Biology I Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of life and living organisms. The course covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, energy transformations, and ecological relationships. Students will be introduced to the scientific method, biological molecules, mechanisms of inheritance, and the diversity of life. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive activities, students develop a foundation for further studies in biological sciences and gain an understanding of the relevance of biology in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although it seems contradictory, science cannot prove a hypothesis to be true. This is because
A)all true hypotheses will be rejected by the scientific method because they can be proven false.
B)future experiments or discoveries may provide data that refutes the hypothesis.
C)science is a human endeavor, and like all human endeavors, is limited by human understanding.
D)the scientific method is limited to examination of the natural world.
Answer: B
Q2) Those organisms classified as consumers capture their energy directly from the sun.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Advantageous features that evolve over time and help an organism survive or reproduce are called ____________________.
Answer: adaptations
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prokaryotes obtain their nutrition in a variety of ways; all of the following methods except _____ have been observed.
A)consuming other organisms
B)acquiring carbon from nonliving sources
C)using noncarbon-based nutritional systems
D)photosynthesis
Answer: C
Q2) Carbon and energy are among the most basic life resources and organisms that have been classified with respect to how they are obtained. What term describes an organism that obtains these substances from rock?
A)chemoheterotroph
B)photoautotroph
C)photoheterotroph
D)chemoautotroph
Answer: D
Q3) Using the simplest methods to study the composition of intestinal microbial flora, it is necessary to collect a ____________________ sample from the subject.
Answer: fecal
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4
Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary body of a fungus is known as the A)mycelium.
B)gymnosperm.
C)mitochondrion.
D)septum.
Answer: A
Q2) Life on Earth appears to have began in the water; the first organisms believed to colonize the land were A)bacteria.
B)plants.
C)fungi.
D)animals.
Answer: B
Q3) The ____________________ were the first plant group to evolve a vascular system.
Answer: ferns
Q4) The modification allowing a plant to detect explosives involves a natural response designed to detect biologically relevant situations like ____________________. Answer: pests
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Chapter 4: Animalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The evolutionary tree of the vertebrates supports which conclusion?
A)The blacktip reef shark, Carcharhinus melanopterus, evolved before any mammals existed.
B)The DNA of humans and turtles will show more similarities than any comparison involving any fish or amphibian.
C)The embryos of fish, amphibians, and reptiles would be indistinguishable from those of a human.
D)All of the above are valid conclusions.
Q2) Sharks and the ray-finned fishes differ in several ways; the most significant difference is the composition of the skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Biologists might have been able to predict that raising lobsters in captivity would be unsuccessful; once a lobster
A)molts it becomes defenseless and a prey item for other lobsters.
B)reaches marketable size the cost of feeding it exceeds its sales value.
C)reaches sexual maturity they quit feeding, lose weight, and search for mates.
D)molts its flavor and texture make it almost unpalatable.
Q4) Endoderm forms the ____________________ layer of an animal embryo.
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Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary structure of a protein consists of its amino acid sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the equation 3H + N 2NH , how many molecules of hydrogen gas (H )are present?
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)12
Q3) Nucleic acids contain phosphorus but not sulfur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Covalent bonds contain ions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The strongest possible chemical link between two atoms is a(n)
A)covalent bond.
B)hydrogen bond.
C)noncovalent bond.
D)ionic bond.
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma membrane of a cell and the membrane boundaries of organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts serve similar functions. What is one of the main functions of the membranes of both cells and organelles?
A)They keep reactants near each other to speed biological reactions.
B)They allow external chemicals to diffuse freely into and out of the cell.
C)They encourage cellular respiration at the membrane boundaries.
D)They keep water out of the cell and organelle interiors.
Q2) Which of the following would you find in the cells that produce the mucus that lines the nasal cavities?
A)vesicles
B)grana
C)flagella
D)thylakoids
Q3) Molecules of _____ are consumed by mitochondria during cellular respiration.
A)O
B)CO
C)H O
D)NO
Q4) The ____________________ has a double membrane but no cristae.
Q5) The ____________________ endoplasmic reticulum is covered with ribosomes.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Elevated cholesterol and LDL (the particles that transport cholesterol)have been strongly associated with vascular disease; what process(es)lead to the elevated levels?
A)excessive absorption of cholesterol from the GI tract
B)excessive production by the liver
C)reduced acceptance of cholesterol by body cells
D)all of the above
Q2) Signaling molecules can be "tagged" by attaching glow-in-the-dark molecules to them. After adding tagged signaling molecules to the fluid around several cells, you observe the cells with a microscope designed to see glow-in-the-dark molecules. After a few minutes, you notice that the plasma membrane of some of the cells begins to glow. This observation indicates that some cells
A)have more dense plasma membranes than others.
B)have receptors for the signaling molecule.
C)have no active carrier proteins for the signaling molecules.
D)block the signaling molecules by repelling them.
Q3) Cells suspended in a hypertonic solution will lose water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its surroundings remains constant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____________________ are the organelles where the breakdown products of food are oxidized, thereby generating most of a cell's ATP.
Q3) Photosynthetic organisms capture energy from sunlight and convert it into chemical bonds by forming A)sugars.
B)enzymes.
C)work.
D)heat.
Q4) An enzyme and its substrate find each other by A)chance encounter.
B)magnetic attraction.
C)catalysis.
D)oxidative reactions.
Q5) A rotted log indicates that the ____________________ law of thermodynamics has been operating.
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Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscles of a very active organism would contain fewer mitochondria than the muscles of a less active organism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Stomata admit CO but also facilitate the loss of water; plants must regulate their stomata carefully or risk dehydration. A reasonable hypothesis associated with the global increase in atmospheric CO is that plants will
A)evolve lower stomatal densities and reduce the potential for desiccation.
B)grow larger and more rapidly than they presently do.
C)keep their stomata closed most of the time to minimize carbon dioxide poisoning.
D)increase stomatal densities to take advantage of the abundance of CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) The three stages of aerobic catabolism are
A)photosynthesis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation.
B)glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation.
C)glycolysis, fermentation, and the Krebs cycle.
D)photosynthesis, the Krebs cycle, and fermentation.
Q4) The innermost membrane in a chloroplast is the ____________________ membrane.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many sister chromatids are in a bivalent?
A)2
B)4
C)8
D)16
Q2) Cytokinesis occurs during interphase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following foods is most likely to contain haploid cells?
A)a sirloin steak
B)an apple
C)an egg
D)a stalk of celery
Q4) Chromosomes become visible during the ____________________ stage of mitosis.
Q5) The random distribution of chromosomes into daughter cells during ____________________ of meiosis is one way to create genetic diversity.
Q6) Meiosis I is almost identical to the events in mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stem cells display two unique characteristics: the ability to _____ and _____.
A)eliminate their telomeres; demonstrate anchorage dependence
B)differentiate into a variety of cell types; divide repeatedly
C)express genes; synthesize proteins
D)metastasize; initiate angiogenesis
Q2) People who quit smoking live longer than those who do not quit smoking.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rapid cell proliferation can result from
A)contact inhibition.
B)a cell ignoring a negative growth regulator.
C)a mutation inhibiting the action of a positive growth regulator.
D)the surgical removal of a benign polyp.
Q4) Which of the following is not likely to cause a cell to become cancerous?
A)mutation
B)meiosis
C)chemical pollutants
D)cigarette smoke
Q5) A harmless proliferation of cells in a human colon would be called a(n)____________________ polyp.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)Two organisms with the same genotype are homozygous.
B)Two organisms with the same phenotype may have different genotypes.
C)A heterozygous organism may have the same phenotype as a homozygous organism.
D)A heterozygous organism has the same number of copies of a given gene as a homozygous organism.
Q2) Which of the following statements is a basic summary of one of Mendel's laws?
A)All beneficial human genetic traits are dominant, and harmful traits are recessive.
B)The pattern of inherited characteristics of organisms is not predictable.
C)The separation of alleles for one gene does not affect the separation of alleles for other genes.
D)Recessive alleles cause the death of the gamete.
Q3) We need a hammer to pound nails into a board. Even if we have the nails, we cannot pound them without first getting hold of a hammer. This is similar to the genetic relationship known as
A)heterozygosity.
B)codominance.
C)epistasis.
D)independent assortment.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gender of a human child is determined by the A)loci.
B)autosome.
C)egg.
D)sperm.
Q2) Most inherited human genetic disorders are inherited as _____ alleles.
A)dominant
B)autosomal
C)recessive
D)environmental
Q3) In humans, which of the following chromosomes would probably carry the fewest genes?
A)the Y chromosome
B)chromosome 4
C)the X chromosome
D)chromosome 14
Q4) A specific gene can be found in several possible places on a given chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or _-linked.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An operator is a sequence of DNA whose function it is to
A)bind to the chromosome to prevent replication.
B)bind to the chromosome to prevent gene expression.
C)control the transcription of a gene or group of genes.
D)control the translation of a gene or group of genes.
Q2) The 220 different cell types in the human body each contain all of the same DNA found in every other cell type.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To start DNA replication, the bonds holding the strands together are broken, and the molecule begins to unwind. Which of the following statements best summarizes what happens next?
A)New strands are synthesized and paired with each other.
B)Each old strand acts as a template for a new strand.
C)Each old strand is broken down into nucleotides.
D)Transformation results in a new DNA molecule.
Q4) The amount of DNA in a prokaryotic cell is ____________________ than the amount of DNA in a eukaryotic cell.
Q5) The "rungs" in the DNA "ladder" consist of ____________________ pairs.
Page 16
Q6) DNA is tightly packed around protein spools known as ____________________.
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which molecules are involved in translation?
A)DNA and RNA
B)mDNA, tDNA, and rDNA
C)mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
D)proteins, amino acids, and DNA
Q2) If a particular stretch of DNA has the base sequence TAC, what will be the base sequence of the anticodon of the tRNA that carries the amino acid encoded by that stretch of DNA?
A)TAC
B)UAC
C)ATG
D)GUC
Q3) DNA molecules are double-stranded, whereas most RNA molecules are single-stranded. Which of the following choices is the most likely reason that RNA does not need to be double-stranded?
A)DNA reproduces itself directly, whereas RNA does not.
B)RNA reproduces itself directly, whereas DNA does not.
C)DNA undergoes translation that requires the use of both strands at the same time.
D)RNA undergoes transcription that can only read one strand at a time.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Q1) RNA is not a useful tool for the development of cures for genetically inherited diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interference RNA (RNA )functions by
A)slowing or preventing the formation of ribosomes in cells infected with a virus.
B)preventing the replication of viral DNA.
C)producing restriction enzymes that degrade viral DNA.
D)"silencing" viral genes by binding to complementary sequences.
Q3) The immune disorder adenosine deaminase (ADA)deficiency is the result of a mutation in one gene. How could gene therapy be used to treat this disorder?
A)Red blood cells could be induced to produce the protein encoded by the mutated ADA gene.
B)Cells containing a corrected ADA gene could be injected into patients with ADA.
C)The patients could swallow synthetic blood cells.
D)Patients could be injected with a hybrid molecule made of the DNA and RNA of the normal ADA gene.
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Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Human and fish embryos share a number of features. Why is this?
A)Humans and fish share a common ancestor.
B)Embryos of all organisms, plant and animal, look alike.
C)Mutations in human and fish embryos have caused them to look alike.
D)Humans and fish have exactly the same genes, but as they develop, different genes are turned on in fish than in humans.
Q2) Vestigial organs have important functions in many organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Continental drift predicts that fossils of species that evolved after Pangaea split apart should be found on only one or a few present-day continents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some finches on the Galápagos Islands eat insects, an unusual food for finches to eat. These finches
A)could not survive if they were moved from their island.
B)learned their habits from local birds.
C)switched to insects because they tasted better than their usual food.
D)fill roles that birds other than finches would fill in other places.
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) Genetic drift can result in the fixation of a harmful allele in a small population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is genetic drift?
A)gene mutation within, or between, populations
B)chance evolutionary change occurring in small populations
C)natural selection acting on large populations
D)shifts in allelic frequencies due to mutation
Q3) Scientists have hypothesized that the reason European men have darker skin color than European women is that more than 10,000 years ago, these men preferred to mate with lighter-skinned females. If this is true, skin color is an example of _____ in Europeans.
A)gene flow
B)a genetic bottleneck
C)sexual selection
D)recombination
Q4) If the genotype values predicted by the Hardy-Weinberg equation are greatly different from the values found in the real population, we can say that the population is
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Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological Diversity
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Q1) Speciation as a result of geographic isolation generally occurs at a ____________________ rate than speciation as a result of polyploidy.
Q2) Two species live in the same area but breed in different parts of their habitat. These species are
A)geographically isolated.
B)ecologically isolated.
C)artificially isolated.
D)likely to produce hybrids.
Q3) Ninety-nine percent of all the species that ever existed on Earth are now extinct.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following most likely is not an adaptation by plants to attract animals for assistance with mating?
A)production of nectar
B)brightly colored flower petals
C)absence of petals
D)sweet-smelling fragrance
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Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) The big toe is opposable in all primates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Scientists use existing fossils to predict what the transitional forms between organisms might look like. Why is it so hard for scientists to find fossils of these transitional forms?
A)Scientists have no way to determine how deep in a rock to look for a transitional fossil, so they just have to dig and dig until they find the right fossil.
B)Because of continental drift, the exact location of where a transitional fossil should be found cannot be determined. Looking for a particular fossil that could be anywhere on the planet is like looking for a needle in a haystack.
C)Fossils of transitional species may have never formed due to environmental conditions, or if they did form, natural processes like erosion may have destroyed them.
D)The transitional form of any organism is only hypothetical in nature; it never truly existed on the planet and, therefore, could never become a fossil.
Q3) Mammals evolved from ____________________ about 220 million years ago.
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Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) Atmospheric circulation occurs primarily within one of the ____________________ major convection cells.
Q2) Relatively little precipitation falls on the side of a mountain that faces away from prevailing winds because of the ____________________ effect.
Q3) Hawaii is positioned near the center of the north Pacific current system; the general flow of ocean water to the south of Hawaii would be to the A)east.
B)north.
C)south.
D)west.
Q4) Many of the consumers in the benthic zone feed on dead organisms that drift down from the photic zone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The biosphere can be divided into major terrestrial and aquatic life zones called ____________________.
Q6) An ____________________ studies the many levels of interaction between organisms and their environments.
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Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) The population explosion that occurred shortly after the Opuntia cactus was introduced to Australia is an example of
A)exponential growth.
B)emigration.
C)reduced population density.
D)a native species outcompeting an introduced species.
Q2) A population of 100 individuals is undergoing exponential growth, with a constant growth rate of 0.2 per year. What size will this population be in 2 years?
A)100
B)120
C)144
D)200
Q3) The change in size of a given population of organisms may have a direct impact on humans. The 1993 outbreak of hantavirus in the southwestern United States was partly due to a(n)
A)tightly linked cycle of human and hantavirus populations.
B)increase in the deer mouse population size.
C)decline in the desert salamander population, the normal hantavirus host.
D)increase in human population size.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Why would a food web rather than a food chain be the preferred way to represent the movement of food through the community?
A)Food chains are oversimplified and suggest that a consumer eats only a single food item.
B)Food webs place producers at the bottom, whereas food chains place them at the top.
C)Food webs are based on a foundation of producers.
D)Actually, ecologists prefer to use food chains to describe food movements.
Q2) The general process by which species in a community are replaced over time is called ____________________.
Q3) Mutualism is rare in nature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following could represent the linear flow of energy within a food web?
A)wolves, lions, and cheetahs
B)grass, bushes, and trees
C)lettuce, rabbits, and foxes
D)sheep, cows, and horses
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) A community of organisms together with the chemical and physical environment in which the organisms live is known as a(n)____________________.
Q2) All areas of the same landmass have the same net primary productivity.
A)True B)False
Q3) Lightning converts atmospheric nitrogen (N )to nitrogen compounds that mix with the soil. This is the mechanism by which the majority of nitrogen enters the soil.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Almost all life on Earth is directly or indirectly dependent on A)predation.
B)solar energy.
C)physical productivity.
D)human civilization.
Q5) Approximately 100 percent of the energy captured from the sun is passed from trophic level to trophic level.
A)True B)False
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Which of the following is a source of naturally occurring carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A)cellular respiration by living organisms
B)the combustion of plant material ignited by lightning
C)volcanic eruptions
D)all of the above
Q2) The levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
A)peaked around 1950 and have begun slowly decreasing since then.
B)are high but not higher than the highest estimated levels in the last 420,000 years.
C)are estimated to be higher than at any time in the past 420,000 years.
D)began decreasing when the use of CFCs stopped.
Q3) What characteristics would you expect to find in species that will most likely prosper as projected climate change occurs?
A)organisms with narrow tolerances that can live in specialized environments
B)organisms that have broad tolerances that can live in a variety of habitats
C)organisms that live in very stable environments
D)organisms that can live only if they form mutualistic relationships with other organisms
Q4) The conversion of N to NH is called ____________________.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) To help circulate heat gained from the environment while basking, marine iguanas
A)reduce their heart rates.
B)increase the flow of blood to their skin.
C)reduce the flow of blood to their skin.
D)dive into cold waters.
Q2) A person whose hands are being warmed by holding a hot cup of tea is gaining heat by
A)convection.
B)conduction.
C)evaporation.
D)radiation.
Q3) Anesthesia is used in many types of surgeries because it can
A)block nerve impulses transmitted to the spinal cord or brain, thus eliminating sensory perceptions.
B)tingle nerve endings that disrupt patient concentration.
C)make nerve cells hyperactive and increase sensory perception, thus causing numbness.
D)be used as a sedative.
Q4) The lack of water, otherwise known as ____________________, can lead to heatstroke.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) In which of the following animals would you expect to find the longest small intestine relative to its total body size?
A)a lion
B)a horse
C)a human
D)a wolf
Q2) Not all parts of the food that humans ingest is used by our bodies. Fiber, consisting mostly of cellulose, for instance, is excreted without providing nutrition. Which of the following statements explains why fiber is not used as a nutrient in humans?
A)The human gut is unable to break it down; thus it cannot be absorbed across the intestinal cells' membranes.
B)Fiber is an amino acid but not one of the essential amino acids, so we do not need to absorb it as a nutrient.
C)The fiber content of human foods is so low that it is not worthwhile for our bodies to expend energy to extract its nutrients.
D)The fiber is digested into such small molecules that they become nutritionally insignificant.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Although blood plasma carries many electrolytes, nutrients, and other components, the vast majority of plasma is made of ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the size of an organism's gas exchange surface is true?
A)Organisms with small demands generally still have large gas exchange surfaces.
B)Extra gill surface area in a fish would help lower the drag forces in water.
C)The surface area of a gas exchange surface is sized to match the needs of the organism.
D)The lungs of active mammals have smaller gas exchange surfaces than the lungs of less active mammals.
Q3) When we inhale, air moves in through the mouth or nose and next moves into the A)bronchi.
B)alveoli.
C)lungs.
D)pharynx.
Q4) The lungs of organism A have a surface area of 10 square cm. The lungs of organism B have a surface area of 5 square cm. Based on this information, the rate of gas exchange must be higher in organism ____________________.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Which of the following would be least affected by gonadotropins?
A)development of facial hair in human males
B)development of pubic hair
C)development of the thyroid gland
D)development of breasts in human females
Q2) Which of the following is true of birth control pills?
A)They prevent ovulation by maintaining consistently high levels of progesterone.
B)They prevent fertilization by changing the chemical makeup of the protective "shell" of the egg so that it cannot be penetrated by sperm.
C)They prevent sperm from entering the uterus.
D)They break down the synchronicity of ovulation and preparation of the uterus so that when the egg is released, the uterus is not at the right stage to receive it.
Q3) The 28-day menstrual cycle is regulated by ____________________ and ____________________, both of which are produced in the female gonad.
Q4) Cancer of the pituitary gland can cause gigantism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) How does the central nervous system recognize how important a particular stimulus is?
A)by the frequency at which the action potentials are created by the stimulus
B)by the overall strength of the action potential produced by the stimulus
C)by the number of neurotransmitters that reach the brain through the circulatory system
D)by the amount of hormone that the stimulus releases from endocrine glands
Q2) Neurotransmitters are released into a synaptic cleft by the process of
Q3) Which area of our brain acts as a "traffic manager"?
A)the thalamus
B)the cerebral cortex
C)the pons
D)the cerebellum
Q4) The flow of ions across an axon's plasma membrane generates an electrical impulse known as the ____________________.
Q5) The brain and spinal cord make up the ____________________ nervous system.
Q6) Action potentials and resting potentials are the same thing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) Flying and swimming animals share the features of streamlined bodies to reduce drag and appendages with ____________________ surfaces to efficiently push against air or water.
Q2) A myofibril
A)is composed of a single sarcomere.
B)contains a single muscle fiber.
C)has no Z bands.
D)contains many sarcomeres.
Q3) Postmenopausal women can prevent the condition of weakened bones called ____________________.
Q4) The polysaccharide that forms the basis of support tissues in insects and lobsters is A)collagen. B)chitin.
C)bone.
D)cartilage.
Q5) Red meat contains more of the oxygen-carrying pigment ____________________ as compared with white meat.
Q6) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
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Q7) Tendons are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) Histamine
A)makes capillaries near a wound more porous.
B)is converted to prostaglandin near a wound.
C)closes down arterioles near a wound.
D)is an antibody.
Q2) A fever is the product of an out-of-control immune response to a parasite.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fetus of a lion receives antibodies that were produced by its mother while it was still in the womb. This is an example of A)active immunity.
B)a secondary immune response.
C)a primary immune response.
D)passive immunity.
Q4) Neutrophils usually get to a wound site ____________________ [before or after] macrophages begin phagocytizing bacteria.
Q5) ____________________ nodes are pockets that contain specialized cells and trap bacteria and viruses roaming the body.
Q6) Macrophages and neutrophils make up a ____________________ response to invaders.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Genes are generally switched on or off by the presence of proteins called ____________________.
Q2) When a human embryo is approximately 7 days old, it embeds in the ____________________ of its mother's uterus, where it is nourished by the surrounding blood supply until the placenta is functional.
Q3) Sperm are packed with mitochondria because mitochondria produce the A)sugars that keep the sperm alive during its journey through the female reproductive tract.
B)enzymes used to break through the zona pellucida before fertilization.
C)ATP used to complete spermatogenesis.
D)energy needed to power the movement of the tail of the sperm.
Q4) Which one of the following methods of reproduction is not used by animals?
A)sexual reproduction involving sperm and eggs
B)asexual reproduction involving only one animal
C)asexual reproduction involving sperm and eggs
D)a piece of an animal breaks off and grows into a new individual
Q5) During apoptosis in the feet of chicken embryos, the activation of a single ____________________ causes the cells between the toes to die.
Q6) In humans development from zygote to completion is ____________________ weeks.
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Genetics play a role in learned behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If both identical twins who were raised apart exhibit the same behavior,
A)it is most likely due to environmental influences.
B)the behavior is most likely a learned behavior.
C)the behavior is altruistic.
D)it is most likely due to genetic influences.
Q3) Which of the following statements about learned behaviors is true?
A)Learned behaviors provide animals with flexible responses.
B)Learned behaviors are not influenced by an organism's surroundings.
C)Learned behaviors are totally under genetic control.
D)Learned behaviors develop only when an animal interacts with another animal.
Q4) Which of the following examples does not illustrate an advantage gained by communication?
A)Animals can resolve territory conflicts without physically fighting.
B)Bees are able to tell their nest mates where to find a good food source.
C)Young deer hide well from predators because the spots on their fur coat blend into the environment.
D)Wolves are able to coordinate their activities during a hunt.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) From root hair to xylem, which of the following describes the journey of water entering a plant?
A)cortex to endodermis to dermal cell layer
B)endodermis to dermal cell layer to cortex
C)cortex to dermal cell layer to endodermis
D)dermal cell layer to cortex to endodermis
Q2) The roots of a plant are covered with a waxy cuticle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To conserve water, desert plants may have leaves that are reduced or entirely absent, in which case the plant's stems can perform photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A high-quality soil provides everything needed for plant growth.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Plants have two types of vascular tissue: xylem, which transports ____________________, and phloem, which transports
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Q6) ____________________ is the evaporation of water from the surface of a leaf.
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following is not a plant hormone?
A)abscisic acid
B)gibberellin
C)nicotine
D)ethylene
Q2) The central cell of the embryo sac contains
A)the egg nucleus.
B)the endosperm.
C)two nuclei.
D)pollen grains.
Q3) A plant's physiological response to day length is called ____________________.
Q4) Which of the following would not be derived from vascular cambium?
A)bark
B)xylem
C)more undifferentiated cells
D)phloem
Q5) In flowering plants, sperm form the pollen grain.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Mature pollen grains contain ____________________ sperm cells.
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