Course Introduction
Biology I Test Preparation
Biology I offers an introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science, exploring the structure and function of living organisms from the molecular to the ecosystem level. This course covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and the role of biology in addressing real-world challenges. Laboratory sessions reinforce theoretical knowledge through hands-on experiments and observations, fostering critical thinking and analytical skills essential for advanced studies in biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are sorting cards with pictures of organisms and their descriptions into groups.You would place the card with an osprey and the description "organisms that obtain energy by consuming other organisms" with cards for other
A) autotrophs.
B) plants.
C) heterotrophs.
D) producers.
E) photosynthesizers.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is/are dependent variable(s)in this experiment?
A) amount of ammonium nitrate and light
B) amount of carbon dioxide
C) amount of water
D) height of the plants
E) height of the plants and amount of light
Answer: D
Q3) The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the formic acid in the venom of the tawny crazy ants protect them from the fire ant venom?
A) It deactivates enzymes in the fire ant venom.
B) It raises the pH which crystallizes the fire ant venom.
C) It melts the lipids in the fire ant venom.
D) It turns the polysaccharides in the fire ant venom into monosaccharides.
Answer: A
Q2) A hydrogen bond
A) is generally a strong bond.
B) does not occur in living organisms.
C) does not require electron transfer.
D) forms between atoms having the same electronegativity.
E) is a specialized type of covalent bond.
Answer: C
Q3) A base
A) has a value of 7 on the pH scale.
B) is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution.
C) is a chemical that absorbs hydrogen ions from a solution.
D) has a value below 7 on the pH scale.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you found a piece of animal tissue that did not allow fluid to cross between cells,you would predict that it contained tight junctions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following are recycling centers for cells?
A) ribosomes and Golgi apparatus
B) endoplasmic reticulum and chloroplasts
C) mitochondria and nucleus
D) central vacuole and lysosomes
E) All answers choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) The function of the nucleolus is
A) protein synthesis.
B) photosynthesis.
C) to transport materials out of the nucleus.
D) to assemble components of ribosomes.
E) to assemble DNA.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CFTR receptor moves chloride ions out of a cell by active transport.This is an example of
A) a reaction coupled with the production of ATP.
B) an oxidation reaction.
C) a reduction reaction.
D) a reaction requiring the input of ATP.
E) equilibrium.
Q2) If you had to grade an exam question about oxidation-reduction reactions,you would give the most points if a student said that they
A) never occur at the same time.
B) remove electrons from both molecules involved.
C) remove protons from one molecule and join them to another molecule.
D) occur simultaneously.
E) remove oxygen from the cell.
Q3) Oxidation-reduction reactions
A) transfer electrons from one molecule to another.
B) are not used by living cells.
C) transfer protons from one molecule to another.
D) reduce the amount of oxygen in the cell.
E) increase the amount of oxygen in the cell.
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What is released at each step of an electron transport chain?
A) ultraviolet wavelengths
B) electrons
C) photons
D) energy
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) In photosynthesis,the carbon in CO is ________ to form glucose.
A) respired
B) oxidized
C) reduced
D) energized
E) broken down
Q3) Electrons excited in photosystem II help the chloroplast produce
A) water.
B) NADPH.
C) glucose.
D) NADH.
E) ATP.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aerobic respiration includes glycolysis,the Krebs cycle,and electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the Investigating Life,<i>Hot Plants Offer Heat Rewards</i>,what did scientists conclude about beetles and self-heating flowers?
A) At higher temperatures resting beetles saved energy.
B) At higher temperatures active beetles saved energy.
C) At lower temperatures active beetles saved energy.
D) At lower temperatures resting beetles saved energy.
E) Generating heat led to increased pollination of <i>Philodendron</i> flowers by beetles.
Q3) In the electron transport chain,which structure forms a channel in the inner membrane of the mitochondria and adds phosphate to ADP?
A) ATP synthase
B) NADH synthase
C) FADH synthase
D) ADP synthase
E) NADPH synthase
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a "frameshift" mutation
A) the codon that mutates causes no change in the amino acid specified.
B) the codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid.
C) the mutation does not occur in a codon.
D) the mutation is caused by an addition or deletion of one or more nucleotides.
E) the mutation is not in DNA.
Q2) Using the genetic code,predict what type of mutation has occurred in the hemoglobin sickle cell anemia allele. Normal allele GGAAUGAAACAGGAACCC
Mutant allele GGAAUGAAACAGGUACCC
A) a substitution mutation, Val to Glu
B) a frame shift mutation, Val to Glu
C) addition of a new stop codon
D) a substitution mutation, Glu to Val
E) a frame shift mutation, Glu to Val
Q3) A cell can receive new genes from a virus and then produce a new set of proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication,Binary Fission,and Mitosis
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Q1) The correct sequence for the phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle is
A) interphase-prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase-cytokinesis.
B) interphase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase.
C) prophase-anaphase-metaphase-telophase.
D) interphase-prophase-cytokinesis-anaphase-telophase.
E) metaphase-anaphase-interphase-prophase-telophase-cytokinesis.
Q2) All of the following refer to mitosis,except
A) repair of damaged cells.
B) growth of an organism.
C) asexual reproduction.
D) formation of gametes.
E) production of genetically identical daughter cells.
Q3) Adaptive therapy aims to combat ________ amongst cancer cells that leads to tumor growth continuing even after therapy treatments.
A) cooperation
B) camoflauge
C) colegiality
D) competition
E) cohesiveness
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) What is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
A) genetic variability during an ecological disaster
B) genetic variability when the environment is stable
C) faster reproduction
D) requirement of less energy
E) simpler form of reproduction
Q2) The human chromosomes that do not determine an individual's sex are
A) not found in pairs.
B) the "X" and "Y" chromosomes.
C) autosomes.
D) sex chromosomes.
E) No answer is correct.
Q3) Genetic information is passed from one generation to the next through A) DNA.
B) asexual reproduction.
C) sexual reproduction.
D) gametes.
E) All answers are correct.
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11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Of all the people who have studied inheritance,the person who made the most lasting impression on the science of genetics is
A) Charles Darwin.
B) Robert Hooke.
C) King George III.
D) Frederick Griffith.
E) Gregor Mendel.
Q2) When Mendel crossed tall (Tt)plants with tall (Tt)plants the offspring
A) did not grow and reproduce.
B) were always short.
C) were always tall.
D) were always medium height.
E) were mostly tall individuals and a few short individuals.
Q3) The environment only rarely affects gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each gamete arises from a diploid cell containing two sets of homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cloning results in two genetically identical cells/organisms; sexual reproduction results in genetically different cells/organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Growth of ________ does not include turning off genes.
A) stem cells
B) cardiac tissue
C) red blood cells
D) bacterial cells
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) How does DNA profiling detect genetic differences between individuals? It uses
A) short tandem repeats and other variable parts of the genome.
B) shared genetic sequences.
C) entire genomes.
D) detection of non-AGCT bases.
E) only coding regions of the genome.
Q4) Transfer of transgenes from crop plants to wild relatives can render chemicals like glyphospate ineffective.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals,who have one normal allele and one sickle cell allele,are able to resist malaria.This gives them a better chance of reaching reproductive age.This is known as A) heterozygote advantage.
B) homozygote advantage.
C) artificial selection.
D) heterozygote disadvantage.
E) dominant advantage.
Q2) Ancestors of the Galápagos finches had two different types of seeds to eat on some islands.Some seeds were very small and required small beaks to handle.Other seeds were very large and required large strong beaks to crack.This led to ________ among the Galápagos finches.
A) directional selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) disruptive selection
D) artificial selection
E) sexual selection
Q3) Evolution occurs in individuals,not populations.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which period of the Paleozoic era did the first winged insects evolve?
A) Carboniferous
B) Devonian
C) Cambrian
D) Permian
E) Ordovician
Q2) Fossils may be
A) from impressions left after an organism decays.
B) formed as organic matter is replaced by minerals, turning to stone.
C) formed when plant resin or tar preserves the specimen.
D) casts from footprints that have filled with mud and then turned to stone.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) Absolute dating uses ________ to estimate how old a fossil is.
A) depth within rock layers
B) radioactive isotopes
C) a molecular clock
D) structural features
E) embryonic structures
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15
Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Different geographical barriers physically separated the tortoises on the Galápagos Islands.This separation resulted in the evolution of subspecies.This is an example of ________ speciation.
A) prezygotic
B) allopatric
C) postzygotic
D) sympatric
E) outgroup
Q2) What is the least inclusive level of the hierarchical classification scheme?
A) domain
B) phylum
C) kingdom
D) genus
E) species
Q3) The more heritable traits organisms share,the more taxonomic levels they share.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Scientists can fill in gaps in defining species by DNA sequence analysis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA was the first molecule carrying genetic information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A lichen is made up of which two types of organisms?
A) a fungus and a plant
B) a plant and a cyanobacterium
C) a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium
D) an alga and a bacterium
E) an alga and a plant
Q3) Protein was the first molecule carrying genetic information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The complex polysaccharide component of cell walls of bacteria is A) peptidoglycan.
B) glucose.
C) chitin.
D) cellulose.
E) All answers are correct.
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Q1) Which group of plants have phloem and xylem but lack seeds,flowers,and fruit?
A) liverworts, hornworts, and mosses
B) ferns, club mosses, horsetails, and whisk ferns
C) ginkgo, cycads, conifers, and gnetophytes
D) monocots and eudicots
E) All plants have phloem and xylem but lack seeds, flowers, and fruit.
Q2) Gymnosperms are less successful than ferns because ferns make seeds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The two types of vascular tissue in most plants are
A) lignin and xylem.
B) xylem and phloem.
C) lignin and phloem.
D) xylem and stomata.
E) stomata and lignin.
Q4) The main function of phloem is to transport nutrients produced in photosynthesis to the roots and other nongreen parts of the plant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nematodes are protected from environmental hazards in part by their cuticle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a cartilaginous fish?
A) shark
B) tuna
C) salmon
D) lungfish
E) catfish
Q3) A vertebrate is an animal that
A) has a complete digestive tract.
B) does not have a backbone.
C) has a backbone.
D) has an incomplete digestive tract.
E) does not have true tissues.
Q4) If you had found a flattened worm with bilateral symmmetry,you would know that you had found a flatworm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Populations
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Q1) If a species of fruit fly needs a minimum amount of leaf surface area for mating,once there are enough fruit flies to occupy all mating spaces,the population is at carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a survivorship curve,a type II species,like a song bird,is a species that has
A) an equal probability of dying at any age.
B) a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time.
C) the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span.
D) an extremely short life span.
E) the highest probability of dying at a very young age.
Q3) Conditions whose growth-limiting effects increase as a population grows are density-independent factors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water accounts for about half of the ecological footprint.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) At the equator,the Earth receives the
A) maximum amount of solar radiation per unit area.
B) minimum amount of solar radiation per unit area.
C) maximum amount of solar radiation only over the ocean.
D) maximum amount of solar radiation only over the land mass.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) In the water cycle,animals return water to the environment by
A) both transpiration and excretion.
B) excretion only.
C) transpiration only.
D) both respiration and excretion.
Q3) Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which neither member of the relationship benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A pyramid of energy represents each trophic level as a block whose size is directly proportional to the energy used in that level.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) One key to reversing environmental decline is to slow the growth of the human population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are ________ parts per million of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere.
A) 10
B) 17
C) 400
D) 125
E) 21
Q3) After nearing extinction in the 1960s,the bald eagle population is now about 10,000.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Forests are expanding and deserts are shrinking worldwide.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) One way to kill a tree is to girdle it by cutting a groove a centimeter into the bark all around the trunk of the tree.Why wouldn't girdling work on a large grass?
A) The vascular bundles are in a ring just under the bark.
B) The vascular bundles are scattered throughout the ground tissue.
C) Monocots don't have vascular bundles.
D) Eudicots don't have vascular bundles.
E) Grasses have taproots.
Q2) Roots are usually found underground.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does sap move within phloem toward a sink?
A) by a pump
B) by pressure
C) by gravity
D) by osmosis
E) by active transport
Q4) The shoot of a plant is the aboveground part of a plant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) A dry,spiny fruit is probably dispersed by attaching to an animal's fur.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In all major groups of multicellular organisms,________ produces the cells that begin the haploid generation,and ________ unites the gametes to begin the diploid generation.
A) mitosis; pollination
B) meiosis; fertilization
C) pollination; fertilization
D) fertilization; meiosis
E) fertilization; mitosis
Q3) You are given a plant tissue sample made from seeds.When tested,the sample proves to have three copies of each chromosome per cell.You have been given
A) endosperm.
B) endoderm.
C) mesosperm.
D) mesoderm.
E) microspore.
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) If you were doing experiments on rats and wanted to disrupt thermal homeostasis,you would want to disconnect the
A) cerebellum.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) spinal cord.
Q2) Scleroderma is an autoimmune disease in which repeated bouts of inflammation result in collagen deposits in the skin.Which would be a symptom of scleroderma?
A) increased blood flow to the skin
B) increased flexibility in the skin
C) change in the skin cell type from squamous to columnar
D) change in the skin cell type from columnar to squamous
E) less flexibility and sensitivity to temperature in the skin
Q3) If you found a dinosaur fossil in which the nasal cavity cross section was proportionally as large as in a dog,you would probably have found an endothermal dinosaur.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) The part of the neuron that is usually highly branched and receives input from other neurons is the
A) dendrite.
B) axon.
C) synapse.
D) cell body.
E) myelin sheath.
Q2) The type of neuron that conducts its message from the central nervous system toward an effector is the
A) synaptic neuron.
B) interneuron.
C) motor neuron.
D) sensory neuron.
E) neuroglia.
Q3) A neuron fires when Na ions
A) move against their concentration gradient spontaneously.
B) are actively pumped down their concentration gradient.
C) move down their concentration gradient spontaneously.
D) are actively pumped against their concentration gradient.
E) None of the answer choices is correct.
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Lipid-soluble steroid hormones are synthesized from
A) cholesterol.
B) amino acids.
C) nucleotides.
D) proteins.
E) sucrose.
Q2) Estrogen and progesterone normally do which things?
A) stimulate LH and FSH production by the uterus
B) stimulate LH and FSH production by the pituitary
C) inhibit LH and FSH production by the uterus
D) They have no effect on LH and FSH production.
E) inhibit LH and FSH production by the pituitary
Q3) Steroid hormones
A) are typically lipid-soluble.
B) typically do not bind to a surface receptor on a target cell.
C) pass through cell membranes.
D) typically alter gene expression.
E) All answers are correct.
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) How is the temporalis muscle attached to the skull and jaw?
A) myosin
B) ligaments
C) neurons
D) tendons
E) actin
Q2) If you were examining a biopsy sample of a leg bone,and the structure of the bone was spongy,you would know that the sample came from the end of the bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If an older patient came in complaining of joint pain,and a scan showed the bones in the patient's hands rubbing one another,you would diagnose
A) acromegaly.
B) rheumatoid arthritis.
C) scoliosis.
D) osteoporosis.
E) osteoarthritis.
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28
Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Q1) ATP is required by cells to provide power for A) DNA replication.
B) movement.
C) production of proteins.
D) growth.
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) A clumping reaction caused by antibodies in the blood plasma is A) clotting.
B) agglutination.
C) constriction.
D) atherosclerosis.
E) inflammation.
Q3) In mammals,a muscular ________ expands the chest,pulling air into the lungs.
A) chest cavity
B) rib cage
C) trachea
D) diaphragm
E) sternum
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Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Q1) The major excretory organ of the human urinary system is the A) gallbladder.
B) pancreas.
C) liver.
D) adrenal gland.
E) kidney.
Q2) Which is a disadvantage of intracellular digestion that does not affect extracellular digestion?
A) Food must be smaller than a cell.
B) Food must be in a liquid form.
C) Digestive enzymes must be activated immediately.
D) Digestive enzymes are not efficient.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) If presented with a person who was malnourished because of a refusal to eat,you would diagnose anorexia nervosa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Energy is one of the resources obtained by heterotrophs when they eat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Q1) Which is an example of humoral immunity?
A) a cytotoxic T cell destroying a virus-infected cell
B) a self-attack from an autoimmune disease
C) antibodies produced that create an immunodeficiency
D) antibodies produced that clone a pathogen
E) antibodies produced that destroy an invading pathogen
Q2) If a human fetus is ________ and the pregnant woman is ________,an incompatibility that destroys the red blood cells of the fetus may occur.
A) Rh-negative; Rh-positive
B) type AB; type O
C) type O; type AB
D) Rh-positive; Rh-negative
E) Rh-positive; type AB
Q3) If you see cytotoxic T cells,you know that a humoral response is underway.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A very rapid response to a pathogen,involving antibodies,is a secondary immune reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43542
Sample Questions
Q1) A baby turtle growing into an adult that appears similar is an example of A) direct development.
B) external fertilization.
C) internal fertilization.
D) indirect development.
E) differentiation.
Q2) Often a woman may first suspect she is pregnant when she misses her period,which is due to
A) chorionic gonadotropin causing the corpus luteum to continue producing progesterone inhibiting GnRH release.
B) chorionic gonadotropin blocking the corpus luteum from producing progesterone inhibiting GnRH release.
C) follicle-stimulating hormone causing the corpus luteum to continue producing progesterone inhibiting GnRH release.
D) follicle-stimulating hormone blocking the corpus luteum from continuing to produce progesterone inhibiting GnRH release.
E) luteinizing hormone blocking the corpus luteum from continuing to produce progesterone inhibiting GnRH release.
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