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>

E)C<sub>1</sub>H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>1</sub>

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Page 8

Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The length of a DNA sequence is _____ than the mature mRNA transcribed from it,because

A)shorter;it does not contain exons.

B)equal;it was transcribed from the DNA sequence.

C)longer;it does not contain introns.

D)shorter;each codon of three bases encodes only one amino aciD.

E)longer;each codon of one amino acid encodes three bases.

Q2) The stage of viral replication in which the viral nucleic acid is released inside the cell is

A)penetration.

B)release.

C)attachment.

D)synthesis.

E)assembly.

Q3) What process converts the mRNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids?

A)transcription

B)replication

C)mitosis

D)amino acid synthesis

E)translation

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Chapter 8: DNA Replication and Cell Division

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Sample Questions

Q1) The plant cell in the image labeled "c" is in the cell cycle stage A)metaphase. B)telophase.

C)anaphase.

D)interphase.

Q2) The plant cell in the image labeled "a" is in the cell cycle stage A)interphase. B)prophase.

C)anaphase.

D)telophase.

E)metaphasE.

Q3) A part of a chromosome that attaches sister chromatids to each other defines the term A)chromatin. B)nucleosome.

C)centromere. D)histone.

E)None of the answers are correct

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10

Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a human zygote has either 45 or 47 chromosomes it was caused by random fertilization.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Why does sexual reproduction produce more genetic variability in a population?

A)Offspring are genetically identical to one parent.

B)During sex,adults can exchange genetic material thus increasing their variability.

C)Organisms arising from sexual reproduction can change their genetic material in response to environmental changes.

D)Sexually-reproducing organisms mutate more rapidly than asexually reproducing organisms.

E)Offspring are a genetic mix of both parents.

Q3) A diploid cell with 4 chromosomes would produce which of the following after meiosis?

A)Two genetically-distinct types of haploid gametes

B)Two genetically-distinct types of diploid gametes

C)Four genetically-distinct types of haploid gametes

D)Four genetically-distinct types of diploid gametes

E)Four genetically-identical diploid gametes

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) A male expresses

A)only the dominant alleles on his X chromosome.

B)both the dominant and recessive alleles on his X chromosome.

C)only the homozygous recessive alleles on his X chromosome.

D)none of the alleles on his X chromosome.

E)only the homozygous dominant alleles on his X chromosomE.

Q2) When Mendel crossed tall (Tt)plants with tall (Tt)plants the offspring

A)did not grow and reproduce.

B)were always short.

C)were always tall.

D)were always medium height.

E)were mostly tall individuals and a few short individuals.

Q3) If the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between the homozygotes,this is called A)codominance.

B)independent assortment.

C)linkage.

D)incomplete dominance.

E)polygenic.

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12

Chapter 11: DNA Technology

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Sample Questions

Q1) In creating a transgenic organism,the ____ from one species is inserted into another species.

A)RNA

B)DNA

C)protein

D)DNA or protein

E)plasmid

Q2) Which of the following is used to ensure absence of a specific genetic disorder through selection of embryos for in vitro fertilization?

A)preimplantation genetic diagnosis

B)genetic testing

C)gene therapy

D)somatic cell nuclear transfer

E)All answers are correct.

Q3) An organism that receives recombinant DNA

A)has a genetic disease.

B)is a transgenic organism.

C)will develop cancer.

D)is sterile.

E)is a new species.

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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Size Matters in Fishing Frenzy",what did the researchers conclude from the figure?

A)Harvesting larger fish led to an increase in average size over time.

B)Harvesting fish in a slot limit led to a decrease in average size over time.

C)Harvesting fish in a slot limit led to an increase in average size over time.

D)Harvesting fish of the three treatments created different selective pressures and changed the genetic structure of the populations.

E)Harvesting larger fish led to a decrease in average size over timE.

Q2) The North American bison was hunted to near-extinction in the 1800s.It has since recovered,but with decreased genetic diversity.This is an example of

A)founder effect.

B)a bottleneck effect.

C)natural selection.

D)increased mutation rate.

E)artificial selection.

Q3) Evolution answers the question of how life began.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) The wings of a bat and a bird are examples of

A)analogous structures.

B)homologous structures.

C)vestigial structures.

D)homeotic structures.

E)heterologous structures.

Q2) Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?

A)streamlined body shape in marine predators

B)lack of pigmentation and working eyes in cave-dwelling and deep-sea organisms

C)wings and ability to fly in birds and insects

D)marsupial moles and placental moles

E)All answers are correct.

Q3) Fossils may be

A)from impressions left after an organism decays.

B)formed as organic matter is replaced by minerals,turning to stone.

C)formed when plant resin or tar preserves the specimen.

D)casts from footprints that have filled with mud and then turned to stone.

E)All answers are correct.

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15

Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Birds are least related to A)non-avian dinosaurs.

B)crocodiles.

C)turtles.

D)mammals.

E)amphibians.

Q2) Three species of tigers have become extinct due to overharvesting or habitat destruction.This is an example of A)mass extinction.

B)background extinction rate.

C)sympatric speciation.

D)increased extinction rate by human activity.

E)allopatric speciation.

Q3) In the section "Investigating Life: Birds Do It,Bees Do It",what can be concluded about the flower preferences of bumblebees?

A)They prefer pink flowers.

B)They prefer red flowers.

C)They prefer yellow-orange flowers.

D)They prefer M.lewisii no matter what color the flowers are.

E)They prefer M.cardinalis no matter what color the flowers arE.

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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why do scientists hypothesize that RNA was the first form of genetic material?

A)All answers are correct.

B)RNA can catalyze reactions.

C)RNA can store genetic information.

D)RNA can self-replicate.

E)RNA can use genetic information to make proteins.

Q2) Prokaryotes lack which of the following?

A)a nucleus

B)RNA

C)DNA

D)a cell membrane

E)a cell wall

Q3) Trichonympha is a unicellular,flagellated protist that lives within termites and allows the termite to be able to "digest" wood.Trichonympha is which of the following?

A)an autotroph

B)a heterotroph and autotroph

C)a detritivore

D)a heterotroph

E)a heterotroph and detritovore

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17

Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) The parts of the plant that allow for gas exchange are the A)roots.

B)stomata.

C)xylem.

D)phloem.

E)cuticlE.

Q2) ______ is/are a waxy coating that minimizes water loss from leaves of the plant.

A)Stomata

B)Roots

C)Xylem

D)Phloem

E)Cuticle

Q3) ______ transport sugars produced by photosynthesis to the non-green parts of the plant.

A)Stomata

B)Roots

C)Phloem

D)Xylem

E)Cuticle

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals

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Sample Questions

Q1) The tendency to concentrate sensory organs and brain at the head end of an animal is called cephalization.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In animals,a sphere of embryonic cells surrounding a fluid-filled cavity is called a A)gastrovascular cavity.

B)blastula.

C)coelom.

D)gastrula.

E)hydrostatic skeleton.

Q3) Segmentation occurs in annelids,arthropods,and chordates.What can therefore be concluded about segmentation?

A)Segmentation occurs in all animals.

B)Segmentation occurs only in invertebrates.

C)Segmentation occurs only in vertebrates.

D)Segmentation evolved multiple times.

E)The first animal that gave rise to all other animals was segmented.

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Chapter 18: Population Ecology

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Q1) In regards to a species' life history,equilibrium species

A)have only a few offspring.

B)are short lived.

C)reproduce at an early age.

D)have a large number of offspring.

E)give very little care to their offspring.

Q2) The maximum number of individuals that a habitat can support indefinitely is the habitat's

A)density dispersion.

B)carrying capacity.

C)growth capacity.

D)environmental loaD.

E)dispersion capacity.

Q3) In a survivorship curve,a type II species,like a song bird,is a species that

A)has an equal probability of dying at any age.

B)has a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time.

C)has the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span.

D)has an extremely short life span.

E)has the highest probability of dying at a very young agE.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The rain shadow associated with mountains

A)is on the downwind side and has a wetter climate than the upwind side of the mountain.

B)is on the upwind side and has a drier climate than the downwind side of the mountain.

C)is on the downwind side and has a drier climate than the upwind side of the mountain.

D)is on the upwind side and has a wetter climate than the downwind side of the mountain.

Q2) Why are estuaries and coral reefs more productive than deeper regions of the ocean?

A)They have more access to light and nutrients.

B)They have more access to light and lower salt concentrations in the water.

C)They have more access to light.

D)They have more access to nutrients and lower salt concentrations in the water.

E)They have lower salt concentrations in the water.

Q3) Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which neither member of the relationship benefits.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is it important to maintain biodiversity?

A)To prevent habitat destruction

B)To protect species richness

C)To provide resources to humans

D)All answers are correct.

E)To maintain genetic variation

Q2) What was a disadvantage of digging canals in the Everglades?

A)increased cropland

B)increased flooding during hurricanes

C)increased risk of algae blooms

D)increased floodplain wetlands

E)decreased freshwater

Q3) In the section "Investigating Life: The Case of the Missing Frogs: Is Climate the Culprit?",what happened to temperatures in the cloud forest over the past 40 years based on Part B of the figure?

A)Maximum temperatures increased and minimum temperatures dropped.

B)Temperatures overall increased.

C)Temperatures overall decreased.

D)Temperatures were constant.

E)Maximum temperatures dropped and minimum temperatures increased.

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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Stems that coil around surrounding objects for support are A)always parasitic.

B)tendrils.

C)stomata.

D)rhizomes.

E)tubers.

Q2) If a gardener wanted to help prevent erosion along a slope it would be best to

A)plant grasses because they have fibrous roots.

B)plant grasses because they have taproots.

C)plant trees because they have taproots.

D)plant trees because they have fibrous roots.

Q3) Which letter corresponds to a nonvegetative part of the plant?

A)H

B)C

C)G

D)B

E)D

Q4) Vegetative edible plant parts include roots,fruits,stems,and tubers.

A)True

B)False

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants

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Q1) Angiosperms owe their widespread distribution to their production of pollen,seeds,and flowers.What is the greatest advantage to the production of pollen?

A)It allows fertilization in the absence of water.

B)It is necessary for sexual reproduction.

C)It allows fertilization in moist areas.

D)It promotes pollination.

E)It protects and nourishes the embryo.

Q2) You plant a seed in a pot containing soil,and then add water and place the pot under a light.After the seedling emerged,complete with two green leaves,the carbon dioxide levels decreased in the closed chamber.This indicated that _________ was occurring.

A)photosynthesis

B)cellular respiration

C)sucrose production

D)alcohol fermentation

E)fertilization

Q3) Coconuts are fruits containing seeds that are usually wind-dispersed.

A)True

B)False

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems

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Q1) The type of epithelial tissue that forms a single layer of flattened cells is

A)stratified squamous.

B)simple cuboidal.

C)simple columnar.

D)simple squamous.

E)stratified columnar.

Q2) The type of epithelial tissue that forms a multiple layer of flattened cells is

A)stratified squamous.

B)simple squamous.

C)simple cuboidal.

D)simple columnar.

E)stratified columnar.

Q3) The primary function of muscle tissue is A)contraction.

B)absorption.

C)secretion.

D)impulse transmission.

E)compression.

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25

Chapter 24: Nervous System and the Senses

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Q1) Receptors for the special senses are limited to the A)head.

B)tongue.

C)ears.

D)feet.

E)abdomen.

Q2) In humans,which of the following is used primarily to detect touch and vibration?

A)photoreceptors

B)thermoreceptors

C)mechanoreceptors

D)pain receptors

E)chemoreceptors

Q3) Molecules produced by humans that influence mood and the perception of pain are opiates.

A)True

B)False

Q4) During an action potential,sodium ions enter into the cell.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System

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Q1) The hormone produced by the adrenal gland that constricts blood vessels and slows digestion is

A)calcitonin.

B)epinephrine.

C)insulin.

D)glucagon.

E)testosteronE.

Q2) The antibody produced in Graves' disease would do which of the following?

A)inhibit the thyroid from releasing thyroid hormone

B)stimulate the thyroid to release thyroid hormone

C)bind to thyroid hormone in the blood

D)destroy thyroid cells

E)enter the thyroid cell and move to the nucleus

Q3) Hypoglycemia is caused by

A)too much insulin being produced.

B)too little insulin being produced.

C)insufficient carbohydrate intake or too much insulin production.

D)insufficient carbohydrate intake.

E)insufficient carbohydrate intake or too little insulin production.

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Page 27

Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems

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Q1) The breast muscle of a wild duck is dark,while that of a domesticated chicken is white.What would be true of breast muscle in a domesticated chicken?

A)They are fast-twitch muscles with few capillaries or mitochondriA.

B)They are slow-twitch muscles with abundant capillaries and mitochondria.

C)They are slow-twitch muscles with few capillaries or mitochondria.

D)They are fast-twitch muscles with abundant capillaries and mitochondria.

Q2) The process by which an arthropod sheds its exoskeleton in order to grow is called molting.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A bedridden person is at risk of which of the following?

A)rheumatoid arthritis

B)osteoarthritis

C)osteoporosis

D)a sprain

E)anemia

Q4) Bones regulate calcium homeostasis.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems

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Q1) Sleep apnea is temporarily ceasing to breathe and is more common in people who are overweight.Excess fat in the neck compresses the airway,cutting off air flow.The person then wakes up to clear their throat and resumes normal breathing.Which of the following would trigger this reflex?

A)increased oxygen

B)decreased carbon dioxide

C)increased carbon dioxide

D)decreased oxygen

E)decreased nitrogen

Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: In (Extremely)Cold Blood",how do ice fish transport oxygen in their blood?

A)in red blood cells

B)in white blood cells

C)in platelets

D)in plasma

E)on hemoglobin

Q3) A decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is called anemia.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 28: Regulating Temperature, nutrients, and Body

Fluids

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Q1) Tiny finger-like projections along the small intestine that are used to absorb nutrients are

A)ciliA.

B)flagella.

C)villi.

D)Pacinian corpuscles.

E)tentacles.

Q2) Morbid obesity is defined as having a BMI (body mass index)of at least A)ten to fifteen.

B)forty.

C)twenty.

D)twenty-five.

E)thirty.

Q3) The renal vein transports oxygen-rich blood to the kidney.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The human small intestine is shorter than the large intestine. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 29: The Immune System

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74 Verified Questions

74 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/61952

Sample Questions

Q1) Antibodies are made against a very small portion of an antigen called an epitope.An epitope is often just 5-6 amino acids from a protein on an antigen.Which of the following explains how antibodies could be produced against just a small part of an antigen?

A)T helper cells secrete enzymes that digest the pathogen.

B)B cells produce antibodies that bind directly to a single epitope on the antigen.

C)Cytotoxic T cells poke holes in the antigen.

D)Complement protein pokes holes in the antigen.

E)Macrophages engulf and digest the pathogen.

Q2) Rh incompatibility is due to an immune reaction to which of the following by a pregnant woman?

A)a self antigen on red blood cells

B)a foreign antibody on red blood cells

C)a foreign antigen on red blood cells

D)a self antibody on red blood cells

Q3) The constant region of an antibody molecule determines which antigen will be bound by the antibody.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development

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77 Verified Questions

77 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/61951

Sample Questions

Q1) A caterpillar turning into a butterfly is an example of A)external fertilization.

B)internal fertilization.

C)indirect development.

D)direct development.

E)reproduction.

Q2) The correct sequence for the stages in development from conception to birth is

A)preembryonic stage,zygote,embryonic stage,fetal stage.

B)fetal stage,zygote,preembryonic stage,embryonic stage.

C)preembryonic stage,embryonic stage,zygote,fetal stage.

D)zygote,preembryonic stage,embryonic stage,fetal stage.

E)fetal stage,embryonic stage,preembryonic stage,zygotE.

Q3) is a surgical procedure in which the vas deferens are severed,and then tied.How would this cause sterility?

A)Sperm cannot be produced by meiosis.

B)Sperm cannot be produced by mitosis.

C)Sperm cannot move to the urethra.

D)A man cannot get an erection.

E)The testes stop producing testosteronE.

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